Basic Science

Question 1

Physeal Zones

Answer 1

RPHM

Reserve, proliferative, Hypertrophic, Metaphysis

Question 2

Reserve Zone of Physis

Answer 2

RPKHD Reserve Place Kicker has Good Distance
Pseudoachondroplasia
Kneist Syndrome
Gaucher Disease
Diastrophic Dysplasia

Question 3

Proliferative Zone of Physis

Answer 3

GPA Big and Small

Gigantism and Achondroplasia

Question 4

Hypertrophic Zone of Physis

Answer 4

MORE Sex Please
Mucopolysaccharidoses
Osteomalacia
Rickets
Enchondroma
SCFE
Physeal Fx

Question 5

Metaphysis zone of physis

Answer 5

SCFE in endocrinopathy, vitamin C

Question 6

Primary hyperparathyroidism

Answer 6

parathyroid adenoma
Increased: Serum Ca, PTH, 1,25-vit D, urine Ca
decreased: Serum Phos
normal 25 VitD

Question 7

Hypoparathyroidism

Answer 7

Increased: Serum Phos
Decreased: Serum Ca, PTH, 1,25 vit D, urine Ca
Normal: Alk Phos

Question 8

Pseudohypoparathyroidism

Answer 8

Genetic disorder, resistance to PTH
Increased: PTH (or normal), Serum Phos
Decreased: Serum Ca, 1,25 vit D, Urine Ca
Normal: PTH (or increased) Alk Phos, 25 vit D

Question 9

Vit D deficient Rickets

Answer 9

Increased: PTH, Alk Phos
Decreased: serum Ca (or normal), serum phos, 25 vit D, 1,25 Vit D, urine Ca

Question 10

Hypophosphatemic rickets

Answer 10

phosphate diabetes
X-linked dominant
most common form of rickets
Decreased: Serum Phos
Normal: serum Ca, PTH, 25 vitD, 1.25-Vit D, urine Ca
tx: phosphate and vit D (to offset effect of phosphate supplementation.)

Question 11

Articular cartilage zones:
Superficial
Middle
Deep
Tidemark
Calcified

Answer 11

Superficial: gliding, decreased metabolic activity, vs shear
Middle: transitional, increased met activity, vs compression
deep: radial, increased collagen size, vs compressoin
Tidemark, undulating barrier, vs shear
calcified zone: hydroxyapatite crystals, anchor

Question 12

Collagen types

Answer 12

1: meniscus, bONE, tendon, skin, annulus fibrosis
2: main contributor of articular cartilage and nucl pulp
6: increased in OA
10: endochondral ossification

Question 13

Nerve Injury:

Neuropraxia, axonotmesis, neurotmesis

Answer 13

Neuropraxia: axon continuity maintained, reversible, no wallerian degeneration
Axonotmesis: axon severely damaged or severed, endoneural tube (schwann cells intact.) wallerian degeneration. good recovery.2-5 weeks have fibrillations with positive sharp waves.
Neurotmesis: loss of endoneural continuity. wallerian degeneration. Recovery variable.

Question 14

COMP

Answer 14

Pseudoachondroplasia, MED (type 1), OA

Question 15

FGF-3

Answer 15

achondroplasia, hypochondroplasia, thanatophoric dysplasia

Question 16

FGF-2

Answer 16

Apert’s syndrome, Jackson-Weiss, Crouzon’s, most pfeiffer’s syndromes.

Question 17

collagen II

Answer 17

SED congenital, DD, Kneist, stickler

Question 18

Collagen IX

Answer 18

MED type II

Question 19

SEDL gene

Answer 19

SED tarda

Question 20

PTH-related protein

Answer 20

Jansen’s metaphyseal chondrodysplasia

Question 21

Collagen X, EXT1, EXT2 genes

Answer 21

MHE. 1 is worse (more growths, more chondrosarc…)

Question 22

Sulfate transport gene

Answer 22

DD

Question 23

Core-binding factor

Answer 23

cleidocranial dysplasia

Question 24

carbonic anhydrase II, proton pump mutation

Answer 24

osteopetrosis/osteoclasts

Question 25

COL 1A1 (pro-alpha 1 collagen gene)

Answer 25

OI

Question 26

Col 2A1

Answer 26

Kneist syndrome (PTH receptor problem)

Question 27

PEX

Answer 27

x-linked hypophosphotemic rickets

Question 28

t(x,18)

Answer 28

Synovial sarcoma

Question 29

t(2,13)

Answer 29

rhabdomyosarcoma, alveolar

Question 30

t(12,16)

Answer 30

myxoid liposarcoma

Question 31

t(9,22)

Answer 31

chondrosarcoma

Question 32

t(12,22)

Answer 32

clear cell chondrosarcoma

Question 33

t(11,22)

Answer 33

Ewings

Question 34

dystrophin absent

Answer 34

Duchenne MD

Question 35

dystrophin abnormal

Answer 35

Becker's MD

Question 36

survival motor neuron

Answer 36

SMA

Question 37

peripheral myelin protein 22

Answer 37

CMT type 1A

Question 38

Connexin 32

Answer 38

CMT x-linked

Question 39

Neurofibromin (tumor suppressor gene)

Answer 39

NF1

Question 40

Merlin

Answer 40

NF2

Question 41

Schmannomin

Answer 41

NF2

Question 42

fibrillin

Answer 42

Marfan

Question 43

g protein activated

Answer 43

fibrous dysplasia

Question 44

elastin

Answer 44

fragile x

Question 45

CPPD

Answer 45

pseudogout

Question 46

ABX: inhibit cell wall synthesis

Answer 46

PCN, cephs, vanco, bacitracin, aztreonam, imipenem, beta lactams bind to surface of cell membrane

Question 47

ABX: increase cell wall permeability

Answer 47

polymyxin, nystatin, amphotericin

Question 48

ABX: Ribosomal inhibition

Answer 48

static inbibit protein synthesis by binding to ribosomal RNA: aminoglycosides, clinda, eryth, tetracycline. cidal bind 30S subunit, misread messenger RNA: gent, streptomycin, tobra, amikacin, neomycin.

Question 49

ABX: DNA transcription and translation

Answer 49

quinolones - rendon ruptures, avoid in children (inhibit DNA gyrase) rifampin - inhibits RNA polymerase metronidazole, for anaerobes

Question 50

Coumadin potentiators

Answer 50

FEAST BCD HSP flagyl eryth ASA sulfa tagamet bactrim cefamandole disulfamide heparin septra phenytoin

Question 51

Warfarin

Answer 51

limits production of factors 2, 7, 9, 10, protein c and s

Question 52

heparin

Answer 52

enhances ability of antithrombin (AT-3) to inhibit factors 2a , 9a, and 10a. Intrinsic pathway.

Question 53

LWMH

Answer 53

inhibit factors 2a and 10a.

Question 54

Youngs modulus mnemonic

Answer 54

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