BC questions Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

When should a provider use the BEFAST screening?

A

stroke (Balance, Eyes, Face, Arm/leg weakness, Speech, Terrible headache)

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2
Q

How long should you check for a pulse in a hypothermic patient before determining cardiac arrest?

A

30 to 45 seconds

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3
Q

What is the expansion ratio for water droplets to convert to steam at 212 F?

A

1700:1

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4
Q

Company officers choosing actions based on successful past choices is called?

A

recognition primed decision making

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5
Q

Rollover takes place during this phase, as heated gasses from the fire area push flames within layers of smoke into adjacent compartments.

A

growth

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6
Q

What is the amount of energy that fire releases over time?

A

heat release rate

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7
Q

when is the V split hose line deployment technique optimal?

A

short setbacks or open spaces

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8
Q

What represents a critical aspect of all firefighters safety and should be performed while members donned their PPE prior to entry?

A

door control

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9
Q

What is the human body’s threshold for heat?

A

212

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10
Q

What represents a common psychological response to threatening situations, often leading to inaction?

A

denial

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11
Q

In John Leach’s Survival Psychology, he asserts that in stressful situations individuals default to:

A

learned behaviors

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12
Q

During 56% of maydays, what is not completed?

A

360 degree lap

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13
Q

When completely out of air, a firefighter can use what maneuver by getting low to the ground placing hands over facepiece and gently breaking the seal to take a breath.

A

Hoover

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14
Q

when should a firefighter use R-EBT? (Reilly Emergency Breathing Technique)

A

low-air emergencies

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15
Q

What is the term for personnel removing themselves from the structure in a coordinated manner?

A

withdraw

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16
Q

What is the primary purpose of declaring emergency radio traffic?

A

to allow critical messages to take priority over all other communications

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17
Q

Why are soffit vents a major concern for fire spread?

A

they allow fire to enter the attic space and spread rapidly

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18
Q

Garden apartments built in the 1960s and 70s were predominantly ______ construction with masonry veneer walls with a masonry and concrete stairwell.

A

wood frame
1940s - ordinary

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19
Q

1940s style garden apartments may have a chimney at the roofline that can indicate the location of the ______.

A

boiler room

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20
Q

Due to the reflex time associated with deploying a ground ladder, entering a fire apartment through an upper level balcony is most efficient when the balcony no higher than _____ floor.

A

second

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21
Q

The first arriving officer may be able to observe conditions on the rear of the structure by using the balcony or window of an uninvolved unit or by proceeding to the rear via a _______.

A

walk through stairwell

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22
Q

In the situation where personnel encounter heavy fire volume in the originating townhouse, it may be appropriate for the first arriving officer to address the ________.

A

attached exposures first

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23
Q

What is a two level occupancy over one level occupancy with entrances on opposite sides?

A

over under townhouse

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24
Q

Residential townhouses require how many gpm per 100 sq feet fire load?

A

10 gpm/100 sq ft

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25
The material covering the area where the first floor floor joist meets the exterior wall is known as the ________.
band board
26
The organ that is most often injured in persons with a potentially preventable death is the ____.
lungs
27
A _____ is an assembly area where law enforcement and fire/EMS personnel are formed into Rescue Task Force (RTF) Teams, extraction teams/task forces, or some other integrated team.
joint assembly area
28
A ____ zone is defined as any area with a potential, but not immediate or direct threat to safety or health.
warm
29
This type of warm zone response involves law enforcement to secure a pathway to patients where EMS can move unescorted:
protected corridor
30
______ brings unrequested personnel and apparatus to the scene which creates additional problems for command personnel to identify, track and control.
overconvergence
31
Critically injured/priority for extraction patients will be marked with _____ ribbon.
orange and white black and white - deceased
32
How are rescue task forces identified when communicating via radio?
RTF #
33
A protected _____ is a warm zone modality in which a CCP is established and secured by law enforcement.
island
34
The manufacturer date and each successive hydrostatic test date are stamped to the bottle. To determine the expiration date, add ___ years to the most recent test date stamped on the cylinder.
5
35
After a working fire, and during the overhaul phase of the event, when is it appropriate to remove one’s SCBA?
never!
36
To what pressure should SCBA cylinders be reduced to before sending to air shop?
less than 100 psi
37
When treating a patient with a weapon, and they cannot leave their weapon on scene or secured elsewhere, how should personnel proceed for the weapon?
Request that an EMS Officer keeps the weapon and accompanies unit to hospital
38
When on-scene of an EMS call and an intervening physician with a preexisting patient relationship wishes to assume patient care, the provider should:
Confirm identity, licensure, and relationship with patient
39
Any time personnel lose control of or drop a loaded cot, stair chair, or other patient transfer device, the shall:
Notify DPSC of the incident
40
What is the term that divides an incident into functional areas of operation?
group
41
What is the term that divides an incident geographically?
division
42
Units assigned to staging should be positioned to reach the incident within:
3 minutes
43
In situations where a unit becomes available in the vicinity of a dispatched call, what is the procedure for units adding to calls?
Request intention via radio to the battalion chief, provide location and position in the run order
44
The incident commander is responsible for the command of all incident activities within their span of control. Ideal span of control is:
5
45
______ stairs do not serve all building floors.
isolated stairs
46
High-rise buildings constructed after February of what year require a fire control room in buildings with occupied floors located more than 75 feet above the lowest level of fire department vehicle access?
1976
47
Some high-rises have ______________, which allow personnel to determine the height of the roofline and the start of the façade.
scupper
48
What results from the temperature difference between the air inside and outside the building?
stack effect
49
According to the NOVA Manual, which unit is responsible for ensuring the evacuation stairwell has been identified and is clear of smoke?
2nd due truck
50
Holed hydraulic elevators have a maximum travel distance of:
approx. 60 ft
51
Given the space and weight restrictions, no more than ________ should use an elevator at one time:
two crews
52
What generally is the cause of a stalled elevator?
electrical part failure
53
How can personnel accomplish Lock Out Tag Out (LOTO) without physically applying a lock to the disconnect breaker?
Direct a firefighter with a portable radio to remain at the mainline disconnect breaker
54
During stressful situations, firefighters experience physiological changes as their ________ releases adrenaline and cortisol:
sympathetic nervous system
55
What represents the most reliable indicator of a fire’s location?
smoke velocity
56
How long should the nozzle firefighter open the hose line to prevent the temperature from rebounding?
10 to 15 seconds
57
When does rollover occur during structural firefighting?
growth
58
What color smoke can indicate a fully developed fire feeding off a wood fuel source?
brown
59
On a metro emergency personnel equipped with flashlights and radios should be stationed as flaggers approximately ________ on each side of the incident.
750 ft
60
What is the typical role of the 5th due engine at a Metro incident?
KIOSK Control Group Supervisor
61
What are the two types of sprinkler systems in the metro system?
wet pipe and deluge
62
Why should inbound escalators be left in the stop position if the fire alarm activates?
FRD access the station
63
What is the short section of third rail found just beyond some station platforms to ensure uniform train acceleration?
accelerator rail
64
What is the maximum load that can be placed on the ETEC cart?
250 pounds (on top level)
65
On a metro incident the primary responsibility of the first due engine along with the first due truck is to conduct:
reconnaissance
66
How many passengers can one Metro Train carry?
1600
67
What type of foam is required to effectively suppress polar solvent fires?
alcohol resistant AFFF
68
If the special service officer arrives before the engine, what is their responsibility?
Provide a full situation report to the first due command officer
69
What dictates primary search considerations for special service officers?
occupant report
70
What is a reason why a special service officer might not complete a lap?
The presence of a known rescue and the need to perform VEIS
71
What action is recommended if the first arriving officer cannot complete a full 360-degree lap?
Notify the first due command officer and assign another unit to complete the lap
72
Who has the authority to amend, reduce, or eliminate the initial 330-foot RECON ZONE if inappropriate?
BC
73
What information should be gathered when interviewing an occupant regarding propane gas service?
Tank capacity, delivery amount, fill date, and provider contact info
74
When should ventilation actions be initiated during a gas leak response?
Only with concurrent metering and under direction of Command
75
What should officers do if abnormal meter readings are found during exterior recon?
Slow down, spread out, and attempt to identify the source
76
What is the standard size of the RECON ZONE established around a reported gas leak incident?
330 ft
77
If the reported gas leak is on the 19th floor of a high-rise, what action may be appropriate regarding the RECON ZONE?
Amend, reduce, or eliminate it based on judgment