BCIA Flashcards
1
Q
Which term refers to electrical activity that appears at two respective input terminals of a differential amplifier?
A
Common mode signal EG. 50/60HZ artifact is a common mode signal in EEG
2
Q
Which rhythm ranges from 7-11 HZ and is detected over the central or centro-parietal regions of the scalp when a patient is awake?
A
mu: This rhythm is composted of arch shaped waves that can be blocked or weakened by contralateral movement or the intention to move.
3
Q
Which electrode is typically connected to input terminal 2 of an EEG amplifier and use to measure the potential variations of another electrode?
A
reference:
4
Q
Which term refers to the unequal amplitude and/or form and frequency of EEG activity over corresponding areas on opposites sides of the head?
A
Asymmetry
5
Q
Which of these is the ratio of the amplification of differential and common mode signals?
A
Common mode rejection
6
Q
Which montage consists of referential derivations?
A
referential
7
Q
Which montage permits the best analysis of asymmetry?
A
common reference: A common reference montage achieves good analysis of asymmetry provided that there is symmetrical placement of the reference electrode
8
Q
Which term refers to the abrupt appearance and disappearance of a group of waves that can be discriminated from background activity.
A
Burst
9
Q
A ______ refers to both the process of recording from a pair of electrodes in an EEG channel and the resulting EEG record.
A
derivation
10
Q
Which term refers to the particular arrangement by which a number of pairs of electrodes in EEG channels are simultaneously displayed in an EEG record.
A
montage
11
Q
A _________montage detects voltage differences between single, adjacent electrode.
A
Bipolar:
12
Q
Which term refers to the difference between two unlike signals applied to the respective two input terminals of a differential amplifier?
A
Differential signal
13
Q
Which montage best detects localized neural current sources?
A
Laplacian: A laplacian montage achieves excellent detection of localized neural current sources because it functions as a spatial high pass filter.
14
Q
Which montage detects voltage differences between a single electrode and an average of the remaining electrodes weighted in proportion to their distance from the electrode placed in input 1?
A
Laplacian
15
Q
Which term refers to the non-simultaneous occurrence of EEG activity in regions on the same or opposite side of the head?
A
asynchrony
16
Q
Which electrode is placed over the scalp or brain to detect EEG activity?
A
active
17
Q
A montage in which the reference electrode is common to multiple derivations is termed a _____montage.
A
Common reference
18
Q
An________montage detects the voltage difference between a single electrode placed in input 1 and the average of the remaining 10-20 electrodes placed in input 2.
A
Average reference
19
Q
The _____rhythm consists of burst of alpha or theta waves over the temporal region of the scalp when subjects are mentally active.
A
kappa
20
Q
Which montages provide excellent detection of electrode artifact?
A
bipolar and common reference electrodes
21
Q
Morphology refers to the ______of an EEG wave.
A
form
22
Q
Which of these refers to a period of time in an EEG record?
A
epoch: eg: a 10 second epoch
23
Q
A _______is a limited region of the scalp, cerebral cortex, or depth of the brain that displays specific EEG activity?
A
Focus
24
Q
________is the ratio of the output signal voltage to the input signal voltage of an EEG channel.
A
Gain
25
Which refers to EEG activity that is elicited by and time-locked to a stimulus like a light or tone?
evoked potential
26
Which of these best describes sleep spindles?
synchronous, rhythmic 12-14 Hz waves (sleep spindles usually first appear during stage 2 sleep and reduce our responsiveness to environmental stimuli like noise
27
Which frequency bands contain slow activity?
delta and theta
28
A _____is a sequence of two or more waves with a characteristic form or recurring with a fairly consistent form that can be distinguished from background activity.
complex
29
An EEG _____consists of waves of approximately constant period.
rhythm
30
Which refers to the time interval between single waves and complexes that repeat themselves?
period
31
Fisch and Spehlmann (1999) recommend common mode rejection ratios of at least_____ohms.
10,000
32
Finite impulse response (FIR), infinite impulse response (IIR) and frequency domain filtering using the fast Fourier transform (FFT) are three approaches to
digital filtering
33
Filering adjustments can be performed retrospectively during EEG review when using ____ filtering
digital
34
A ______filter reduces the amplitude of higher frequencies.
low pass
35
A ______filter reduces the amplitude of lower frequencies.
high pass
36
A ______filter reduces the amplitude of a narrow range of frequencies centered around 50 HZ (in Europe) or 60 HZ (North America).
notch
37
EEG rhythmicity appears to depend on interactions between the cortex and the ______.
thalamus
38
EEG desynchronization (interruption of rhythmical activity) is produced by activation of ascending projections by the _____,______,_____.
basal forebrain, locus coeruleus and raphe nuclei
39
Cells within the ______of the thalamus have intrinsic pacemaker properties and stimulate thalamocortical cells that produce rhythmic excitation in the cortex.
nucleus reticularis
40
Ascending projections from the basal forebrain and brainstem to the thalamus that interrupt rhythmical activity release the neurotransmitter______.
acetylcholine
41
_______transforms the EEG signal into numerical values that can help clinicians examine selected EEG features.
Quantitative EEG analysis
42
________constructs a graphical display of the distribution of a particular EEG feature over the scalp and cortical surface.
Topographical mapping (TM)
43
An advanced form of topographical mapping (TM) superimposes a color or gray scale image of an EEG feature onto the cortical surface image created using_____
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
44
In analog-to-digital conversion, the number of digital points per second used to represent an analog signal is referred to as the__________
sampling rate
45
Based on the Nyquist theorem, if you want to perform analog to digital conversion on a 25-Hz signal, the sampling rate should be at least______
50 Hz (The Nyquist rate is twice the fastest frequency in the signal of interest.
46
When a clinician wants to visually inspect a signal that has under gone analog to digital conversion, the sampling rate should be at least________times the highest frequency of interest or else waveform morphology may be distorted.
6
47
When an analog-to-digital converter samples an analog signal at a rate less than twice its frequency, the signal will be misrepresented as slower frequency waveforms. This problem is called________.
aliasing
48
The Fz, Cz, and Pz sites are each_______%of the distance between the nasion and inion starting from Fp.
20
49
The location of Fp is ___%of the nation-inion distance.
10
50
Those sites labeled with a "z" are located _____.
along the midline
51
Cz is located________
at the vertex
52
T4 is closest to the ______
right preauricular point (notch)
53
C location (eg. Cz) are found in ______areas.
central
54
Which site lies in the left parietal lobe?
P3
55
Silberstein (1995) proposed that regional resonances are produced by resonance loops between macro columns that are several centimeters apart and produce EEG activity in the _________range.
alpha-beta range
56
Silberstein (1995) proposed that global resonances are produced by resonance loops between widely separated areas (e.g.. frontal-parietal and frontal-occipital regions) and produce EEG activity in the _______range.
delta- theta
57
The nucleus reticularis of the thalamus allows thalamic pacemakers to adjust their firing frequencies by releasing_____on relay and inhibitory interneurons.
GABA
58
An increase in the neuromodulator ______produces the hypercoupling that generates global resonances.
serotonin
59
An increase in_______,_____,_____produces hypocoupled states which facilitate small regional and local resonance loops.
acetylcholine, dopamine and norepinephrine
60
Postsynaptic potentials are mainly integrated at the_________.
axon hillock
61
Which structure may help activate behavior and focus attention?
cingulate gyrus
62
Which structure is crucial to emotional intelligence because it sensitizes us to the the social consequences of our own actions and helps us understand the feelings of others?
orbitofrontal cortex
63
Increased firing in the _______produces cortical activation.
dorsal lateral tegmental nucleus and nucleus basalis
64
The withdrawal of sensorimotor input to the thalamus increases_______activity.
SMR
65
_______neurons in the brain stem generate thalamic alpha rhythms.
Cholinergic
66
Sterman (1994) proposed that ________systems mainly influence thalamic generation of field potentials recoded from the scalp.
vigilance, sensorimotor integration and cognitive integration
67
Which process best explains the persistence of neurofeedback training effects in ADHD.
long-term potentiation
68
When we are vigilant, input from the ______helps generate the beta rhythm.
reticular activating system
69
Which is the noreadrenergic pathway responsible for vigilance?
locus coeruleus
70
Most sensory input to the cerebral cortex is filtered and distributed by the ________.
thalamus
71
Neurotransmitters are primarily inactivated by ____.
reuptake
72
Which brain structure functions most like a thermostat?
hypothalamus
73
A sodium-potassium transporter______
exchanges 2 potassium ions for 3 sodium ions.
74
An axon hillock must typically become_____more positive than at rest to trigger an action potential.
20mV
75
Which best describes the EEG beta rhythm?
desynchronous
76
The fight or flight response is organized by the _____.
hypothalamus
77
Which triggers the movement of synaptic vesicles to the release zone of an axon terminal button?
Calcium entry into the terminal button
78
According to the "central timing hypothesis" alpha frequency determines______.
information processing speed
79
Which neurons depolarize________. This makes the neurons more _______inside.
sodium ions enter, positive
80
The _______interacts with the cortex to produce cortical EEG rhythms.
thalamus
81
_______ions enter a neuron when it reaches the threshold of excitation.
Sodium
82
Axoaxonic synapses
alter the amount of neurotransmitter released by the postsynaptic neuron.
83
When a neuron is at rest, the inside of an axon
is negatively charged with respect to the outside
84
While neurons cannot fire during ______,intense stimuli can trigger an action potential during _____.
the absolute refractory period; relative refractory period
85
Neuron terminal buttons
release neurotransmitters
86
The part of the neuron that carries information to its owen cell body is called the ______.
dendrite
87
The voltage level that triggers an action potential is called_____.
the threshold of excitation
88
Presynaptic facilitation and presynaptic inhibition both take place at the_________>
terminal button
89
To which of these would a neurotransmitter attach to produce long-lasting changes in neurons like an increase in vigilance?
metabotropic receptor
90
Which would produce an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP).
both potassium ions leaving a neuron and chloride ions entering a neuron
91
Which structure is involved in aggression, defense, fear, and reproduction?
amygdala
92
Which of these detect and generally reduce transmitter synthesis and release?
autoreceptors
93
The process by which ions of a similar charge repel each other and thus evenly distribute themselves is called
electrostatic pressure
94
The specialized proteins located in neuronal membranes that have passages that can open or close are called_______
ion channels
95
The postsynaptic potential produced by an ionotropic receptor is
rapid and short lived
96
The brain and spinal cord comprise the______
central nervous system
97
The difference in electrical potential inside and outside the cell at any point in time is the ______.
membrane potential
98
The mechanism that causes an action potential involves a brief______.
drop in membrane resistance to sodium ions.
99
Axons that arise from cell bodies located in one brain region that synapse on neurons in another region are called_______
projection fibers
100
The telencephalon is the subdivision of the forebrain. Which three components does it contain?
basal ganglia, cerebrum, limbic system
101
Which structure may help activate behavior and focus attention?
cingulate gyrus
102
Which three structures are part of the limbic system?
amygdala, hippocampus and septum
103
The _____consists of clusters of neurons in the diencephalon that filter and relay information between forebrain structures, including cerebral cortex.
thalamus
104
Neurons in the ______synapse with motor neurons that initiate skeletal muscle contraction.
precentral gyrus
105
A_____is a raised portion of the cortical surface.
gyrus
106
Which brain region is crucial to emotional intelligence because it sensitizes us to both the social consequences of our behavior and the feelings of others.
orbitofrontal cortex
107
The primary auditory cortex is located in the ____lobe.
temporal
108
Which EEG changes signal stage 1 sleep?
slowing and fragmentation of alpha, diffuse theta activity, vertex spikes and delta activity in older patients
109
The _____lobe is the first stage for recognizing visual objects and faces.
temporal
110
The_____rouses you when your alarm sounds in the morning.
reticular formation
111
Which cortical lobe is responsible for executive functions like planning
frontal
112
Select the three structures that compromise the basal ganglia
caudate, globus pallidus, putamen
113
The diencephalon consists of ______and ______
hypothalamus and thalamus
114
The ________controls the pituitary gland and motivated behaviors like eating and drinking.
hypothalamus
115
Which is a major groove in the brain's surface?
fissure
116
The _______processes sensory information, like pressure and temperature, that comes from the body.
parietal lobe
117
The lateral fissure separates the temporal lobe from the ________
frontal and parietal lobes
118
Select the functions controlled by the temporal lobes.
hearing, language comprehension, smell and taste
119
Select two structures located below the temporal lobe
amygdala and hippocampus
120
Cook and colleagues (1995) reported that smoking under resting conditions decreased_____and increased______activity.
alpha and theta; beta
121
Houlihan and colleagues (1996) reported that smoking a 1.1 mg cigarette during a reaction time task increased EEG in the _____Hz band.
18-28
122
Murphree (1973) reported the presence of ____Hz activity in the EEG record 1 minute after injection of thiopental (a barbiturate)
21-25
123
Murphree (1973) demonstrated that the short-term effect of a 6-oz dose of 80 proof whiskey for a 150 lb male was to _____in the EEG during a 10 minute period after consuming the drink.
increase alpha and beta amplitude
124
Sainio and colleagues (1976) reported that 14-16 hours following consumption of about 11 oz of 80 proof whiskey for a 150lb the EEG showed decreased and slowed______activity and increased______activity.
alpha; theta
125
Alcohol produces_____in the short term and _____in the long term
EEG activation; EEG slowing
126
Garielli et al. (1982) compared the EEGs of 27 children of alcoholics and 258 children of nonalcoholic parents. Male children at high risk for alcoholism shoed _____compared to make children at low risk for alcoholism.
excess beta and deficient alpha, delta and theta activity
127
Dornbush, Fink and Freedman (1971) reported that a high dose of marijuana (22.5mg) administered to male medical students increased _______activity and decreased______activity.
alpha; beta and theta
128
Rodin and Luby (1966) reported that LSD______activity 1-2 hours following intravenous administration.
increases beta activity
129
Benzodiazepines like Valium
increase beta and sleep spindles and slightly decrease alpha
130
How do narcotics like heroin affect the EEG after the initial slowing of the alpha rhythm?
decrease alpha and increase delta and theta
131
How do barbiturates affect the EEG?
increase beta and sleep spindles and slighly decrease alpha
132
Which drug used to treat ADHD produces fatal liver damage in 1-3% of patients?
pemoline (Cylert)
133
No _______benzodiazepine should be administered to an elderly patient due to the risk of "brain syndrome".
long acting
134
Anxiolytics are rarely prescribed for children and adolescents due to
interference with learning and memory
135
______are generally recommended for treating anxiety in children.
Antidepressants
136
Which are the drugs of choice for treating chronic anxiety in adults
antidepressants
137
Which drug is used to treat seizure disorders in children and must be administered several times a day
valproic acid (depakene)
138
Which drug effectively treats several kinds of epilepsy, is less sedating than other antiepileptic drugs, but may have a serious side effect of reducing white cell counts?
carbamazepine (tegretol)
139
How do CNS stimulants affect the EEG
decrease theta and increase beta
140
The term,_____, refers to all people, animals or objects that share at least one characteristic
population
141
The relationship between ______best illustrates a positive correlation.
wearing seat belts and life expectancy
142
A researcher randomly selects every tenth name from a list of ADHD patients. These adolescents constitute a _________or subset of the population from which they were drawn.
sample
143
What does a sample's representativeness affect?
the ability to generalize experimental findings
144
Which is used to determine the degree to which two or more traits, behaviors or events are related?
correlational study
145
Statisticians prefer probability samples over non probability samples because they
often better represent the population of interest
146
Which of these is the average squared deviation of scores from the mean?
variance
147
We do not know which population our sample represents when we use
convenience sampling or quota sampling
148
Psychologists use the standard deviation to report test scores. What percentage of scores falls within 1 standard deviation of the mean and what percentage falls within 2 standard deviations
68%-95%
149
To measure opinion about lowering the legal blood alcohol level to 0.08 from 0.10 grams percent voters are randomly chosen to receive a questionnaire within selected zip codes. This is an example of ______
cluster sampling
150
Which of these correlations permits the most accurate prediction?
-0.93 because it has the greatest magnitude.
151
The Pearson Product Moment Correlation Coefficient ranges between ____.
-1 and +1
152
The _____of a correlation coefficient indexes its strength
absolute value
153
Which relationship best illustrates a negative correlation?
automobile engine size and fuel economy. A negative correlation is a relationship between two variables such that an increase in one is associated with a decrease in the other also called an inverse relationship
154
Why do researchers randomly assign subjects to experimental conditions?
to control individual differences
155
In order to conduct a psychology experiment, a researcher must create at least ______treatment conditions
2
156
An experimenter manipulates the ______in an experiment to assess its effect on behavior.
independent variable
157
"levels of the independent variable" refers to
the number of treatment conditions for an independent variable
158
The _______is the specific behavior we expect to change due to our experimental intervention
dependent variable
159
In a "true" experiment an experimenter______the independent variable and _____the dependent variable
manipulates, measures
160
The ______is the average deviation of scores about the mean
standard deviation
161
Psychologists can evaluate ______when they administer the MMPI-2 twice to the same subjects two weeks apart
test-retest reliability
162
When an extraneous variable changes value across conditions along with the independent variable, the experiment_________.
is confounded. Confounding refers to an error that occurs when the value of an extraneous variable changes systematically along with the independent variable in a n experiment; an alternative explanation for the finding that threatens internal validity
163
When a researcher constructs a multiple item questionnaire to measure a single construct like anxiety, she can measure_____to evaluate the scales internal consistency
interitem reliability
164
An operational definition is _____when it measures what we intent it to measure
valid
165
Which kind of reliability can be measured when several psychologists score all subjects'essays for aggressiveness
interrater reliability: it refers to the degree of agreement among different observers or raters
166
If a team of observers gradually changes the criteria for judging the aggressiveness of children's play as they became more familiar with the procedure, the study's internal validity could be jeopardized by an _______threat
instrumentation: an instrumentation threat is a threat to internal validity produced by changes in the measuring instrument itself
167
Heath participated in a study of the effect of meditation on blood pressure. Since he had never used a self-inflating cuff, he was afraid that the cuff would keep inflating and cut off blood to his arm. This fear caused his BP to rise when he was measured during the pretest phase of the experiment. The experimenter also measured Heath's BP after meditation training during the postteset phase. Since he was now used to the self inflating cure, his BP was lower due to lack of panic. Based on Heath's experience, a_______threat may have confounded this experiment.
testing
168
When a researcher develops an assessment device to help parole boards decide which prisoners would be safest to parole, she should be most concerned with the measure's________.
predictive validity
169
_______are physical aspects of the testing situation that the experimenter directly controls
environmental variables
170
Mack claims to have a revolutionary way to measure intelligence. He places a cloth tape around a subject's forehead and calculates the circumference. This procedure is a_________operational definition of intelligence .
reliable
171
_______assesses whether we have succeeded in creating a measuring device that assesses only the hypothetical entity we want to test.
construct validity
172
An experimenter provided two groups of rats different quantities of food for successfully completing the same maze. She controlled the kid of food and the amount of time the rats had access to the food. She reported that both groups of rats committed the same number of error in learning the maze. The number of errors was _________.
the dependent variable
173
Sam is studying the effectiveness of a new method of strength training. If he measures the experimental group before "happy hour" and the control group after "happy hour", his results could be confounded by a ______threat.
history
174
An experimenter_______values of the independent variable in an experiment
manipulates
175
Shawn observes that web pages use a range of font sizes and he questions ho this affects readability. He reproduces an actual 250 word news report in 10, 11 and 12 point fonts. Then he randomly assigns subjects to read the report in one of the font sizes and measures their reading comprehension. Font size is the ______in Shawn's experiment.
independent variable
176
Professor Smith's class was stunned. She mistakenly included questions from chapter 5 on an exam that was supposed to cover chapters 1-2. In appealing their low grades, the students should diplomatically question the _______of this exam.
content validity
177
When we are certain that the changes in behavior that we observe across the different treatment conditions of our experiment were actually caused by our independent variable, our experiment___________.
is internally valid
178
Psychologists evaluate ______by comparing scores on a measuring instrument with another known standard for the variable being studied.
concurrent validity
179
If a researcher presents three levels of an independent variable (e.g.. problem difficulty) there must be ______different treatment conditions.
3
180
In _______an experimenter controls physical variables by keeping all aspects of treatment conditions as nearly similar as possible.
constancy of conditions
181
Kenny ran all treatment conditions during the evening to control for the effect of time of day. Which control technique did he use?
constancy of conditions
182
Experimenters sometimes make errors in recording data that tend to favor there experimental hypothesis. This is an example of______
experimenter bias
183
When an experimenter fails to randomly assign subjects to different experimental conditions, a _______threat is present since treatment groups may differ on subject variables.
selection
184
A swimming instructor, who was told his athletes had outstanding motor coordination and the potential to become excellent swimmers, coached them so well that they became excellent swimmers even though their motor skills were really about average. These result illustrate_____
the Rosenthal effect
185
In single blind experiments
subjects do not know which treatments they are receiving
186
Researchers should anticipate the possibility of a ______threat when they assign subjects to conditions using extreme test scores and retest these subjects after administering a treatment.
statistical regression
187
Based on positive correlations between the length of women's skirts and the Gross National Product, several economists have claimed that skirt length can be used to measure the health of the economy. This measure would seem to lack
face validity
188
The demand characteristics of an experiment may result in a subject
all of these
189
Experimenters generally want subjects to be as naive as possible concerning the experimental hypothesis to reduce confounding by.
demand characteristics
190
In a double blind experiment
neither the subjects or the experimenter know which treatment the subjects are receiving
191
Single blind experiments only control for
demand characteristics
192
Researchers implanted electrical devise into patients diagnosed with congestive heart failure. They randomly assigned patients to either an experimental condition (device turned on) or control condition (device turned off) for six months. Neither the subjects nor the supervising physicians knew their treatment condition until the study ended. Which design did these researchers use?
double blind experiment
193
Which of these could be a physical variable in an experiment?
all of these
194
Placebo effects in drug trials are due to
demand characteristics
195
Although James wanted to run all the subjects in his experiment by himself, he realized that he couldn't complete the experiment in time without a second experimenter. To control for experimenter personality he ran half the subjects in each condition and his roommate ran the other half. This strategy is called
balancing
196
Experimenters remove potentially confounding extraneous variables when they employ
elimination
197
Daira videotaped instruction s fro subjects to ensure that all subjects in each condition receive the same information. This illustrates the control procedure of
constancy of conditions
198
Tim prevented noise from distracting his subjects by testing them in a soundproof room. This illustrates the control technique called
elimination
199
______is a form of confounding due to an experimenter providing implicit or explicit cues to subjects to respond in a particular way.
experimenter bias
200
Experimental designs that study two or more independent variables at the same time are called
factorial designs
201
Which of these are social variables?
demand characteristics and experimenter bias
202
What does between subjects mean in a between subjects experiment?
experimenters compare the performance of different groups on the dependent variable
203
Which of these techniques to control demand characteristic involves deception
cover story
204
When the independent variable creates larger group differences on the dependent variable than we would see if we randomly assigned subjects to groups and only measured them, this demonstrates
statistical significance
205
_________are aspects of the testing conditions that need to be controlled
physical variables
206
When you are the only experimenter, the best way to control the effect of your personality on subject performance is to_________
minimize face to face contact
207
Experimenters generally want subjects to be as naive as possible concerning the experimental hypothesis to reduce confounding by ________
demand characteristics
208
Renee studied the effect of praise on her dog Snoopy's obedience. During the first baseline phase, she measured how long it took for Snoopy to arrive after she called his name. During the treatment phase, she praised him when he arrived within 30 seconds. Finally, during the second baseline phase, she returned to only measuring his arrival time. Which approach did Renee use?
small N. In a small N design, one or a very few subjects are used. Typically, the experimenter collects baseline data during an initial control condition, applies the experimental treatment and then reinstates the original control condition to verify that changes observed in behavior were caused by the experimental intervention.
209
We use a control group in an experiment to
measure the dependent variable without the experimental manipulation. A control group receives a zero value of the independent variable.
210
Tammy's experiment compared the effectiveness of videotape and textbook presentation of a history lesson. Unexpectedly, her demeanor changed with each treatment condition. She appeared worried during the videotape condition because the audiovisual equipment periodically broke down. In contrast, she seemed relaxed in the textbook condition during which subjects read from a book. Which problem does this illustrate?
experimenter bias. Which involved any behavior of the experimenter that can create confounding in an experiment.
211
In clinical psychopathology research, small N designs help solve the ethical dilemma of ____.
untreated control groups
212
Anna participates in a social psychological experiment in which she observes paris of lights that are briefly turned on and off in a completely darkened room. Although the distance between each pari of lights in the Hex paradigm is always identical, the experimenter asks, " Is the first pair of lights farther apart or closer together than the second pair?" This question, which implies that Anna should perceive different spacing, illustrates the concept of a ________
demand characteristic: which are the aspects of the experimental situation itself that demand or elicit particular behaviors' can lead to distorted data by compelling subjects to produce responses that conform to what subjects believe is expected of them in the experiment.
213
If we do not randomly assign subjects to treatment conditions________
confounding may occur: which is when the value of an extraneous variable changes systematically along with the independent variable in an experiment; an alternative explanation for the finding that threatens internal validity
214
Russ suffers from social anxiety and participated in a 6 month study of a drug believed to threat the disorder. While the physician who provided his medication knew that Russ was in the experimental group and not the control group, he did not disclose this information to Russ until the study was completed. In which of these did Russ participate?
single blind experiment: which is when subjects are not told which of the treatment conditions they are in. This procedure used to control demand characteristics.
215
The principal difference between a factorial experiment and a two group experiment is that a factorial design
has more than one independent variable
216
By randomly assigning subjects to treatment conditions, many extraneous variables are automatically__________across conditions
balanced
217
Nate studies the effects of wearing single strap and double strap backpacks on shoulder muscle contraction. He tests the same subjects in both single strap and double strap conditions to control individual differences in trapezius muscle activity. Nate is using a ______design.
within subjects: which is hen the same subjects take part in each condition of the experiment
218
A sample's representativeness affects
external validity (which is the degree to which research observations are generalizable or applicable to other setting and other people.
219
Increasing the sample size
increases statistical power (which is the chance of detecting a genuine effect of the independent variable
220
A small N design is
a type of within subjects design (each subject takes part in more than one condition of the experiment)
221
The ______in a small N design measures behavior as it normally occurs without manipulation of the independent variable.
baseline (in a small N design measures behavior as it normally occurs without manipulation of the independent variable.
222
A crucial step to rule out possible confounding when using a small N design is:
removal of the independent variable and return of behavior to baseline
223
The results of an experiment are statistically significant when
the difference between group scores exceeds normal variable
224
Another name foe an ABA design is a
reversal design
225
Researchers may use the ABA format only if
there treatment conditions are reversible
226
The B in an ABA design refers to
the experimental condition
227
In an ABA design the second A refers to
a return to the baseline condition
228
Researches use the ABA design to
demonstrate that a behavior returns to its baseline level when the experimental intervention is removed
229
When you select an alpha level of p <.05 this means that if you calculated 100 correlations, fewer than _____would be significant due to chance
5
230
Many researchers prefer small N designs because they
obtain a continuous record of a a subject's behavior over time
231
Matt is impressed by the precision of the small N approach and declares, " The small N design is so powerful I'll use it for all my experiments!: Some researchers might disagree with him because small N designs
may achieve lower external validity that well designed large N designs
232
An experimenter has the greatest confidence when using a _____to represent the larger population
random sample (is an an unbiased method for selecting subjects in such a way that each member of the population has an equal opportunity to be selected and the outcome cannot be predicted ahead of time by any know n law.
233
The altitude of Mt Whitney is 4418 meters while altitude of Death valley is 86 meters below sea level. The difference in their altitudes is illustrates the concept of
variability (means that there is a fluctuation in data and can be defined numerically as the range, variance or standard deviation. There is no variability when sample scores are identical. Variability increases as scores differ from each other.
234
The ______hypothesis states that the performance of the treatment groups is so similar that the scores must have been sampled from the same population
null hypothesis
235
When we set up statistical tests , we assume that
the independent variable had no effect
236
A clinician compared the effectiveness of neurofeedback and stimulant medication in treating ADHD. He assessed 40 teenage subjects using DSM-IV criteria and then randomly assigned them to either EEG biofeedback or stimulant medication. The subjects ere treated for one months and then reassessed. Since the neurofeedback group shoed greater symptom reduction than the stimulant medication group he
rejected the null hypothesis: Since neurofeedback group shoed greater symptom reduction than the stimulant medication group he rejected the null hypotheses.
237
Statistical significane means that
normal variability in the dependent variable cannot account for our results. The experimental results have met the set criterion for significance; the data do not support the null hypothesis, confirming a difference between the groups that occurred as a result of the experiment.
238
Many statistical tests assume that the population you have sampled is normally distributed. This means that if you could measure everyone in the population on the dependent variable.
the distribution of scores would be symmetrical and bell shaped
239
Which criterion does an experimenter use to decide whether to accept or reject the null hypothesis?
significance level
240
Ayers treated 32 level 2 coma patients, who were comatose for more than 2 months, non invasively with neurofeedback. How many of these patients emerged from their comas after 1-6 treatments?
25 out of 32 emerged from their comas.
241
Lubar cautions families considering ADD/ADHD protocol for their children that
all of the above: Lubar cautions families considering ADD/ADHD protocol for their children that continued use of medication may be required, learning exercises will be incorporated into neurofeedback training and there will be a several year follow up.
242
Lubar's ADD/ADHD protocol for children requires an average of _____sessions
35
243
Ayers and colleagues' neurofeedback protocol for open head trauma trains patients to
decrease 4-7 Hz activity and increase 15-18 Hz activity
244
Ayers and colleagues start neurofeedback for open head trauma at the ________________
somatosensory cortex
245
The rationale for alpha asymmetry neurofeedback for mood disorders is that
the left frontal area mediates approach behavior
246
Clinical depression is associated with
left frontal hypoactivity
247
The goal of alpha asymmetry neurofeedback for depression reported by Baehr and colleagues is to_____the difference between _______frontal alpha amplitude with respect to total left and right frontal amplitude.
increase, right-left
248
Experimental patients who received Peniston and Kulosky's alpha-theta protocol for alcoholism and control patients were assessed over a 24 month follow up period. Across this period________of the 10 experimental and _____of the 10 controls maintained abstinence.
8 and 0
249
The Peniston and Kulkosky protocol for treating addiction incorporates____alpha theta neurofeedback sessions across 28 days
30
250
When training patients with ADD/ADHD over the age of 14 who show high alpha power and deficient alpha blocking, Lubar attempts to decrease_____activity and increase ______activity.
6-10 Hz, 16-22 Hz
251
Ayer's protocol for treating coma with neurofeedback involves______
inhibiting 4-7 Hz activity and then reinforcing the replacement of 4-7 Hz activity with 15-18 Hz
252
Case studies published in refereed journals have supported the efficacy of alpha-theta neurotherapy in treating_____
bulimia nervosa
253
Lubar's placement of electrodes for treating ADD/ADHD is based on where the ________
theta beta ratio is the highest
254
When training children with ADD/ADHD Lubar attempts to decrease______activity and increase_____activity.
4-8 Hz, 16-20 Hz
255
Where does Lubar usually place electrodes when treating children diagnosed with ADD/ADHD
CPz or FCz
256
Which is NOT a component of the Peniston and Kulkosky addictive disorder protocol?
Progressive Relaxation exercises
257
What is the first training component in the Peniston and Kulkosky protocol for treating addiction?
Visualization training
258
Which of these is the most severe seizure disorder?
status epilepticus (it can result in death)
259
Patients in a twilight learning procedure are exposed to an instructional program when a criterion level of _____activity is reached
theta
260
The Peniston and Kulkosky protocol for treating addiction incorporates _____alpha-theta neurofeedback sessions of ______minutes duration across 28 days.
30, 30
261
Which conclusion best summarizes clinical outcome studies concerning treatment of generalized seizures?
SMR neurofeedback is the treatment of choice
262
Alcoholics show low levels of frontal _______before consuming alcohol. These levels _______after a challenge dose of alcohol.
alpha, increase
263
Neurofeedback would be inappropriate for treating
Tourette's syndrome
264
Sterman's SMR training protocol for treating grand mal epilepsy involves placing two active electrodes over the ________cortex.
left, sensorimotor cortex
265
Sterman's protocol for treating grand mal epilepsy trains patients to suppress EEG activity in the _____band.
4-7 Hz. Patients are taught to suppress EEG in the 4-7 Hz and also over 20 Hz and epileptiform spikes
266
A 4 year old child suddenly freezes and stares blankly for 15 seconds. Which type of seizure does this best describe?
absence
267
The Menninger protocol for reducing intractable pain teaches patients to increase EEG activity in the _______band
theta
268
The Menninger alpha-theta protocol incorporates an____training paradigm where ON means increasing and OFF means suppressing a frequency band
ON-OFF-ON
269
Training sessions using Menninger alpha-theta protocol typically last ______minutes
30
270
Which describes the training sequence in the Menninger alpha-theta protocol?
temperature, SEMG, alpha, theta
271
Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) reported successful treatment of patients who suffer from chronic anxiety using a _______protocol.
theta-inhibit / beta enhancement
272
Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) reported that the predominance of _______activity in the _______might impair flexible response to new stimuli.
slow wave; frontal and prefrontal cortex
273
Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) suggested that patients diagnosed with chronic anxiety and exhibit high amplitude slow wave activity should be trained to ________amplitude.
decrease alpha and theta
274
Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) argued that patients diagnosed with chronic anxiety and exhibit low amplitude alpha activity should be trained to ____amplitude.
increase alpha
275
Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) select candidates for treatment of anxiety with slow wave suppression EEG biofeedback based on whether
the target slow wave is the dominant wave band in the frontal and prefrontal region and the theta/beta ratio in the frontal and prefrontal region is above 3.0
276
Brownback (2001) proposes that for high performance functioning
slow wave bands should have higher amplitudes than fast wave bands
277
Brownback (2001) recommends reducing activity in the 2.5-6.5 Hz band to _______
increase alertness
278
Brownback (2001) recommends increasing activity in the 11.5-13 Hz band to ___________
increase mild focused awareness
279
All of Brownback's (2001) peak performance protocols incorporate_____
training with eyes open (to utilize visual feedback)
280
Passive volition is illustrated by
allowing (in contrast to forcing) e.g. patient may visualize a hand immersed in warm water
281
A stimulus hierarchy is an important component of
systemic desensitization (patients treated for phobia with systemic desensitization build stimulus hierarchies that allow gradual exposure to more intense fear eliciting stimuli.)
282
From research by Edinger and Jacobsen, which is the most common difficulty in relaxation training?
intrusive training (the low arousal component of relaxation training makes focusing attention more difficult. Intrusive thought have less competition for attention and new relaxation skills are easily disrupted
283
A group of law enforcement officers discuss conflict situations and then visualize successfully defusing an argument with an angry civilian in
stress inoculaiton. (Meichenbaum's stress inoculation procedure has been used defuse predictable stressors)
284
The main goal of Progressive Relaxation is to ____
reduce residual muscle tension
285
Several studies have shown that biofeedback training results in no deeper relaxation than procedures like progressive relaxation. What best accounts for these findings?
physiological feedback is not inherently relaxing (Biofeedback is information. Just as information from a stopwatch does not automatically increase a runner's speed, biofeedback does not automatically relax a patient. The effect of physiological feedback depends on how it is used to train the patient.)
286
Which best describes the state of relaxation that we should train patients to experience?
alert (Clinicians should train patients to achieve an alert state of cultivated low arousal. This allows them to remain relaxed while performing daily tasks like driving.)
287
Active volition is illustrated by_______
trying (active volition involves effortful control;trying instead of allowing)
288
Which is the first step in most stress management programs?
identifying acute and chronic stressors
289
According to Wolpe, which procedure depends on the process of reciprocal inhibition?
systemic desensitization
290
The process underlying challenging irrational beliefs in Rational Emotive Therapy is_____
cognitive restructuring: Successful Rational Emotive Therapy produces cognitive restructuring. The therapist helps the patient identify and modify dysfunctional beliefs.
291
Luthe found the most common autogenic discharge was
tingling sensations
292
Luthe believed that self regulation is accomplished in Autogenic Training through________
visualization
293
A physician asks you to provide EEG biofeedback to reduce the frequency of a patient's generalized seizures. If you have no experience in this area, you should ________
refer the case to an experienced certified provider who has the required expertise
294
According to the Biofeedback Certification Institute of America, who should supervise the biofeedback practice of an uncertified biofeedback provider?
licensed professional certified in biofeedback
295
A short deep breath followed by imagining waves of relaxation moving down your body are part of which procedure?
quieting response
296
A patient you are treating for ADHD enters a neurofeedback training session with acute depression. How should you respond?
immediately assess the risk of suicide
297
Who legally regulates clinical neurofeedback practice?
state legislatures
298
Your patient accuses one of your peers of misconduct during a neurofeedback session. If the complaint appears credible, you should first contact the ______.
accused colleague
299
Which of these changes during relaxation training would place your patient at greatest risk?
decreased insulin requirement
300
Which is a brief relaxation exercise?
quieting response
301
In Systemic desensitization a patient is first trained to
deeply relax skeletal muscles
302
Which psychological problem is most likely to worsen during biofeedback training because of reduced environmental stimulation
depersonalization
303
What label is given to unpleasant relaxation experiences like hand tremors or anxiety?
autogenic discharge
304
The subjective state involved in passive volition is best described as
allowing. (you visualize a goal, but do not force your body to achieve it.)
305
When experimental procedures lead to undesirable consequences for subjects, the experimenter has the responsibility to
correct these consequences
306
Which of the following refers to obtaining permission from human subjects prior to their participation in psychological research?
informed consent
307
Final responsibility for conducting a research study in an ethical manner rest with
the principal researcher
308
Since researchers are often in a position of authority or influence over research participants, they must be careful to
respect an individual's freedom to refuse to participate or withdraw from the study at any time.
309
Deliberate deception may be acceptable in a psychology experiment if
an appropriate test of an experiment hypothesis requires it be used
310
The term,______, refers to the researcher's responsibility to explain the nature and purpose of a study to subjects at the end of an experiment.
debriefing
311
Whenever information is collected about subject in a study, that information should be
collected anonymously and kept confidential
312
Which of these must be established by institution engaging in research with human subjects?
institutional review board
313
The primary concern of an institutional review board is to
ensure the safety of research participants is adequately protected
314
Under federal law, "subject at risk" means that an individual may be exposed to the possibility of _____,_______,________injury
physical, psychological or social
315
When a panel determines whether the potential benefits of a study outweigh risks to subjects they are performing a
risk / benefit analysis
316
Informed consent must be obtained
in all psychological studies using human subjects
317
When researchers have questions about research ethics, they should
seek advice from an IRB or colleagues and employ all possible safeguards to protect research subjects
318
In some studies, subjects may be considered to be at "minimal risk". This means that
participation does not alter the participants odds of being harmed
319
Full disclosure, by completely debriefing subjects at the end of an experiment, is required whenever psychology experiments
employ deception
320
Licensed psychologists may violate state practice acts if they diagnose and treat
epilepsy
321
The professional standards and ethical principals and ethical principles applies to BCIA certificants'
all of these are correct; administrative activities, educational activities, professional service and research activities
322
BCIA certificantss' are subject to eht ethical principles of
all of these are correct; their professional membership organizations and their state healing arts boards
323
Who handles ethics complaints concerning BCIA certificants
BCIA's executive director
324
BCIA certificants are obligated to report alleged ethical violations concerning biofeedback and its application to the
BCIA executive director and or the ethics committee of the alleged violator's professional discipline
325
Certificants should console_____to decide if and when sexual intimacy with a past client is acceptable
state statutes and their professional membership organization ethical code
326
Dr. Smith is a CBIA certificant who refused to respond to respond to a letter from BCIA's executive director. His refusal to cooperate may result in _____by BCIA
reprimand or decertification
327
When should a clinician seek consultation or referral
all of these choices are correct if they fail to improve, or treatment protocol has not been validated or there is no established protocol for the clients symptoms
328
What ethical responsibilities do BCIA certificants have with respect to employer who are not BCIA certified?
BCIA certificants should inform their employer sof BCIA's professional standards and ethical principles and urge them to cooperate with them in adhering to these principles.
329
A biofeedback professional should not provide clinical services to
all of these are correct; not provide clinical services to family members, clinic employees, or her students because this would create a dual relationship
330
When recruiting subjects for research full disclosure requires that a certificant disclose
potential benefits and risks of participation
331
Certification
recognizes that an applicant has tat least achieved entry level competence
332
CXIA accepts ethics complaints against
BCIA certicants
333
A violation of the Professionals standards and ethical principles by a BCIA certificants can result in
all of these choices are correct; can result in disciplinary action, decertification, and or letter to the appropriate state licensing certifying agent
334
Which resources should a clinician consult to determine the efficacy of clinical interventions?
all of these are correct; Clinical applications of biofeedback and applied psychophysiology, evidence base practice in biofeedback and neurofeedback and refereed journals to determine the efficacy of biofeedback applications
335
When a client does not improve and requites a different intervention which the clinician is not qualified to provide, the clinician should
refer the client to a competent service provider or seek consultation or supervision a competent service provider
336
The professional standards and ethical principles encompasses
biofeedback and biofeedback related activities
337
Certificants may refuse to provide biofeedback training to prospective clients because of their
none of these; may not refuse biofeedback training to prospective clients because of their disability, religion or sexual orientation
338
BCIA's professional standards and ethical principles prohibits sexual intimacy with
all of these; prohibits sexual intimacy with current clients, research subjects and supervisees
339
What best describes BCIA's role with respect to its certificants' professional conduct and ethics
education
340
Casey reduced his frequency of daily exercise after it resulted in painful leg cramps. This decline in exercise illustrates the operant concept of
aversive punishment (positive punishment)
341
From cybernetic theory, which of these is a value your body strives to maintain
set point
342
Which best describes biological feedback
information
343
The strongest evidence of self regulation would be
increased hand temperature during a single session when instructed without feedback
344
Carrie spends more time riding her horse on days that are more stressful. Her awareness of when she requires more riding time illustrates the concept of
discrimination
345
A coping skill like the quieting response is best learned through
spaced practice (spaced practice spreads skill practice over a longer period of time than massed practice. This is important because relaxation skills have learning curves that depend on practice time. Spaced practice provide patients with more time to consolidate new skills and integrate these skills into daily life.
346
Which operant concept is illustrated when desired co worker attention to Lisa's migraine complaints is followed by more frequent headaches?
positive reinforcement
347
Both erection and urination share the process of
passive volition (Peper reminds us that we cannot force the body to have an erection or urinate. Instead, these changes occur more readily when we allow them to happen)
348
Which theoretical model proposes that biofeedback produces nonspecific effects
placebo model
349
Sally stopped daily meditation after her physician stopped praising her blood pressure reductions. This best illustrates the operant principle of
extinction (In this example, non-reinforcement of an operant behavior (meditation) produced extinction of this behavior.
350
Conditioned emotional responses (CER's) are learned through
classical conditioning (like anxiety when you see a cop)
351
Who first proposed the concept of homeostasis
Bernard (homeostasis which is a steady state environment
352
Which kind of reinforcement does a biofeedback training system provide
secondary
353
Which learning model best explains how an inert pill resembling a previously used antibiotic gains the ability to boost your body's immune response
classical conditioning EG: pairing the placebo (neutral stimulus) with an effective antibiotic (unconditioned stimulus) improves immunity (conditioned response) Ader has demonstrated that classical conditioning can be uses to reduce the frequency of medication use.
354
Biofeedback training is most like
learning to play the piano
355
Instructions to change the color of a plastic dot used as a relaxation reminder are designed to reduce the problem of
habituation
356
Active volition is illustrated by
trying (involves effortful control, trying versus allowing
357
A clinician provides fewer feedback trials as biofeedback training progresses. Which operant procedure does this strategy reflect?
fading. It reduced the patient's reliance on external feedback. This aids the transfer of self regulation skills to the environment outside the clinical setting
358
The concept of biofeedback developed from _____ theory
cybernetic
359
Based on the _____model of biofeedback therapists might administer biofeedback without relaxation instructions and researchers might compare biofeedback to relaxation procedures like progressive relaxation
relaxation
360
In both avoidance learning and escape learning coping behaviors are___.
negatively reinforced (these behaviors become more likely because they allow an individual to either avoid or escape an aversive event
361
Seligman's concept of learned helplessness where patients stop trying to cope due to lack of success can be best explained by the operant conditioning principle of
extinction
362
A therapist reinforces a child's reduction of theta amplitude by playing music whenever a training goal is met. How does the music aid EEG biofeedback training
increasing motivation to perform
363
When we reduce the frequency of feedback a biofeedback patient receiver this is analogous to the operant conditioning procedure of
fading
364
Which reinforcement schedule is most vulnerable to extinction
1-10
365
A dyslexic child increasingly reports stomach pain since this previously permitted escape from frustrating reading assignments. Which process is involved here?
negative reinforcement
366
When Michael increases frontal alpha to reduce anxiety this illustrates
escape learning
367
Catherine's muscle relaxation practice has progressed so that she can reduce muscle bracing at both the computer keyboard and when she driving in rush hour traffic. This illustrate the operant principle of
generalization
368
A computer based EEG biofeedback training system reveals increasing segment of a scenic picture as a patient increases beta amplitude. The visual display probed____reinforcement
secondary
369
A skill increasing beta amplitude is considered "voluntary" when it can be elicited by
instructions
370
When Susan increases SMR activity and decreases theta activity following a prodrome to prevent a generalized seizure this illustrates
avoidance learning
371
If a patients reports of anxiety result in desired attention from family members this could _____this symptom
positively reinforce
372
What is a learning process underlying the placebo response
classical conditioning
373
You have not complied with your patients attempts to schedule sessions in the evening when your office is closed. After two months of no rescheduling requests your patient repeatedly raises the issue. This pattern illustrates the phenomenon of
spontaneous recovery
374
Stephen reduced the number of cigarettes he smokes a day after developing a painful cough he attributed to smoking. This illustrates the operant principle of
punishment
375
A patient stops practicing visualization at home because her chronic anxiety has not improved. This best illustrates the concept of
extinction (the concept of extinction since her operant behavior (visualization practice) has not been reinforced by its consequences
376
New patients in alcohol treatment unit are introduced to a program graduate who is praised by the staff for his sobriety and success in increase alpha/theta amplitude. If this increases the new patients efforts to to modify their own EEG activity this illustrates the principle of
vicarious reinforcement (from a social learning perspective when the patients observed the model receiving praise they received vicarious reinforcement. This should increase their motivation to practice the self regulation skills learned in the program
377
An active placebo is an
inert drug with an ingredient to produce side effects (an active placebo is a placebo coupled with an ingredient that produces benign side effect. This increase the placebo's credibility and result in a higher success rate than observed with a standard placebo
378
You gradually increase your patients EEF training goal until she produced theta 50% of the time during a30 second epoch. The process of reinforcing successive approximation for desired behavior is termed
shaping
379
Dawn practices health computing exercises 15 minutes a day 5 times a week this pattern represents______practice
spaced (which is recommended for skill acquisition
380
After a subject has developed a classically conditioned response an investigator begins presenting the conditioned stimulus by itself. Which of the following is likely to occur
extinction
381
You were once stung by a bee and now you are somewhat frightened by all insects. YOu are displaying
stimulus generalization (in this example a conditioned fear response has generalized from the initial stimulus the bee to a new stimuli other insects. This process is called stimulus generalization and it allows us to expand our repertoire to deal with situations we have onto previously encountered. After receiving a bee sting we don't have to receive a wasp sting to learn to avoid them
382
In one experiment, the conditioned stimulus was always followed immediately by the unconditioned stimulus. However the unconditioned stimulus was frequently presented at other times as well. The fact that animals displays little or no response to the conditioned stimulus indicates that classical conditioning depends on
the degree to which the CS predicts the US (classical conditioning depends on the ability of the conditioned stimulus to predict the occurrence of the unconditioned stimulus. When the conditioned stimulus is not followed by the unconditioned stimulus this weakens the predictive relationship and undermines classical conditioning
383
In operant conditioning UNLIKE classical conditioning
the individual s response controls the outcome (reinforcement or punishment) In operant conditioning unlike classical conditioning the individuals response controls the outcome (reinforcement or punishment) In contest in classical conditioning the individual reflexively responds to a stimulus.
384
Classical conditioning applies primarily to ____responses operant conditioning applies primarily to ______responses
visceral.......skeletal
385
A dog drools saliva whenever he hears the "doggy snacks" cupboard open. Which of the following is true
The sound of the cupboard is the CS and the doggy snacks are the UCS
386
A secondary reinforcer
gains its value from association with a primary reinforcer, A secondary reinforces is reinforcing because of its association with the primary reinforcer. For example a grandmothers smile may be a secondary reinforcer because it is associated with freshly baked cookies (primary reinforcer)
387
As a rule, behaviorists assume that
every behavior is caused or determined through processes that can scientifically studied
388
If you give a dog some food every time you sound one tone but fail to present food after a second tone you are likely to produce
discrimination
389
A slow but steady rate of responding is most characteristic of behavior reinforced on ____schedule
variable interval (a variable interval schedule produces a slow but steady rate of responding. In contrast a fixed interval schedule produced a scalloped response pattern where responses decline after the delivery of reinforcement
390
A professor gives unannounced quizzes at unpredictable times. Therefore students must study equally every night. Which type of schedule of reinforcement is this?
variable interval (The reinforcement schedule is variable interval since reinforcement occurs at random time intervals.
391
Which of the following would be an example of punishment (passive avoidance).
you drink less beer than you once did, because you feel sick after drinking more than one can. Punishment (passive avoidance) reduces the frequency of behavior (beer consumption) due to its unpleasant consequences.
392
A slow but steady rate of responding is most characteristic of behavior reinforced on a _____schedule.
variable interval: produces a slow but steady rate of responding, in contrast a fixed interval schedule produces a "scalloped" response pattern, where responses decline after the delivery of the reinforcement
393
A professor gives unannounced quizzes at unpredictable times. Therefore students must study equally every night. Which type of schedule of reinforcement is this?
variable interval
394
Which of the following would be an example of punishment (passive avoidance)?
You drink less beer than you once did, because you feel sick after drinking more than one can.
395
Pavlow believed that presenting the CS at nearly the same time as the UCS caused a connection the brain to form so that the animal treated the CS as if it were the UCS. Psychologists today believe that the animal
uses the CS as a predictor that the UCS is coming
396
A group of people has learned to blink their eyes whenever they see a flashing blue light, because for the last hour that flashing blue light has always been followed by a puff of air to their eyes. If we want to test for the possibility of stimulus generalization, what procedure should we follow?
present a flashing green light
397
A slow but steady rate of responding is most characteristic of behavior reinforced on a _____schedule.
variable interval: produces a slow but steady rate of responding, in contrast a fixed interval schedule produces a "scalloped" response pattern, where responses decline after the delivery of the reinforcement
398
A professor gives unannounced quizzes at unpredictable times. Therefore students must study equally every night. Which type of schedule of reinforcement is this?
variable interval
399
Which of the following would be an example of punishment (passive avoidance)?
You drink less beer than you once did, because you feel sick after drinking more than one can.
400
Pavlow believed that presenting the CS at nearly the same time as the UCS caused a connectionin the brain to form so that the animal treated the CS as if it were the UCS. Psychologists today believe that the animal
uses the CS as a predictor that the UCS is coming
401
A group of people has learned to blink their eyes whenever they see a flashig blue light, because for the last hour that flashing blue light has always been followed by a puff of air to their eyes. If we want to test for the possibility of stimulus generalization, what procedure should we follow?
present a flashing green light
402
What is spontaneous recovery?
an increase in responding after a delay following extinction
403
Suppose your alarm made a slight clicking sound just before the alarm goes off. Even though you didn't wake up to the clicking sound initially, now you do, due to classical conditioning. In this example, the unconditioned response is
waking up to your alarm: The alarm was the unconditioned response. After several trials, the clicks that preceded the alarm became the conditioned stimulus, and waking up in response to the clicks became the conditioned response.
404
According to the Premack principle, is it possible to train an animal to drink more water by giving it food as reinforcement for drinking?
Yes but it is possible only when the animal would ordinarily spend more time eating than drinking: The Premack principle requires that you reinforce one behavior with a more reinforcing behavior. For example, a parent might allow 1 hour of online gaming for every 4 hours of studying.
405
In Pavlov's experiments he paired the presentation of food with a buzzer and measured salivation to each. In this experiment the buzzer was the
conditioned stimulus: because it preceded and predicted the unconditioned stimulus
406
Punishment is most likely to produce a long lasting suppression of a behavior if
the individual has an alternative response available to produce the reinforcement
407
A conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented and always followed by an unconditioned stimulus. Will the animal necessarily develop a conditioned response? Why or why not?
It depends. The animal may or may not develop a conditioned response, depending on whether or not the CS predicts the UCS.
408
Who proposed a "'triune" model of the human brain including reptilian, old mammalian and new mammalian parts?
MacLean
409
Who studied the relationship between reported subjective experience and brain rhythms?
Brown
410
Which researcher identified alpha and beta rhythms?
Berger
411
developed human EEG databases using 19 surface electrode
Duffy
412
developed brain electrical activity mapping (BEAM) that provides a topological map of EEG activity
Duffy
413
Who coined the term neurometrics?
John
414
WHo investigated the operant conditioning of cortically evoked responses?
Rosenfield
415
Whose "Psychology Today" article on alpha biofeedback increased public awareness of biofeedback and interest in EEG biofeedback?
Kamiya
416
WHo pioneered the study of slow cortical potentials?
Birbaumer
417
developed Open Focus training and pioneered EEG synchrony training
Fehmi
418
demonstrated the efficacy of alpha-theta Neurofeedback in treating alcoholics
Peniston and Kulkosky
419
Walter and colleagues (1964) reported on a steady, negative shift in the EEG in the interval between a warning signal (S1) and the second stimulus that required a response (S2). The slow potential was the
contingent negative variation (CNV)
420
Who investigated twilight learning using EEG biofeedback?
Budzynski
421
pioneered SMR biofeedback treatment for generalized seizures
Sterman
422
developed Open Focus training and pioneered EEG synchrony trainind
Fehmi
423
demonstrated the efficacy of alpha-theta neurofeedback in treating alcoholics
Peniston and Kulkosky
424
Walter and collegues (1964) reported on a steady, negartive shift in the EEG in the interval between a warning signal (S1) and the second stimulus that required a response (S2). The slow potential was the
contingent negative variation (CNV)
425
Kornhuber and Deecke (1965) described a gradually rising negative wave that appears 500-1000msec before voluntary movement and peaks when the movement is performed. This slow potential was the
readiness potential (RT)
426
Who reported the P300 slow cortical potential?
Sutton and colleagues (1965)
427
IN 1857____first demonstrated that electrical activity could be recorded from the brain of a living animal
Caton
428
Which would worsen movement artifact in EEG recording?
lengthening the EEG cable
429
artifact is usually the strongest source of contamination during EEG recording
Sixty HZ (50 HZ)
430
The EEG primarily reflects graded_____potential in _______
excitatory and inhibitory, dendrites
431
The EEG signal is measured in microvolts. A microvolt is ______of a volt.
1/1,000,000
432
In North America, contamination from line current occurs primarily at
60 HZ
433
EOG artifact in EEG recording is due to
electrical potential differences between the aqueous and vitreous humors
434
Which bandpass can be used to measure theta EEG activity?
4-7 Hz
435
SMR activity can be detected from
12-15 Hz
436
Which bandpass can be used to measure alpha EEG activity?
8-12 Hz
437
The majority of EEG power falls between
0-20 Hz
438
Which EEG landmark is closest to the ear?
preauricular point (notch)
439
The standard electrode placement system draws an imaginary line from the nasion to the ______
inion
440
Power refers to the square of signal
amplitude
441
Which of these is related to EEG signal frequency?
cycles per second
442
Breathing pattern can influence EEG training. For example, when hyperventilation constricts blood vessels, it generates ________activity.
theta
443
Which is a slow cortical potential?
P300 wave
444
Which of these biological signals is always below 5 Hz
slow cortical potentials
445
Which of these is specified in db/octave?
filter slope
446
An impedance meter measures the quality of skin electrode contact
Kohms
447
If your voltage is 24 and resistance is 2, current is _____amperes
12:
448
Which is measured in microvolts?
signal strength
449
Which is typically the strongest source of interference in SEMG recording
60 Hz artifact
450
Which circuit does a blown fuse illustrate?
open
451
What forces electrons to move in a circuit?
electromotive force
452
When there is a break in an electrode cable, impedance measured from both ends of the cable should be ______ohms
infinite
453
Which technique is used to quantify EEG amplitude within specific frequency bands?
Fast Fourier Transformation (FFT)
454
The highest amplitude EEG frequency band is called the ______frequency.
dominant
455
A 1 second exposure to currents above_____mA can produce ventricular fibrillation
50
456
EEG signals are changed into _____during optical isolation
light
457
A notch filter to remove line current noise typically operates from _____in North America
58-62HZ
458
Opposition to the movement of an AC signal through a circuit is called
impedance
459
Which filter selects signals above a specified cutoff frequency?
high-pass
460
If signal amplitude is 1 microvolt at midband, the amplitude at the corner frequencies is _____microvolt
0.707
461
Which of these indexes and electroencephalograph's ability to detect the smallest change in EEG activity?
resolution
462
Which integration method produces the highest EEG and EMG values?
peak to peak
463
Which of these measures an EEG's ability to detect the smallest signal voltage?
sensitivity
464
A dummy subject is used with EEG or EMG instruments to measure
both environmental and instrument noise
465
Which common mode rejection ratio specification would you prefer in an EEG
110dB
466
Which filter selects signals below a specified cutoff frequency?
low-pass
467
Which of these expresses a ratio of 10,000 to 1?
80 dB
468
Which of these describes a differential amplifier?
subtracts identical input signals
469
How does a ground fault interrupt circuit protect against shock?
triggers a circuit breaker when there is leakage
470
Which material produces the lowest electrode noise?
silver silver-chloride
471
Which EEG differential input impedance specification is best?
10 Megohms
472
Which of these is an international EEG electrode placement system?
10-20 International System of Electrode Placement
473
Your EEG's digital display shows 2 microvolts. During which stage of processing was this value calculated?
integration
474
A 1 second exposure to current exceeding ______mA can produce injury
5
475
Where is alpha amplitude lowest in a healthy subject
frontal (highest in occipital lobe)
476
Which would help reduce 60 Hz noise during EEG and sEMG recording?
differential amplifier
477
Sterman recommends using to represent EEG power in descriptive statistics
the natural log transformation of microvolts
478
EEG electrodes are located ______of the distance between the nasion and the inion and between the left preauricular point and the right preauricular point.
10-20%
479
Which beta bandpass is used to measure theta/beta ratios in ADHD?
13-21 Hz
480
Which filter only suppresses slow wave activity?
low frequency
481
Which term refers to the combination of electrodes used in a single amplifier channel?
derivation
482
When there is a break in an electrode cable, impedance measured from one end to the other should be ______ohms.
infinite
483
A 1 second exposure to currents above _____mA can produce ventricular fibrillation
50
484
A blown fuse illustrates which kind of circuit?
open
485
____is characterized by a sudden large deflection in at least one channel when an electrode abruptly detaches from the scalp
Electrode pop artifact
486
A conservative guideline is that impedance values for disc electrodes should not exceed ______Kohms and should be balanced within_____Kohms to ensure acceptable common mode rejection and high sensitivity
5; 1
487
______is the correlation between the amplitudes of specific frequencies recorded at different sites over time and specific conditions
comodulation
488
_____is the rate of electron movement through a circuit
Current
489
_____refers to the actual frequencies selected by a filter for further analysis
Bandpass
490
The _____is the absolute difference between the high pass and low pass frequencies measured in hertz
bandwidth
491
_____occurs when an EMG signal travels to an EEG electrode and contaminates these recordings
volume conduction: is signal movement across the body through the fluid surrounding cells (interstitial fluid)
492
An_____prevents current flow under normal circumstances
insulator
493
An _____multiplies the voltage of a low amplitude signal
amplifier
494
________is the ability of a differential amplifier to subtract signals common to active and reference electrodes
common mode rejection
495
Which of these converts a filtered AC signal into a positive DC signal for integration (calculation of a signal voltage)?
recitifier
496
Which method produces the largest signal voltage by transforming both positive and negative halves into an equivalent DC signal?
full-wave rectification
497
Which is the first amplification stage in an instrument that requires several stages to increase a low level signal to voltage levels required for processing?
preamplifier
498
Which is the proportion of signal to artifact amplitudes measured in dB?
signal to noise ratio
499
________refers to a point on a waveform's 360 degree cycle at an instant in time
phase (refers to a point on a waveforms 360 degree cycle at an instant in time. When the peaks and valleys of two waveforms coincide, they are in phase. When they do not coincide, they are out of phase. The degree to which the tow waveforms are out of phase is expressed by phase angle which measured in degrees.
500
Which of these protects a patient from shock hazard by converting an electrical signal to a beam of light that is projected across a gap and reconverted into an electrical signal?
optical isolator
501
Which of these is an interval between two frequencies that represents a 2:1 ratio?
octave
502
Which integration method results in a voltage that is two times peak voltage?
peak-peak
503
Which is a unit of resistance?
ohm
504
An amplifier's differential input impedance should be at least ______times the skin-electrode impedance
100
505
Which refers to a signal sampling period?
epoch
506
In_____, EEG signals are rapidly sampled, digitized and decomposed into a series of waveforms of different frequencies. This technique calculates amplitudes for frequencies within a bandpass to determine the power distribution of a signal.
FAst Fourier Transformation Analysis
507
Which measures the noise due to instrument and environmental sources?
dummy subject
