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ABCP Board Exams > Basic Science Practice Exam > Flashcards

Basic Science Practice Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The right coronary artery is said to be dominant when:
A. Greater than 80% of coronary venous return is via the right coronary sinus.
B. Flow to the right ventricle occurs primarily in systole.
C. It gives rise to the posterior descending artery.
D. It arises from the right sinus of Valsalva.

A

C. It gives rise to the posterior descending artery.

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2
Q

The primary structural units of proteins are:
A. Pyruvic acids.
B. Conjugated fatty acids.
C. L-amino acids.
D. Ribonucleic acids.

A

C. L-amino acids.

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3
Q

3) Which clotting factor is activated by contact with foreign surfaces, roughened vascular walls, and platelet aggregates?
A. V (Proaccelerin).
B. XII (Hageman).
C. VIII (Antihemophilic).
D. X (Stuart-Prower).

A

B. XII (Hageman).

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4
Q

The effect of plasmin is to:
A. Limit clotting by splitting fibrin.
B. Initiate the intrinsic pathway.
C. Cleave thrombin.
D. Activate the extrinsic pathway.

A

A. Limit clotting by splitting fibrin.

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5
Q

The normal arterio-venous oxygen difference is approximately:
A. 7 mmHg.
B. 40 mmHg.
C. 5 volumes percent.
D. 14 volumes percent.

A

C. 5 volumes percent.

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6
Q

Oxygen delivery will be decreased when a low venous oxygen tension and high venous oxyhemoglobin saturation are present due to:
A. An increase in P50.
B. A decrease in P50.
C. Metabolic alkalosis.
D. Metabolic acidosis.

A

B. A decrease in P50.

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7
Q

A characteristic of the oxygen-dissociation curve for fetal hemoglobin is that:
A. It is identical to the adult curve.
B. It shifts to the right of the maternal curve.
C. It is unrelated to the maternal curve.
D. It shifts to the left of the maternal curve.

A

D. It shifts to the left of the maternal curve.

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8
Q

At a given pO2, increasing the pCO2 results in:
A. More oxygen bound to the hemoglobin.
B. Less oxygen bound to the hemoglobin.
C. No effect on the amount of oxygen bound to the hemoglobin.
D. A decrease of P50.

A

B. Less oxygen bound to the hemoglobin.

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9
Q

A sample of blood cooled from 37ºC will undergo which of the following changes?
A. CO2 becomes more soluble and PaCO2 decreases.
B. CO2 becomes less soluble and pH decreases.
C. CO2 solubility does not change, bicarbonate levels increase.
D. CO2 solubility increases and base excess levels decrease.

A

A. CO2 becomes more soluble and PaCO2 decreases.

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10
Q

If the diffusion coefficient for oxygen is 1, the diffusion coefficient for carbon dioxide is:
A. 20.3.
B. 37.5.
C. 0.81.
D. 0.20.

A

A. 20.3.

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11
Q

In 85-95% of patients, the circumflex artery supplies the:
A. Lateral aspect of the left ventricle.
B. Entire posterior surface of the left ventricle.
C. Posterior ventricular septum.
D. Anterior medial papillary muscle.

A

A. Lateral aspect of the left ventricle.

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12
Q

The obtuse marginal artery is a branch of the:
A. Left anterior descending artery.
B. Ramus intermedius.
C. Circumflex artery.
D. Right main coronary artery.

A

C. Circumflex artery.

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13
Q

Diagonal coronary arteries supply the:
A. Anterior wall of the LV.
B. Lateral wall of the LV.
C. Apex of the LV.
D. Free wall of the RV.

A

A. Anterior wall of the LV.

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14
Q

Which arterial wall layer is composed of lamellae of smooth muscle and elastic tissue?
A. Tunica adventitia.
B. Tunica media.
C. Tunica intima.
D. Tunica elastica externa.

A

B. Tunica media.

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15
Q

A characteristic of leukocytes is that they are:
A. Smaller than erythrocytes.
B. Larger than platelets.
C. Uniform in shape.
D. 700-1200/mL of blood.

A

B. Larger than platelets.

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16
Q

The main function of an enzyme is to:
A. Increase the rate of a biochemical reaction.
B. Initiate a biochemical reaction.
C. Act as a substrate for a biochemical reaction.
D. Alter the equilibrium of a biochemical reaction.

A

A. Increase the rate of a biochemical reaction.

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17
Q

The conformational change of the platelet structure that occurs when stimulated by exposure to foreign surfaces is best described as a:
A. Biconcave disc with multiple nuclei extensions.
B. Discoid shape cell fragment.
C. Globular form with pseudopodia.
D. Large oval shaped cell with a central nucleus.

A

A. Biconcave disc with multiple nuclei extensions.

OR

C. Globular form with pseudopodia.

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18
Q

The classical pathway of complement activation is initiated by:
A. Red blood cells.
B. Antibody-antigen reactions.
C. Cytotoxic T cells.
D. Chemotaxis of white blood cells.

A

B. Antibody-antigen reactions.

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19
Q

Which of the following is NOT a normal route for blood return directly to the interior of the heart?
A. Coronary sinus.
B. Thebesian veins.
C. Pulmonary veins.
D. Bronchial veins

A

D. Bronchial veins

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20
Q

20) The effect of a calcium channel-blocking drug is:
A. A marked decrease in transmembrane calcium current.
B. An increase in smooth muscle response.
C. To allow for consistent depolarization of cardiac cells.
D. An increase in cardiac muscle response.

A

A. A marked decrease in transmembrane calcium current.

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21
Q

The most significant side effect of Calan (verapamil) is:
A. Severe A-V block.
B. Atrial dysrhythmias.
C. Vasoconstriction.
D. Tachycardia.

A

A. Severe A-V block.

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22
Q

Persantine (dipyridamole)interferes with the function of:
A. Platelets.
B. Renin.
C. Thromboxane A2.
D. ADH.

A

A. Platelets.

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23
Q

The cardiovascular effects of Inocor (amrinone) include:
A. Increased systemic vascular resistance.
B. Decreased pulmonary artery pressure.
C. Increased LVEDP.
D. Decreased myocardial oxygen consumption.

A

B. Decreased pulmonary artery pressure.

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24
Q

Cephalosporins have little antimicrobial activity against:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B. Pneumococci.
C. Viridans streptococci.
D. Staphylococcus aureus.

A

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

OR

D. Staphylococcus aureus.

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25
Q

Which of the following anesthetic agents has the shortest duration of action?
A. Sublimaze (fentanyl).
B. Ativan (lorazepam).
C. Diprivan (propofol).
D. Sufenta (sufentanil).

A

C. Diprivan (propofol).

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26
Q

Which of the following effects does NOT occur with morphine sulfate?
A. Increased peripheral vascular resistance.
B. Decreased myocardial oxygen consumption.
C. Analgesia.
D. Urinary retention.

A

A. Increased peripheral vascular resistance.

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27
Q

Which of the following drugs increases the tolerance of the brain to global ischemia when administered prior to the ischemic episode?
A. Dextrose 50%.
B. Dilantin (phenytoin).
C. Mannitol.
D. Pentothal (thiopental).

A

D. Pentothal (thiopental).

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28
Q

Digitalis preparations are most commonly used to:
A. Increase myocardial contractility and control atrial arrhythmias.
B. Increase systemic vascular resistance and control ventricular arrhythmias.
C. Increase pre-load and control ventricular heart rate.
D. Prevent left atrial thrombus formation and embolization.

A

A. Increase myocardial contractility and control atrial arrhythmias.

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29
Q

The most common site of traumatic aortic disruption due to deceleration injury is:
A. Between the left carotid and left subclavian arteries.
B. At the origin of the left subclavian artery.
C. Between the left subclavian artery and the ligamentum arteriosum.
D. Just distal to the ligamentum arteriosum.

A

C. Between the left subclavian artery and the ligamentum arteriosum.

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30
Q

Obstruction of blood flow through the mitral valve would most likely be caused by a:
A. Left atrial myxoma.
B. Left ventricular tumor.
C. Septal infarct.
D. Ruptured chordae tendinae.

A

A. Left atrial myxoma.

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31
Q

Atrial myxomas are primarily located:
A. Intracavitary.
B. Intramural.
C. Intraseptal.
D. Intramuscular.

A

C. Intraseptal.

32
Q

Reduced coronary blood flow can result in:
A. Increased synthesis of ATP.
B. Deactivation of calcium lipases.
C. An elevation of creatinine phosphokinase (CPK-MB).
D. Sequestration of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

A

C. An elevation of creatinine phosphokinase (CPK-MB).

33
Q

Myocardial stunning can be defined as:
A. Myocardial injury due to excessive intracellular accumulation of calcium ions during reperfusion.
B. Post ischemic contractile dysfunction in the absence of morphological injury or necrosis.
C. Irreversible injury manifested as myocellular necrosis following coronary occlusion.
D. Myocardial injury due to generation of oxygen free radicals and radical metabolites from molecular oxygen.

A

B. Post ischemic contractile dysfunction in the absence of morphological injury or necrosis.

34
Q

The anastomoses during cardiac transplantation most commonly occur in the following order:
A. Aorta, pulmonary artery, left atrium, right atrium.
B. Left atrium, right atrium, pulmonary artery, aorta.
C. Pulmonary artery, left atrium, right atrium, aorta.
D. Aorta, right atrium, pulmonary artery, left atrium.

A

B. Left atrium, right atrium, pulmonary artery, aorta.

35
Q

Ventricular septal rupture in adults is most often the result of a(n):
A. Right to left shunt.
B. A-V canal.
C. Myocardial infarction.
D. Congenital abnormality.

A

C. Myocardial infarction.

36
Q

Myocardial infarction is defined as:
A. Local tissue death.
B. Coronary artery thrombus.
C. Atherosclerotic heart disease.
D. Local tissue ischemia.

A

A. Local tissue death.

37
Q

The tissue in a true ventricular aneurysm is composed of:
A. Thickened, akinetic myocardium.
B. Thinned myocardium exhibiting paradoxical systolic expansion.
C. Fully calcified dyskinetic scar tissue.
D. Thinned, fibrous endocardium.

A

B. Thinned myocardium exhibiting paradoxical systolic expansion.

38
Q

The most frequent cause of cardiogenic shock is:
A. Papillary muscle rupture.
B. Left ventricular infarction.
C. Pulmonary embolism.
D. Ventricular dysrhythmias.

A

B. Left ventricular infarction.

39
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate enzymatic measurement for the diagnosis of myocardial infarction?
A. Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase.
B. Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase.
C. Creatine kinase - MB.
D. Lactic dehydrogenase.

A

C. Creatine kinase - MB.

40
Q

40) The minimum ACT prior to initiating normothermic cardiopulmonary bypass is:
A. 200 sec.
B. 300 sec.
C. 400 sec.
D. 500 sec.

A

C. 400 sec.

41
Q

A decrease in platelet function is indicated by which TEG parameter?
A. R-value.
B. K-value.
C. Alpha angle.
D. MA-value.

A

D. MA-value.

42
Q

As defined by OSHA Standards for Bloodborne Pathogens, which of the following represents an engineering control?
A. Wearing gown and gloves when handling blood or other body fluids.
B. Not bending or recapping used needles.
C. Handwashing after removing gloves.
D. Puncture resistant containers for sharps.

A

D. Puncture resistant containers for sharps.

43
Q

For optimal decompression utilizing a dual-staged venous cannula, the tip of the cannula should lie in the:
A. Mid-right atrium.
B. Right atrial appendage.
C. Superior vena cava.
D. Inferior vena cava.

A

D. Inferior vena cava.

44
Q

Cannulation of the aortic arch near the origin of the first great vessel is associated with:
A. Antegrade dissection.
B. Selective hyperperfusion of the head.
C. A high incidence of aortic valve damage.
D. Baroreceptor damage.

A

B. Selective hyperperfusion of the head.

45
Q

An essential design feature of a single-pass blood cardioplegia system is a:
A. Blood-Crystalloid shunt line.
B. Low heat exchanger coefficient.
C. Low system priming volume.
D. Infusion pressure relief valve.

A

D. Infusion pressure relief valve.

46
Q

Which of the following will minimize air emboli from a cardiotomy reservoir?
A. Use of a vacuum suction source.
B. Use of a large pore filter material.
C. Maintenance of a constant fluid level in the cardiotomy.
D. Allowing blood to free fall through the antifoam sponge.

A

C. Maintenance of a constant fluid level in the cardiotomy.

47
Q

The difference between total cardiopulmonary bypass and partial cardiopulmonary bypass is that:
A. The heart is completely empty during total cardiopulmonary bypass.
B. All the bronchial venous blood is diverted to the oxygenator during total cardiopulmonary bypass.
C. The bronchial venous return is the only systemic venous return entering the left heart during total cardiopulmonary bypass.
D. The aorta must be cross-clamped during total cardiopulmonary bypass.

A

C. The bronchial venous return is the only systemic venous return entering the left heart during total cardiopulmonary bypass.

48
Q

In hypoplastic left heart syndrome, arterial cannulation is performed via the:
A. Main pulmonary artery.
B. Ascending aorta.
C. Descending aorta.
D. Ductus arteriosus.

A

A. Main pulmonary artery.

OR

B. Ascending aorta.

49
Q

Extracorporeal microfiber filtration is most frequently employed in the following location during adult cardiopulmonary bypass:
A. Arterial line.
B. Cardioplegia delivery line.
C. Cardiotomy reservoir.
D. Pre-bypass prior to connection to the patient.

A

C. Cardiotomy reservoir.

50
Q

Which flow meter uses acoustics to measure blood flow?
A. Electromagnetic.
B. Float.
C. Turbine.
D. Doppler.

A

D. Doppler.

51
Q

The main function of the air bubble detector is to:
A. Detect small bubbles (0.3-3mm).
B. Prevent depriming of centrifugal pumps.
C. Permit lower reservoir volumes.
D. Prevent massive arterial air embolism.

A

D. Prevent massive arterial air embolism.

52
Q

The activated clotting time (ACT) measures blood coagulation initiated by which one of the following?
A. Extrinsic pathway.
B. Common pathway.
C. Intrinsic pathway.
D. Factor XIII.

A

C. Intrinsic pathway.

53
Q

In coagulation monitoring, kaolin is used in the measurement of:
A. PT.
B. PTT.
C. INR.
D. ACT.

A

D. ACT.

54
Q

An instrument that measures coagulation from the fluid state until clot lysis occurs is a(n):
A. Activated clotting time device.
B. Activated partial thrombin time device.
C. Donath-Landsteiner test device.
D. Thromboelastograph device.

A

D. Thromboelastograph device.

55
Q

Inability to adequately anticoagulate with heparin during cardiac surgery may be due to all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Hypereosinophilic syndrome.
B. Preoperative heparin therapy.
C. Antithrombin III deficiency.
D. Thrombocytopenia.

A

D. Thrombocytopenia.

56
Q

The dilutional hematocrit for a 70 kg male with a pre-bypass hematocrit of 45% undergoing cardiopulmonary bypass with an extracorporeal circuit prime of 2.0 liters would be:
A. 25%.
B. 31%.
C. 35%.
D. 38%.

A

B. 31%.

57
Q

In order to achieve a concentration of 30 mEq/l KCl (ignoring patient serum K+) in a cardioplegia solution using a 1:1 blood:crystalloid cardioplegia administration set, how much KCl must be added to 0.9% NaCl to make 1 liter of the crystalloid solution?
A. 30 mEq
B. 60 mEq
C. 120 mEq
D. 240 mEq

A

B. 60 mEq

58
Q

The formula for systemic vascular resistance (SVR)is:
A. (MAP+CVP)/CO.
B. (MAP-PWP)/CI.
C. (MAP-RAP)/CO.
D. (MAP/RAP)/CI.

A

C. (MAP-RAP)/CO.

59
Q

The approximate blood volume (in liters) of an adult patient can be calculated by multiplying the body weight in kilograms by:
A. 30%.
B. 16%.
C. 8%.
D. 4%.

A

C. 8%.

60
Q

The blood volume of a normal, healthy, nine-pound newborn approximates:
A. 850 mL.
B. 750 mL.
C. 650 mL.
D. 300 mL.

A

D. 300 mL.

61
Q

Which sites are recommended for monitoring arterial pressures during left heart bypass for repairs of the descending aorta?
A. Left and right femoral.
B. Radial and femoral.
C. Left and right radial.
D. Radial and brachial.

A

B. Radial and femoral.

62
Q

In a patient with an acute Type A aortic dissection and a history of coronary artery disease, which of the following would best reduce the risk of postoperative organ and neurologic deficits?
A. Moderate hypothermia with low flow perfusion and packing the head in ice.
B. Deep hypothermia with circulatory arrest.
C. Deep hypothermia with circulatory arrest and cerebral perfusion.
D. Left heart bypass with renal perfusion.

A

C. Deep hypothermia with circulatory arrest and cerebral perfusion.

63
Q

Monitoring the effect of heparin instead of the heparin concentration would be more beneficial in which of the following clinical scenarios?
A. Antithrombin III deficiency.
B. Extreme hemodilution.
C. Factor I deficiency.
D. Thrombocytopenia.

A

A. Antithrombin III deficiency.

64
Q

Administration of fresh frozen plasma may be indicated during routine cardiopulmonary bypass for:
A. Heparin induced thrombocytopenia.
B. Elevation of osmotic pressure.
C. Von Willebrand’s disease.
D. Antithrombin III deficiency.

A

D. Antithrombin III deficiency.

65
Q

A contraindication for red cell salvage is:
A. HIV infection.
B. Use of microfibrillar collagen hemostat.
C. Factor X deficiency.
D. Cephalosporin irrigation.

A

B. Use of microfibrillar collagen hemostat.

66
Q

Counterpulsation assists the failing heart by:
A. Raising the peak systolic pressure.
B. Propelling blood retrograde to assure good filling of the left ventricle.
C. Decreasing the coronary filling pressure.
D. Raising the diastolic pressure.

A

D. Raising the diastolic pressure.

67
Q

When monitored from the femoral site, the balloon-augmented wave form will appear as which of the following when properly timed?
A. Inflation too early.
B. Inflation on time.
C. Inflation too late.
D. Deflation too early.

A

C. Inflation too late.

68
Q

During ECMO support, heparin requirements will increase:
A. When packed red cells are administered.
B. When platelets are administered.
C. When circuit flow is increased.
D. If the patient is in renal failure.

A

B. When platelets are administered.

69
Q

During isolated limb perfusion, systemic pressure is maintained higher than limb perfusion pressure to prevent:
A. Limb edema.
B. Tumor migration.
C. Heat loss.
D. Drug leakage.

A

D. Drug leakage.

70
Q

Intrathoracic chemotherapeutic perfusion temperatures should be maintained between which of these ranges?
A. 38°C - 39°C
B. 40°C - 41°C
C. 42°C - 43°C
D. 44°C - 45°C

A

B. 40°C - 41°C

71
Q

A hemodynamic effect of pulsatile perfusion is:
A. Decreased peripheral vascular resistance.
B. Increased plasma Angiotensin II.
C. Increased afterload post CPB.
D. Increased systemic vascular resistance.

A

A. Decreased peripheral vascular resistance.

72
Q

Access to the mitral valve during minimally invasive surgery is through a:
A. Mini-sternotomy.
B. Full sternotomy.
C. Left mini-thoracotomy.
D. Right mini-thoracotomy.

A

D. Right mini-thoracotomy.

73
Q

Acute cerebral ischemia induced by air embolus is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Severe cardiac arrhythmias.
B. Acute hypertension.
C. Increased intra-cranial pressure.
D. Increased EEG activity.

A

D. Increased EEG activity.

74
Q

Which of the following is NOT done during resuscitation for CPB induced air embolus?
A. Retrograde SVC perfusion.
B. Carotid compression.
C. Induction of barbiturate coma.
D. Induction of hypotension.
Which of the following is NOT done during resuscitation for CPB induced air embolus?
A. Retrograde SVC perfusion.
B. Carotid compression.
C. Induction of barbiturate coma.
D. Induction of hypotension.

A

D. Induction of hypotension.

75
Q

Which of the following is a reported disadvantage of cerebral saturation monitoring using Near Infrared Spectroscopy (NIRS) Technology:
A. Global ischemic events are not reflected in the measurements.
B. Pulsatile perfusion pressure is required for accurate measurements.
C. Catheter placement is required for continuous measurements.
D. Extra-cranial blood saturation is included in the measurements.

A

A. Global ischemic events are not reflected in the measurements.

ABCP Board Exams (1 decks)

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