Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nursing School > Basic Principles of Pharmacology > Flashcards

Basic Principles of Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Elicits response for which it is given

A

Effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cannot produce harmful effects

A

Safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Elicits only responses for which it is given

A

Selective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Additional properties of an ideal drug

A

reversibility, predictability, ease of administration, freedom from drug interactions, low cost, chemical stability, simple generic names

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Factors that determine intensity of drug responses

A

administration, pharmacokinetics (ADME), pharmacodynamics, individual variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Dosage, route, time

A

administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What the body does to the drug

A

pharmacokinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What the drug does to the body

A

Pharmacodynamics (d in dynamics = what drug does)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Drug interactions, physiologic variables, pathologic variables, genetic variables

A

Individual variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pre-administration assessment includes

A

collect baseline data (HR, BP), identify high risk patient (multi drug), assess patient capacity for self care (educate, teach back, how to administer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Federal pure food and drug act

A

set standards for drug quality and purity, in addition to strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Food, drug, and cosmetic act

A

all medications must be tested for safety, with results viewed by FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Harris-Kefauver agreements

A

Medications must be proven effective before marketing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Controlled substance act

A

Rules made for categorizing medications with potential for abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

BPCA & PREA

A

Promote research in drug safety and efficacy in children with clinical trials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

FDA amendments act

A

Include rigorous oversight of drug safety after approval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Controlled substances class I (++++)

A

high abuse potential, no accepted medical use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Examples of class I controlled substances

A

heroin, LSD, MDMA (ecstasy), marijuana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Controlled substances class II (++++)

A

high abuse potential, accepted medical use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Examples of class II controlled substanses

A

morphine, oxycodone (OxyContin), methamphetamine, fentanyl, Adderall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Controlled substances class III (+++)

A

moderate abuse potential, accepted medical use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Examples of class III controlled substances

A

ketamine, testosterone, anabolic steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Controlled substance class IV (++)

A

low abuse potential, accepted medical use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Examples of class IV controlled substances

A

Xanax, Valium, Ambien, tramadol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Controlled substance class V (+)

A

low abuse potential, accepted medical use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Examples of class V controlled substances

A

Lyrica, Lomotil, many codeine-containing cough syrups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What class has the highest abuse potential and which class has the lowest

A

Highest = class I
Lowest = class V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most reliable way to objectively assess drug therapies

A

Randomized controlled trials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Three key features to randomized controlled trials

A

controls, randomization, blinding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Chemical medication nomenclature

A

describes the medication using chemistry nomenclature (N-acetyl-para-aminophenol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Generic medication nomenclature

A

name of drug assigned by US Adopted Names Council that is less complex than chemical name (acetaminophen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Trade medication nomenclature

A

name under which drug is marketed under for ease of use and recall (Tylenol, Ofirmev, APAP, Excedrin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Sources of drug information

A

People (pharmacists, nurses, physicians), pharmaceutical reps), reference books, online database

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

what the body is made to do to the medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Kinetics - ADME stands for

A

absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Absorption of drug

A

movement from site of administration to blood stream, rate of absorption determines how soon effects will begin, amount of absorption determines how intense effects will be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Distribution of drug

A

movement of drugs into cells (IV is straight to distribution)

38
Q

Metabolism of drug

A

biotransformation or conversion of drugs into another form

39
Q

Excretion of drug

A

removal of drug from the body

40
Q

Elimination of drug

A

both metabolism and excretion combined

41
Q

Factors that can affect absorption

A

rate of dissolution, surface area (small intestine absorbs more), blood flow, lipid solubility, pH partitioning (acid base)

42
Q

Most common routes of drug administration

A

IV, IM, SQ, and PO

43
Q

Advantages of Intravenous route

A

rapid onset, permits large volumes and irritant drugs

44
Q

Disadvantages of IV route

A

irreversible, inconvenient, and expensive, not suited for self administration, risk for fluid overload, infection, and embolism, drugs must be WATER SOLUBLE

45
Q

IM and SQ injections barrier

A

capillary wall

46
Q

IM and SQ advantages

A

permits use of poorly soluble drugs and depot preparations

47
Q

IM and SQ disadvantages

A

uncomfortable, possibly painful, inconvenient with potential for injury

48
Q

PO (oral) barriers

A

epithelial lining of GI tract and capillary call, makes absorption slower and variable

49
Q

PO advantages

A

easy, convenient to administer, inexpensive, ideal for self administration, potentially reversible

50
Q

PO disadvantages

A

variability, inactivation by gastric acid and digestive enzymes; possible nausea/vomiting, patient must be conscious and cooperative

51
Q

Distribution of drug

A

transport of drug in body fluids from bloodstream to various tissues in body, and then site of action

52
Q

Factors affecting distribution

A

blood flow to tissues, fluid status, alterations to vessels & abscesses

53
Q

What type of drugs can cross the BBB (blood brain barrier)

A

lipid soluble drugs or those with a transport system can cross the BBB

54
Q

What do drugs bind to in the bloodstream

A

albumin, only unbound drugs can act on body

55
Q

What two structures can limit access of medications to certain parts of body

A

Blood brain barrier, placenta

56
Q

First pass effect

A

drugs that are highly metabolized lose much of their effectiveness due to first pass effect, may need higher doses or be administered via a different route to achieve therapeutic effect

57
Q

Removal of drugs from the body in the urine, bile, sweat, saliva, breast milk, and expired air, manipulating urinary pH can promote drug ionization and decrease passive reabsorption

A

Excretion

58
Q

Plasma drug levels

A

helps determine appropriate dosages, routes, and therapeutic effectiveness

59
Q

Trough

A

low point before dose due

60
Q

Peak

A

30 minutes after completed

61
Q

Half-life

A

time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50%

62
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

what the drug does to the body, the effect is the turning on, off, promotion, or blocking of a response the body can already perform

63
Q

By knowing how drugs affect the body, nurses can

A

provide patient education, make decisions with PRN medications, evaluate patients for drug responses, collaborate with prescribers

64
Q

Efficacy (effectiveness)

A

largest effect that a drug can produce, increased height on the dose-response curve indicates more efficacy

65
Q

Potency

A

how much of a drug is needed to elicit a response

66
Q

Medications can affect four primary receptor families

A

cell membrane-embedded enzymes, ligand-gated ion channels, protein-coupled receptor systems, transcription factors

67
Q

Selectivity of drugs

A

more selective drugs will produce fewer side effects, opioids help relieve pain by acting on mu receptors in the CNS

68
Q

ED50

A

dose required to produce defined therapeutic response in 50% of the population

69
Q

LD50

A

dose that is lethal to 50% of animals treated

70
Q

Therapeutic index

A

measure of drugs safety using the ratio of LD50 to ED50; the higher the number the safer the drug

71
Q

Drug interactions

A

occurs whenever a patient takes two or more drugs and can be either intended or unintended and includes prescription drugs, OTC drugs, caffeine, nicotine, alcohol, illicit drugs

72
Q

How do antacids cause altered absorption

A

increases the ability of basic drugs to cross membranes

73
Q

How can Phenobarbital alter metabolism

A

accelerating metabolism of contraceptives, thus losing protection from pregnancy

74
Q

What happens when you increase urinary pH

A

alter excretion by decreasing passive reabsorption

75
Q

Nurses can help minimize adverse interactions by

A

minimizing number of drugs patient receives, take thorough history, adjust dosage, monitor for s/s toxicity

76
Q

How can calcium reduce absorption of tetracyclines

A

creates non-absorbable complexes

77
Q

Consuming food with saquinavir, type of antiviral for HIV can

A

increase absorption of the medication

78
Q

Grapefruit juice effect

A

Furanocoumarins and flavonoids can inhibit CYP3A4 metabolism and increase blood levels of certain medications; instead of being metabolized, more of the drug enters the blood and stays in the body longer.

79
Q

Medication instructions “with food”

A

take with or shortly after meal

80
Q

Medication instructions “on an empty stomach”

A

1 hour before meal or 2 hours after

81
Q

Adverse effect

A

any noxious (harmful), unintended, and undesired effect, ranging from mild to life threatening, that occurs at normal drug doses

82
Q

Side effect

A

nearly unavoidable secondary drug effect produced at therapeutic doses

83
Q

Organ-specific toxicity

A

nephrotoxicity, pulmonary toxicity, ototoxicity

84
Q

Hepatotoxicity

A

medications are leading cause of acute liver failure due to metabolism converting drugs to toxic products, monitor ALT and AST, assess for s/s liver injury

85
Q

Prolonged QT intervals creates risk for

A

dysrhythmias

86
Q

Pharmaceutical industry role in minimizing adverse drug reactions

A

produce safest medications possible

87
Q

Prescriber role in minimizing adverse drug reactions

A

select least harmful drugs, balance risk and benefits

88
Q

Nurses role in minimizing adverse drug reactions

A

evaluate patients for ADR, educate

89
Q

Medication guides are required when

A

patient adherence to directions for drug use is essential for efficacy, patient needs to know about potentially serious effects when deciding to use a drug

90
Q

Black box warnings

A

strongest warning on drugs, alerts prescribers and patients to potentially severe side effects

91
Q

Medication errors

A

any preventable event that may cause or lead to inappropriate medication use or patient harm; human factors, communication mistakes, and name confusion account for 90% of all errors

Nursing School (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions