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Dogs > BB Ch11a > Flashcards

BB Ch11a Flashcards

1
Q

What is the following for the domestic dog?

Order-

Family-

Genus-

Species-

A

Order- Carnivora

Family- Canidae

Genus- Canis

Species- familiaris

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2
Q

What breed of dog exhibits cyclic hematopoiesis?

A

Gray collies

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3
Q

What human disease is the golden retriever a model for?

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

  • caused by absence of dystrophin
  • X-linked
  • Dystrophy in Golden Retrievers is same protein and is also X-linked
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4
Q

Bedlington terriers are used to study what?

A

Copper storage diseases (e.g. Wilson’s disease)

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5
Q

Define the following:

Conditioned dog

Class A

Purpose Bred

Class B

Random Source

A

Conditioned dog- random source dogs that have been treated and vaccinated

Class A- breeders who raise all animals on their premises

Purpose Bred- produced specifically for use in biomedical research

Class B- purchase dogs from other individuals and then resell them to research

Random Source- not bred specifically for use in research

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an option for purchasing a dog for use in biomedical research:

Class A

Class B

Class C

Municipal Pound

A

Class C

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7
Q

Describe the estrous cycle of the bitch:

A

Monoestrous-seasonal

  • predominantly in Jan-Feb and again in July-Aug, although can occur at any time of year
  • proestrus, estrus, diestrus, anestrus (9, 9, 60, 120 days respectively)
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8
Q

A vaginal cytology consists of exclusively noncornified epithelial cells with non degenerative neutrophils. This is most consistent with:

A

Diestrus

  • anestrus: small numbers of parabasal cells and intermediate cells, with or without neutrophils
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9
Q

Which pituitary hormone is responsible for spermatogenesis:

A

FSH (in the presence of testosterone)

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10
Q

Ultrasound and radiography can be used to confirm pregnancy at ____ and ____ days of gestation respectively.

A

Ultrasound at 25-28 days

Radiography at 42 days

  • abdominal palpation at 28 days (embryos ~2 inches) can detect, but by day 35 uterus enlarges diffusely and makes detection by palpation difficult
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11
Q

One of the most sensitive indicators of impending parturition is:

A

A decrease in core body temperature

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12
Q

Name the phenomenon associated with a release in oxytocin as the result of the fetal puppy stimulating the cervix of the bitch.

A

Ferguson reflex

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13
Q
  1. Pseudopregnancy occurs following:
    a. rise in estrogen
    b. rise in progesterone
    c. decline in estrogen
    d. decline in progesterone
A

False pregnancy (pseudocyesis) occurs after the decline in serum progesterone toward the end of diestrus.

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14
Q

T/F- Social maturity and sexual maturity occur contemporaneously in the dog.

A

False

  • sexually mature 6-9 months
  • socially mature 18-36 months
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15
Q

Which of the following is not associated with Kennel Cough Complex:

Canine Parainfluenza virus

Canine Adenovirus

Canine Paramyxovirus

Canine Herpesvirus

A

Canine paramyxovirus

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16
Q

Which type of vaccine for Kennel Cough Complex is the preferred choice:

A

Intranasal CPIV and Bordetella

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17
Q

What is the youngest age a puppy may be vaccinated for Kennel Cough Complex?

A

2 weeks

  • can produce immunity within 4 days
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18
Q

What is the characteristic histologic lesion from CPIV or CAV-2 infection?

A

Necrotizing tracheobronchiolitis

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19
Q

What is the natural reservoir for Bordetella bronchiseptica?

A

Respiratory tract of infected animals

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20
Q

Which pathogen is associated with hemorrhagic pneumonia?

Canine Adenovirus 2

  • Streptococcus zooepidemicus*
  • Staphylcoccus intermedius*

Canine Reovirus 1

A

Streptococcus zooepidemicus

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21
Q
  1. Transmission of leptospirosis occurs directly from animal to animal- T/F
A

False - it is primarily by environmental contact

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22
Q
  1. What is the primary reservoir for leptospirosis?
A

Wildlife, cattle and rodents

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following applies to leptospirosis infections?

Pandemics

Static epidemiology

Zoonotic

Anthroponotic

A

Zoonotic

24
Q
  1. Vaccination against leptospirosis will prevent infection and the carrier state. T/F
A

False

25
Q
  1. Which antibiotic is the treatment of choice for acute Leptospira infection?

For chronic carrier state infection?

A

Acute-penicillins

Chronic carrier state- Dihydrostreptomycin or Doxycycline

26
Q
  1. Which age of dog is most frequently clinically affected by Campylobacter?
A

Puppies up to six months of age

27
Q
  1. Which special stain is the most appropriate for demonstrating Campylobacter organisms?

Gram Stain

Wright Stain

Giemsa

Warthin-Starry

A
  1. Warthin-Starry
28
Q
  1. For each of the following, list the disease, characterize the type of agent, list the known vector, and list the target cell type(s) (if known), including organism location, and list the treatment of choice:

Ehrlichia canis

Anaplasma platys (Ehrlichia platys)

Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Ehrlichia canis, Monocytic erhlichiosis, Gram negative bacteria (Rickettsia), Brown dog tick (Rhipicephalus sanguineus), Monocytes, Doxycycline

Anaplasma platys, Anaplasmosis (Thrombocytic erhlichiosis), Gram negative bacteria (Rickettsia), Brown dog tick (Rhipicephalus sanguineus), Intracellular platelets, Doxycycline

Borrelia burgdorferi, Lyme Disease, Spirochete, Deer tick (Ixodes spp), Extracellular pathogen of joints, Doxycycline

29
Q
  1. What is the most reliable method for diagnosing Ehrlichia canis infections:
A

IFA per BB - PCR now

30
Q
  1. The most common clinical sign associated with Lyme disease is:

Icterus

Epistaxis

Lameness

Seizures

A

Lameness

31
Q
  1. Name the primary reservoir of Lyme disease (genus, species, and common name).
A

White footed deer mouse = Peromyscus leucopus

32
Q
  1. Serology for Anaplasma platys (Ehrlichia platys in BB) will cross react with other Ehrlichia species. T/F
A

False

33
Q
  1. Helicobacter of dogs is not considered zoonotic. T/F
A

False

H. felis & H. bizzozeronii are considered zoonotic

34
Q
  1. What is the most common histologic lesion associated with Helicobacter infection in the dog?
A

Gastritis

35
Q
  1. Antemortem diagnosis of Heliocobacter is most reliably accomplished by?
A
  1. Histopathology on biopsy samples
36
Q
  1. Name the three drugs used in combination therapy for Helicobacteriosis.
A

Amoxicillin, Metronidazole, Sucralfate (plus others…)

37
Q
  1. What is the potentially toxic direct product of Helicobacter colonization of the GI tract?
A

Urease

38
Q
  1. Which is the incubation period for parvovirus infection in dogs?
A

5-7 days

39
Q
  1. Maternal antibodies do not protect against parvovirus infection. T/F
A

False

40
Q
  1. Which cells of the intestinal tract are the primary target of canine parvovirus?
A

Crypt enterocytes

41
Q
  1. What is a characteristic clinical pathology finding in canine parvovirus infection?
A

Lymphopenia

42
Q
  1. Which cells of the intestinal tract are the primary target of canine coronavirus?
A

Villous tip enterocytes - this is generally true for all coronaviruses

43
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a member of the genus Morbillivirus?

Canine distemper virus

Human measles

Caprine encephalitis

Ruminant rinderpest

A
  1. Caprine encephalitis
44
Q
  1. The presence of an abdominal pustular dermatitis during canine distemper infection is a positive prognostic sign. T/F
A

True

45
Q
  1. What is the characteristic histologic finding in nervous tissue in canine distemper?
A

CNS demyelination

46
Q
  1. The most reliable antemortem diagnostic test for canine distemper infection is:
A

Fluorescent antibody testing on epithelial cells from conjunctiva and mucous membranes

47
Q
  1. Inclusion bodies in canine distemper infection are located where?
A

Intracytoplasmic and intranuclear

48
Q
  1. Canine herpesvirus most commonly clinically affects:
A

Puppies less than 2 weeks old

49
Q
  1. The most common clinical sign associated with canine herpesvirus infection in adult dogs is:
A

Infertility

50
Q
  1. The characteristic histologic lesion in canine herpesvirus infection is:
A

Basophilic intranuclear inclusion bodies

51
Q
  1. The vaccine for canine herpesvirus has high efficacy in preventing disease. T/F
A

False - no vaccine

52
Q
  1. Rabies is a member of which viral family and which genus?
A

Rhabdoviridae and Lyssavirus

53
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding Rabies?
  2. After inoculation, the virus first migrates to the salivary glands
  3. After inoculation, the virus migrates directly to the salivary glands via the spinal cord
  4. After inoculation, the virus migrates to the salivary glands through peripheral nerves
  5. After inoculation, the virus migrates to the salivary glands via cranial nerves
A
  1. After innoculation, the virus migrates to the salivary glands via cranial nerves
54
Q
  1. The histologic demonstration of Negri bodies is in which area of the brain?
A

Hippocampus

55
Q
  1. How many days should a dog be quarantined and observed for signs of rabies after biting a human and why?
A

10 days - dogs will show clinical signs of rabies within 10 days of shedding the virus in saliva

56
Q
  1. Name the three stages of rabies infection and give an example of a characteristic clinical sign of each stage.
A

Prodromal: Change in species typical behavior, especially loss of fear in wild animals

Furious: Easily excited or hyperactive

Paralytic: Incoordination and ascending ataxia

57
Q
  1. What type of placentation does the dog have?
A

Endothelial placentation which is zonary and deciduate

Dogs (3 decks)

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