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MCAT > Behavioral Sciences 1-5 > Flashcards

Behavioral Sciences 1-5 Flashcards

1
Q

List the main contributions of Franz Gall.

A

Phrenology; associated development of a trait with growth of its relevant part of the brain

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2
Q

List the main contributions of Pierre Flourens.

A

Extirpation/ablation; concluded that different brain regions have specific functions.

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3
Q

List the main contributions of William James

A

“founder of American psychology”; pushed for importance of studying adaptations of the individual to the environment.

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4
Q

List the main contributions of John Dewey

A

landmark article on functionalism; argued for studying the entire organism as a whole.

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5
Q

List the main contributions of Paul Broca

A

correlated pathology with specific brain regions, such as speech production from Broca’s area.

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6
Q

List the main contributions of Hermann von Helmholtz

A

measured speed of a nerve impulse.

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7
Q

List the main contributions of Sir Charles Sherrington

A

inferred the existence of synapses.

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8
Q

What parts of the nervous system are in the CNS?

A

CNS includes the brain and the spinal cord.

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9
Q

What parts of the nervous system are in the PNS?

A

PNS includes most of the cranial and spinal nerves and sensors.

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10
Q

What do afferent neurons do?

A

Afferent (sensory) neurons brin signals from a sensor to the CNS

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11
Q

What do efferent neurons do?

A

Efferent (motor) neurons bring signals from the CNS to an effector.

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12
Q

What functions are accomplished by the somatic nervous system?

A

The somatic system is responsible for voluntary actions such as moving muscles.

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13
Q

What functions are accomplished by the autonomic nervous system?

A

The autonomic nervous system is responsible for involuntary actions such as heart rate, bronchial dilation, dilation of the eyes, exocrine gland function, and peristalsis.

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14
Q

What are the effects of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic nervous system promotes fight or flight response. Involves increased heart rate, bronchial dilation, redistribution of blood to locomotor muscles, diation of the eyes, and slowing digestive and urinary functions.

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15
Q

What are the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

The parasympathetic nervons system promotes rest and digest functions such as slowing down heart rate, constricting the bronchi, redistributing blood to the gut, promoting exocrine secretions, constricting the pupils, and promoting peristalsis and urinary functions.

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16
Q

What are the functions of each brain region?
1. Basal Ganglia
2. Cerebellum

A
  1. Basal Ganglia - smooth movement.
  2. Cerebellum - Coordinated movement.
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17
Q

What are the functions of each brain region?
3. Cerebral Cortex
4. Hypothalamus

A
  1. Cerebral Cortex - Complex perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes.
  2. Hypothalamus - hunger and thirst; emotion.
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18
Q

What are the functions of each brain region?
5. Inferior and Superior colliculi
6. Limbic system

A
  1. Inferior and superior colliculi - sensorimotor reflexes.
  2. Limbic system - emotion and memory.
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19
Q

What are the functions of each brain region?
7. Medulla Oblongata
8. Reticular Formation
9. Thalamus

A
  1. Medulla Oblongata - Vital function (Breathing, digestion)
  2. Reticular formation - Arousal and Alertness.
  3. Thalamus - Sensory relay station.
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20
Q

What are the main functions of the hindbrain?

A

Balance, motor coordination, breathing, digestion, general arousal processes (sleeping and waking); “vital functioning”

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21
Q

What are the main functions of the midbrain?

A

Receives sensory and motor information from the rest of the body; reflexes to auditory and visual stimuli .

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22
Q

What are the main functions of the forebrain?

A

Complex perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes; emotion and memory.

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23
Q

What are some of the methods used for mapping the brain?

A

Studying humans with brain lesions, extirpation, stimulation or recording with electrodes (cortical mapping, singe-cell electrode recordings, electroencephalogram) and regional central blood flow.

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24
Q

What structures surround and protect the brain?

A

Most deep to most superficial: meninges, bone, periosteum, skin.

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25
Q

What are the four lobes of the cerebral cortex and it’s functions?

A

Frontal Lobe: Executive function, impulse control, long term planning (prefrontal cortex), motor function (primary cortex), speech production (Broca’s area)

Parietal: sensation of touch, pressure, temperature, and pain (somatosensory cortex); spatial processing, orientation, and manipulation.

Occipital: visual processing

Temporal: sound processing (auditory cortex), speech perception (Wernicke’s area), memory, and emotion (limbic system).

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26
Q

What is the difference between ipsilateral and contralateral communication between the brain and the body?

A

Ipsilateral communication occurs when cerebral hemispheres communicate with the same side of the body.

Contralateral communication occurs when cerebral hemispheres communicate with the opposite side of the body.

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27
Q

How is the dominant hemisphere typically defined?

A

Typically defined as the one that is more heavily stimulated during language reception and production.

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28
Q

What is the function of each neurotransmitter?
1. Acetylcholine
2. Dopamine

A
  1. Voluntary muscle control.
  2. Smooth movements and steady posture.
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29
Q

What is the function of each neurotransmitter?
3. Endorphins
4. Epinephrine/ norepinephrine

A
  1. Natural painkiller
  2. Wakeful and alertness, fight or flight responses.
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30
Q

What is the function of each neurotransmitter?
5. GABA/glycine
6. Glutamate
7. Serotonin

A
  1. Brain “stabilizer”
  2. Brain excitation
  3. Mood, sleep, eating, dreaming.
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31
Q

Which endocrine organs influence behavior? What hormones do they use, and what do they accomplish?

A

The hypothalamus controls release of pituitary hormones; pituitary is the “master gland” that triggers hormone secretion in many other endocrine glands.

The adrenal medulla produces adrenaline (epinephrine), which causes sympathetic nervous system effects throughout the body.

The adrenal cortex produces cortisol, a stress hormone. The adrenal cortex and testes produce testosterone, which is associated with libido.

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32
Q

Discuss the influence of nature vs. nurture on behavior.

A

Nature is defined as heredity, or the influence of inherited characteristics on behavior. Nurture refers to the influence of environment and physical surroundings on behavior.

It has been long debated whether nature or nurture has the larger influence; it is a complicated situation, but for most traits, both exert some influence.

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33
Q

What is the sample group and control group of:
1. Family Study
2. Twin Study
3. Adoption Study

A

Family study: Sample group is a family of genetically related individuals. Control group is unrelated individuals (generally population)

Twin Study: Sample group is monozygotic, identical twins. Control group is dizygotic, fraternal twins.

Adoption Study: Sample group is an adoptive family (relative to the child who was adopted). Control group is a biological family (relative to child who was adopted).

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34
Q

Describe the process of neurulation

A

Neurulation occurs when a furrow is produced from ectoderm overlying the notochord and consists of the neural groove and two neural folds. As the neural fold grows, the cells at their leading edge are called neural crest cells. When the neural folds fuse, this creates the neural tube, which will form the CNS.

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35
Q

Describe the behavior of these primitive reflexes:
1. Rooting
2. Moro
3. Babinski
4. Grasping

A

Rooting - turning head towards direction of any object touching the cheek.

Moro - in response to sudden head movement, arms extend and slowly retract; baby usually cries.

Babinski - extension of big toe and fanning of other toes in response to brushing the sole of the foot.

Grasping - Holding onto any object placed in the hand.

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36
Q

What are two main themes that dictate the stages of motor development in early childhood?

A

Gross motor development proceeds from head to toe, and from the core to the periphery.

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37
Q

What is the pathway for a stimulus to reach conscious perception.

A

sensory receptor > afferent neuron > sensory ganglion > spinal cord > brain (projection areas)

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38
Q

Match each sensory receptor to its function:
1. Hair cell
2. Nociceptor

A
  1. Sense motion of fluid in the inner ear.
  2. Sense painful or bothersome physical stimuli.
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39
Q

Match each sensory receptor to its function:
3. Olfactory receptor
4. Osmoreceptor

A
  1. Sense of volatile chemicals.
  2. Sense changes in blood concentration.
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40
Q

Match each sensory receptor to its function:
5. Photoreceptor
6. Taste receptor
7. Thermoreceptor

A
  1. Sense electromagnetic radiation in the visible range.
  2. Sense dissolved chemicals.
  3. Sense changes in temperature.
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41
Q

Describe absolute threshold.

A

Absolute threshold is the minimum stimulus that can evoke an action potential in a sensory receptor.

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42
Q

Describe threshold of conscious perception.

A

Threshold of conscious perception is the minimum stimulus that can evoke enough action potentials for a long enough time that the brain perceives the stimulus.

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43
Q

Describe difference threshold.

A

The difference threshold (just-noticeable difference) is the minimum difference between two stimuli that can be detected by the brain.

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44
Q

What aspects of thresholds do Weber’s law and signal detection theory focus on?

A

Weber’s law explains that just-noticeable difference are best expressed as a ratio, which is constant over most of the range of sensory stimuli.

Signal detection theory concerns the threshold to sense a stimulus, given obscuring internal and external stimuli.

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45
Q

How does sensory adaptation affect a difference threshold.

A

Adaptation generally raises the difference threshold for a sensory response; as one becomes used to small fluctuations int he stimulus, the difference in stimulus required to evoke a response must be larger.

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46
Q

List the functions of the cornea.

A

The cornea gathers and focuses the incoming light.

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47
Q

List the functions of the pupil

A

Allows passage of light from the anterior to posterior chamber.

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48
Q

List the functions of the iris.

A

controls the size of the pupil.

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49
Q

List the functions of the ciliary body.

A

Produces aqueous humor; accommodation of the lens.

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50
Q

List the functions of the canal of Schlemm.

A

drains aqueous humor.

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51
Q

List the functions of the lens.

A

Refracts the incoming light to focus it on the retina.

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52
Q

List the functions of the retina.

A

Detects images.

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53
Q

List the functions of the Sclera.

A

Provides structural support.

54
Q

List the structures in the visual pathway, from where light enters the cornea to the visual projection areas in the brain.

A

Cornea > pupil > lens > vitreous > retina (rods and cones to bipolar cells to ganglion cells) > optic nerve > optic chiasm > optic tract > lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus > radiations through parietal and temporal lobes > visual cortex (occipital lobe)

55
Q

What is parallel processing?

A

Parallel processing is the ability to simultaneously analyze color, shape, and motion of an object and to integrate this information to create a cohesive image of the world. Parallel processing also calls on memory systems to compare a visual stimulus to past experiences to help determine the object’s identity.

56
Q

What types of cells are responsible for color?

A

Cones are responsible for color.

57
Q

What types of cells are responsible for form?

A

Parvocellular cells are responsible for form.

58
Q

What types of cells are responsible for motion?

A

Magnocellular cells are responsible for motion.

59
Q

What types of cells are responsible for depth?

A

Binocular neurons are responsible for depth.

60
Q

What structures are used to detect linear acceleration and rotational acceleration?

A

Linear acceleration is detected by the utricle and saccule. Rotational acceleration is detected by the semicircular canals.

61
Q

List the structure in the auditory pathway, from where sound enters the pinna to the auditory projection areas in the brain?

A

Pinna > external auditory canal > tympanic membrane > malleus > incus > stapes > oval window > perilymph in cochlea > basilar membrane > hair cells > vestibular cochlear nerve > brainstem > medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) of thalamus > auditory cortex (temporal lobe).

62
Q

How does the organization of the cochlea indicate the pitch of an incoming sound?

A

The basilar membrane is tonotopically organized: high pitched sounds cause vibrations at the base of the cochlea whereas low-pitched sounds cause vibrations at the apex of the cochlea.

63
Q

List the structures in the olfactory pathway, from where odor molecules enter the nose to where olfactory signals project in the brain.

A

Nostril > nasal cavity > olfactory chemoreceptors (olfactory nerves) on olfactory epithelium > olfactory bulb > olfactory tract > higher-order brain regions, including limbic system.

64
Q

Both smell and taste are sensitive to chemicals. What is different about the types of chemicals each one can sense?

A

smell is sensitive to volatile or aerosolized compounds; taste is sensitive to dissolved compounds.

65
Q

What are the four main modalities of somatosensation?

A

pressure, vibration, pain, and temperature.

66
Q

How is sensory information integrated in bottom-up processing? Top-down processing?

A

Bottom up processing requires each component of an object to be interpreted through parallel processing and then integrated into one cohesive whole.

Top down processing starts with the whole object and, through memory, creates expectations for the components of the object.

67
Q

Describe the Gestalt principles below:
1. Proximity
2. Similarity

A

Proximity - components close to one another tend to be perceived as a unit.

Similarity - components that are similar (in color, shape, size) tend to be grouped together.

68
Q

Describe the Gestalt principles below:
3. Good continuation
4. Subjective contours

A

Good continuation - Components that appear to follow in the same pathway tend to be grouped together; abrupt changes in form are less likely than continuation of the same pattern.

Subjective contours - edges or shapes that are not actually presented can be implied by the surrounding objects (especially if good continuation is present)

69
Q

Describe the Gestalt principles below:
5. Closure
6. Pragnanz

A

Closure - a space enclosed by a contour tends to be perceived as a complete figure such figures ted to be perceived as more complete (or closed ) than they really are.

Pragnanz - perceptual organization will always be as regular, simple, and symmetric as possible.

70
Q

Which of the following might cause a person to eat more food during a meal?

A. Eating each course separately and moving to the next only when finished with the current course.

B. Interrupting the main course several times by eating side dishes.

A

Option A causes habituation; each bite causes less pleasurable stimulation so people will feel less desire to keep eating.

On the other hand, option B causes dishabituation for taste, which would cause people to eat more overall.

71
Q

A student plays a prank on roommate by popping ballon behind roommate’s head everytime making popcorn. Before long, the smell of popcorn makes the roommate nervous.

  1. Which is the conditioned stimulus.
  2. Which part is the unconditioned stimulus.
  3. Which part is the conditioned response.
  4. Which part is the unconditioned response.
A
  1. Conditioned stimulus is the smell of popcorn.
  2. The unconditioned stimulus is the popping of the balloon.
  3. The conditioned response is nervousness (fear) in response to the presence of popcorn.
  4. The unconditioned response is fear in response to popping the balloon.
72
Q

What is the difference between positive punishment and negative reinforcement? Provide an example of each.

A

Negative reinforcement causes an increase of a given behavior by removing something unpleasant. Positive punishment on the other had reduced a behavior by adding something unpleasant.

Common negative reinforcers include medicines that reduce pain or avoiding uncomfortable situations to reduce anxiety.

Common positive punishments include having to pay a fine for speeding which driving or getting detention in school for bad behavior.

73
Q

List three modes in which information can be encoded, from strongest to weakest.

A

Semantic is the strongest, followed by acoustic. Visual is the weakest.

74
Q

In what ways is maintenance rehearsal different from elaborative rehearsal?

A

Maintenance rehearsal is the repetition of information to keep it within short term memory for near-immediate use.

Elaborative rehearsal is the association of information to other stored knowledge and is a more effective way to move information from short term to long term memory.

75
Q

In terms of recall, why might it be a bad idea to study for the MCAT while listening to music?

A

Because you will be taking the MCAT in a quiet room, studying under similar circumstances will aid recall due to context effects. Music may also compete for attention, reducing your ability to focus on the relevant study material.

76
Q

What are some factors that might cause eyewitness courtroom testimony to be unreliable?

A

The manner in which questions are asked can affect the accuracy of eyewitness testimony. The nature of information shared with the witness by police, lawyers, and other witnesses following the event; the misinformation effect; source-monitoring error; and the amount of time elapsed between the event and the trial. Even watching crime dramas, watching the news, or witnessing similar events can cause source-monitoring error.

77
Q

What is neuroplasticity?

A

Neuroplasticity is the ability of the brain to form new connections rapidly.

78
Q

How does neuroplasticity change during life?

A

The brain is the most plastic in young children and quickly drops after childhood.

79
Q

What is the term for removing weak neural connections?

A

Pruning is the term for removing weak neural connections.

80
Q

What is the term for strengthening memory connections through increased neurotransmitter release and receptor density?

A

Long term potentiation is the strengthening of memory connections through increased neurotransmitter release and receptor density.

81
Q

The three steps in the information processing model are what?

A

encoding, storage, and retrieval

82
Q

A person brings a parent, who is an older adult, to the doctor. During the past two days, the parent has been overheard speaking to a spouse who has been deceased for four years. Prior to that, the parent was completely normal. The parent most likely has:

A

Most likely has delirium. Time course incompatible to the slow decline of dementia.

83
Q

List Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development and the key features of each.

A

Sensorimotor - focuses on manipulating environment for physical needs; circular reaction; ends with object permanence.

Preoperational - symbolic thinking, egocentrism, and centration.

Concrete operational - understands conservation and the feelings of others; can manipulate concreate objects logically.

Formal operational - can think abstractly and problem solve.

84
Q

A child plays with a tool set. The nail can only be hit with a hammer. What a friend suggests that the handle of a screwdriver can be used to hit a nail, the child objects. This is an example of:

A

Functional fixedness

85
Q

A doctor uses a flowchart to treat a patient with sepsis. Given its use in problem solving, a flowchart is an example of an:

A

Algorithm

86
Q

A patient in a mental health facility believes that the sky is pink. Despite several trips outside, the patient still declares that the sky is pink. Which psychological principle does this represent?

A

Belief perseverance.

87
Q

Provide a definition of the availability and representativeness heuristics.

A

The availability heuristic is used for making decisions based on how easily similar instances can be imagined.

The representativeness heuristic is used for making decisions based on how much a particular item or situation fits a given prototype or stereotype.

88
Q

List the EEG waveforms and main features of each of the sleep stages below:
1. Awake
2. Stage 1

A
  1. Awake EEG waves are beta and alpha. It’s features are the ability to perceive, process, access information, and express that information verbally.
  2. Stage 1 EEG waves are theta. It’s features include light sleep and dozing.
89
Q

List the EEG waveforms and main features of each of the sleep stages below:
3. Stage 2
4. Stage 3

A
  1. Stage 2 EEG waves are theta. It’s features are sleep spindles and K complexes.
  2. Stage 3 EEG waves are delta. It’s features are slow-wave sleep; dreams; declarative memory consolidation; sleep-wake disorders occur in this stage.
90
Q

List the EEG waveforms and main features of each of the sleep stages below:
5. Stage 4
6. REM

A
  1. Stage 4 EEG waves are delta. It’s features are slow-wave sleep; dreams; declarative memory consolidation; sleep-wake disorders occur in this stage.
  2. REM EEG waves are mostly beta. It’s features are appears awake physiologically; dreams, procedural memory consolidation; body is paralyzed.
91
Q

Which two hormones are most associated with maintaining circadian rhythms?

A

melatonin and cortisol.

92
Q

What is the difference between a dyssomnia and a parasomnia? Provide examples.

A

dyssomnias are disorders in which the duration or timing of sleep is disturbed. Examples include insomnia, narcolepsy, and sleep apnea.

Parasomnias are disorders in which abnormal behaviors occur during sleep. Examples include night terrors and sleepwalking (somnambulism).

93
Q

Which three drugs (or drug classes) are known to increase GABA activity in the brain?

A

Alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiazepines.

Marijuana inhibits GABA activity.

94
Q

Which three drugs (or drug classes) are known to increase dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin activity in the brain?

A

amphetamines, cocaine, and ecstasy (MDMA).

Ecstasy is a designer amphetamine, mentioned separately here because of its hallucinogenic properties.

95
Q

What are the three main primary structures in the mesolimbic reward pathway?

A

nucleus accumbens, medial forebrain bundle, and ventral tegmental area.

96
Q

What is the mesolimbic reward pathway’s primary neurotransmitter?

A

dopamine.

97
Q

Compare and contrast controlled (effortful) processing and automatic processing.

A

Controlled (effortful) processing is used when maintaining undivided attention on a task and is usually used for new or complex actions.

Automatic processing is used for less critical stimuli in divided attention, and is usually used for familiar or repetitive actions.

98
Q

Briefly describe the function of the “filter” used in selective attention.

A

The filter in selective attention permits us to focus on one set of stimuli while scanning other stimuli in the background for important information ( such as our name or a significant change in the environment.

99
Q

What is the expected milestone of language development at 9 to 12 months?

A

Babbling

100
Q

What is the expected milestone of language development at 12 to 18 months?

A

Increase of about one word per month.

101
Q

What is the expected milestone of language development at 18 to 20 months?

A

Explosion of language and combing words (two word sentences)

102
Q

What is the expected milestone of language development at 2 to 3 years?

A

Longer sentences of three or more words.

103
Q

What is the expected milestone of language development at 5 years?

A

Language rules largely mastered.

104
Q

For this theory of language acquisition, what is the primary motivation or trigger for language development?
1. Nativist (biological)

A

Innate ability to pick up language via the language acquisition device.

105
Q

For this theory of language acquisition, what is the primary motivation or trigger for language development?
2. Learning (behaviorist)

A

It is operant conditioning with reinforcement by caregivers.

106
Q

For this theory of language acquisition, what is the primary motivation or trigger for language development?
3. Social interactionist.

A

Desire to communicate and act socially.

107
Q

Describe the clinical features of Broca’s aphasia.

A

Broca’s aphasia is marked by difficulty producing language, with hesitancy and great difficulty coming up with words.

108
Q

Describe the clinical features of Wernicke’s aphasia.

A

Wernicke’s aphasia is fluent, but includes nonsensical sounds and words deviod of meaning; language comprehension is los.

109
Q

Describe the clinical features of conduction aphasia.

A

Conduction aphasia is marked by difficulty repeating speech, with intact speech production and comprehension.

110
Q

What creates motivation for instinct theory?

A

Instincts: innate, fixed patterns of behavior in response to stimuli.

111
Q

What creates motivation for arousal theory?

A

Maintaining a constant level of arousal, the psychological and physiological state of being awake and reactive to stimuli.

112
Q

What creates motivation for drive reduction theory?

A

Drive: internal states of tension or discomfort that can be relieved with a particular action.

113
Q

What creates motivation for need-based theories?

A

Needs: factors necessary for physiological function or emotional fulfillment.

114
Q

List Maslow’s hierarchy of needs in decreasing priority.

A

Psychological needs, safety and security, love and belonging, self-esteem, self actualization.

115
Q

Based on opponent process theory, what clinical features would be expected with withdrawal from cocaine use?

A

Cocaine is a stimulant, causing euphoria, restlessness, increased heart rate, increased temperature, and anxiety. According to the opponent process theory, cocaine withdrawal should be the opposite: depressed mood, fatigue, decreased heart rate, decreased temperature, and apathy.

116
Q

What are the three elements of emotion? Provide a brief description of each.

A

Physiological response (autonomic nervous system): heart rate, breathing rate, skin temperature, blood pressure.

Behavioral response: facial expressions, body language

Cognitive response: subjective interpretation, memories of past experiences, perception of cause of emotion.

117
Q

What are the seven universal emotions?

A

Happiness, sadness, contempt, surprise, fear, disgust, and anger.

118
Q

What is James Lange Theory

A

Stimulus leads to physiological arousal.

Arousal leads to the conscious experience of emotion.

“My skin is hot and my blood pressure is high so I must be angry”

Requires connection between sympathetic nervous system and brain.

119
Q

What is Cannon Bard Theory?

A

Stimulus leads to physiological arousal and feeling of emotion.

Thalamus processes sensory information, sends it to cortex and sympathetic nervous system.

Action is secondary to response to stimulus.

” I see a snake, so I am afraid and my heart is racing… Let me get out of here!”

Des not explain vagus nerve.

120
Q

What is Schachter Singer Theory?

A

Both arousal and labeling based on environment are required to experience an emotion.

” I am excited because my heart is racing and everyone else is happy”

121
Q

What is the function of the Amygdala in the limbic system?

A

Attention and emotions (specifically fear). Helps interpret facial expression sand is part of the intrinsic memory system for emotional memory.

122
Q

What is the function of the thalamus in the limbic system?

A

Sensory processing station

123
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus in the limbic system ?

A

Releases neurotransmitters that affect mood and arousal.

124
Q

What is the function of the hippocampus in the limbic system?

A

Creates long term explicit memories (episodic memories)

125
Q

What is the function of the ventromedial prefrontal cortex in the limbic system?

A

Involved in decision making and controlling emotional responses from the amygdala.

126
Q

What are the key features of primary and secondary cognitive appraisal of stress?

A

Primary appraisal is categorizing the stressor as irrelevant, benign - positive, or stressful.

Secondary appraisal is the evaluation of the ability of the organism to cope with that stress.

127
Q

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome? What physiological changes are evident in each stage?

A

Alarm stage - activation of sympathetic nervous system, release of ACTH and cortisol, stimulation of adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Resistance stage - continuous release of hormones activates sympathetic nervous system.

Exhaustion stage - can no longer maintain elevated sympathetic nervous system activity, more susceptible to illness and medical conditions, organ systems deteriorate, death.

128
Q

What are some common stressors?

A

Common stressors include environmental or physical discomfort, daily events, workplace or academic setting, social expectations, and chemical and biological stressors.

129
Q

What are some effective techniques for managing stress?

A

Effect stress management techniques include exercise, relaxation techniques (medication, diaphragmatic breathing, progressing muscle relaxation), spiritual practice, and many more.

130
Q
A

MCAT (5 decks)

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