BATERIAL DISEASES

Question 1

SYPHILIS CAUSATIVE AGENT

Answer 1

Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum

Question 2

No natural reservoir and must multiply within a living host

Answer 2

Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum

Question 3

agent of nonvenereal endemic syphilis or bejel – in desert regions

Answer 3

T. pallidum subspecies endemicum

Question 4

agent of yaws – in tropics

Answer 4

T. pallidum subspecies pertenue

Question 5

aget of pinta – in Central and South America

Answer 5

T. carateum

Question 6

outer membrane is a phospholipid bilayer

Answer 6

T. pallidum

Question 7

treponemal rare outer membrane proteins (TROMPs)

Answer 7

T. pallidum

Question 8

scarcity of such proteins delays the host immune response

Answer 8

T. pallidum

Question 9

sexual contact through abraded skin or mucous membranes

Answer 9

Treponema pallidum

Question 10

Congenital infections: transmission to the fetus

Answer 10

Treponema pallidum

Question 11

parenteral exposure through contaminated needles or blood (possible but extremely rare)

Answer 11

Treponema pallidum

Question 12

destroyed by heat, cold, and drying out

Answer 12

Pathologic treponemes

Question 13

almost always spread by direct contact

Answer 13

Pathologic treponemes

Question 14

Incubation Phase : 3 weeks; 10-90 days

Answer 14

Syphilis

Question 15

primary stage: painless chancre (28-42 days) - heals without treatment

Answer 15

Syphilis

Question 16

A person is highly contagious during the primary stage and secondary stage

Answer 16

Syphilis

Question 17

Secondary Stage: rash (2-8 weeks) - heals without scarring in 2-12 weeks

Answer 17

Syphilis

Question 18

rash often develops all over the body, including palms of the hands and the soles of the feet

Answer 18

Secondary Stage of Syphilis

Question 19

Open sores may be present on mucous membranes and may contain pus

Answer 19

Secondary Stage of Syphilis

Question 20

Pus in the Secondary Stage of Syphilis

Answer 20

condyloma lata

Question 21

Symptoms can include nervous system abnormalities.

Answer 21

Secondary Stage of Syphilis

Question 22

If untreated, an infected person will progress to the a stage of syphilis with no symptoms

Answer 22

latent period

Question 23

Latent period

Answer 23

1 year; 5-20 years

Question 24

A person is contagious during the [?] and may be contagious during the [?].

Answer 24

early part of the latent stage
latent period

Question 25

About 20-30% of people with syphilis have a relapse of the secondary stage of syphilis during the [?].

Answer 25

latent stage

Question 26

the person had passed through the second stage, was symptom-free, then began to reexperience secondary stage symptoms

Answer 26

Relapses

Question 27

can occur several times

Answer 27

Relapses

Question 28

When these no longer occur, a person is not contagious through contact.

Answer 28

relapses

Question 29

A woman in the latent stage of syphilis may still pass the disease to her unborn baby and may have a miscarriage, a stillbirth, or give birth to a baby infected with

Answer 29

congenital syphilis

Question 30

Most destructive stage of syphilis.

Answer 30

Tertiary (Late) Stage

Question 31

If untreated, the tertiary stage may begin as early as 1 year after infection or at any time during a person’s lifetime. A person may never experience this stage of the illness.

Answer 31

Tertiary (Late) Stage

Question 32

The symptoms of tertiary (late) syphilis depend on the complications that develop – gummata, large sores inside the body or on the skin, cardiovascular syphilis, or neurosyphilis.

Answer 32

Tertiary (Late) Stage

Question 33

• Several varieties of passive hemagglutination tests have been used to detect specific treponemal antibody.

Answer 33

Agglutination Tests

Question 34

• Particle agglutination tests such as the Serodia TP-PA test have largely replaced microhemagglutination tests. Particle agglutination tests use colored gelatin particles coated with treponemal antigens and are more sensitive in detecting primary syphilis.

Answer 34

Agglutination Tests

Question 35

• It involves isolating and amplifying a sequence of DNA that is unique to a particular antigen.

Answer 35

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

Question 36

• Currently still being studied.

Answer 36

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

Question 37

Nichols strain of T. pallidum

Answer 37

FTA-ABS

Question 38

Antitreponemal

Answer 38

FTA-ABS EIA

Question 39

Confirmatory; specific, sensitive; may be negative in primary stage

Answer 39

FTA-ABS

Question 40

Treponemal or recombinant

Answer 40

EIA

Question 41

Antitreponemal

Answer 41

EIA

Question 42

Simple to perform; can be automated; not as sensitive as FTA-ABS.

Answer 42

EIA

Question 43

Enzyme-labeled treponemal antigen

Answer 43

EIA

Question 44

Anti-IgG or antiIgM, antitreponemal antibody from patient

Answer 44

EIA

Question 45

Simple to perform; sensitive in primary syphilis, but sensitivity decreases in later stages.

Answer 45

EIA

Question 46

Sheep RBCs or gel particles sensitized with T. pallidum sonicate

Answer 46

MHA-TP or Serodia TP-PA

Question 47

Antitreponemal

Answer 47

MHA-TP or Serodia TP-PA

Question 48

Not as sensitive as FTA-ABS

Answer 48

MHA-TP or Serodia TP-PA

Question 49

Patient DNA matched to treponemal DNA

Answer 49

DNA probe

Question 50

None

Answer 50

DNA probe

Question 51

Technically demanding; very specific; lacks sensitivity

Answer 51

DNA probe

Question 52

 Salmonella typhi, a gram-positive bacilli from the family Enterobacteriaceae; an intestinal pathogen that causes many infections

Answer 52

TYPHOID FEVER

Question 53

 Paratyphoid fever, a disease similar to typhoid fever that tends to be milder, is caused by Salmonella paratyphi A or Salmonella paratyphi B

Answer 53

TYPHOID FEVER

Question 54

 Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers are usually spread when feces or urine from an infected person contaminates something that is transferred to another person’s mouth. Contaminated water and food are the most common sources of infection.

Answer 54

TYPHOID FEVER

Question 55

 Mary Mallon was the first to be identified as an asymptomatic carrier of Salmonella typhi, who worked as a cook and spread the disease unknowingly, hence receiving her famous nickname “Typhoid Mary.”

Answer 55

TYPHOID FEVER

Question 56

 The symptoms of typhoid fever may be mild or severe and may include prolonged fever, severe headache, malaise, constipation or diarrhea, rose-colored spots on the trunk and an enlarged spleen.

Answer 56

TYPHOID FEVER

Question 57

 The time from contact with the bacteria to the start of symptoms is usually 8-14 days for typhoid fever, and 1-10 days for paratyphoid fever.

Answer 57

TYPHOID FEVER

Question 58

 Patients infected with Salmonella can become chronic carriers of the bacteria.

Answer 58

TYPHOID FEVER

Question 59

There are three antigens that is of importance in serologic testing:

Answer 59

a. O antigen (cell wall) b. H antigen (flagellar) c. K antigen (capsular)/ Vi antigen (virulence)

Question 60

This is the outer polysaccharides of the cell wall. It is used to subdivide the salmonellae into group A to I.

Answer 60

O antigen (cell wall)

Question 61

There are two forms of H antigens, phases 1 and 2. Only one H proteins is synthesized at any one time, depending on which gene sequence is in the correct alignment for transcription into mRNA.

Answer 61

H antigen (flagellar)

Question 62

This is antiphagocytic and is an important virulence factor for S. typhi. This is also used for the serotyping of S. typhi in the laboratory.

Answer 62

K antigen (capsular)/ Vi antigen (virulence)

Question 63

• This is an enzyme immunoassay that detect IgM and IgG antibodies against the outer membrane protein of Salmonella typhi

Answer 63

I. Typhidot

Question 64

• This is a direct agglutination test that is used to detect a rise in the antibody titers against S. typhi antigens in patient’s serum.

Answer 64

II. Widal test

Question 65

• Anti-O and anti-H antibodies rise early at 1-2 weeks after infection, and peak at 3-5 weeks

Answer 65

II. Widal test

Question 66

• Anti-A and anti-B antibodies (against Vi antigens) rise 2-3 weeks after infection and persist for 4-5 weeks

Answer 66

II. Widal test

Question 67

• Significant titers are 80 for unvaccinated patients and 160 for vaccinated patients

Answer 67

II. Widal test

Question 68

play a key role in the immune response.

Answer 68

T cells and macrophages

Question 69

show the presence of both CD4+ and CD8+ T cells, which produce cytokines that activate macrophages, leading to phagocytosis and healing the primary chancre.

Answer 69

Primary lesions

Question 70

is capable of coating itself with host proteins, which delays the immune system’s recognition of the pathogen.

Answer 70

T. pallidum