Behavioral Sciences Flashcards

(114 cards)

1
Q

Autonomy

A

Obligation to respect pateitns ad individuals and to honor hteir preferences in medical care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Beneficence

A

hysicians have a special ethical duty to act in the patient’s best interest. May conflict with autonomy. If the patient can make an informed decision, the patietn has the righ tot decide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

Do no harm; however, if the benefits of an intervention outweight the risks, a patient may make an informed decision to proceed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Justice

A

To treat persons fairly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Informed consent requirements (3)

A

Discussion of pertinent information, patient’s voluntary agreement to the plan of care, and freedom from coercion. Pateint must be made aware of risks, benefits, and alternatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Exceptions to informed consent (4)

A

Patietn is incompetent, implied consent in an emergency, therapeutic privilege (witholding information when disclosure would severely harm the patient or undermine informed decision-making capacity), waiver (patient waives the right of infomred consent).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Consent for minors

A

Any person < 18 years of age; parental consent must be obtained unless a minor is emancipated (married, self supporting, has children, in military). However pareitnal consetn is NOT required in emergency situations, when prescribing contraceptive,s or in treatment of STDS/medical care during pregnancy/management of drug addiction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Decision-making capacity

A

Patient makes and communicates a hoice, patietn is informed, decision rem aisn stable over time, decision is consistent with patient’s values and goals, decision is not a result of delusions or hallucinatoins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Oral advance directive

A

Given prior to incapacitation; takes precidence if most current.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Living will

A

Written directive on what care should be provided on incapacitation; usually to withdraw life-sustaining treatment or in a persistent vegetative state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Durable power of attorney

A

Patient designates a surrogate to make decisions in the event of incapactiation; patient may also specify decisions in clinical situations. Surrogate retains power until reoked by patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Decision making surrogates

A

If patient hasn’t prepared instructions and becomes incomptent, individuals who know patient may determine what the patient would have done if he/she were competent. Priority of surrogates: spouse > adult children > parents > siblings > other relatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Confidentiality

A

Respects privacy and autonomy; disclosing information to family and friends should be guided by what the patient would want. Patient may right to confidentiality (e.g. insurance companies).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Exceptions to confidentiality

A

Potential harm to others, self-harm risk is great, no alternative exists to warn or protect those at risk, physician must takes step sto prevent harm (STD, TB, hepatitis, food poisoning to warn public officials; child/elder abuse, imparied automobile drivers, suicidal/homicidal patients)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tarasoff decision

A

Physician must directly inform and protec tpotential victim from harm; may involve breach of confidentiality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Patient is noncompliant; appropriate response?

A

Attempt to identify the patient’s reason for noncompliance and determine his/her willingness to change; do not attempt to coerce the patient into complying or refer the patient to another physician.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Patient desires an unncessary procedure; appropriate response?

A

Attempt to understand why the patient wants the procedure and address underlying concerns. Do not refuse to see the patient or refer him to antoher physician. Avoid performing uncessary procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Patient has difficultty taking medications; appropriate response?

A

Provide written instrucitons; attempt to simply treatment regimens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Family members ask for information about patient’s prognosis; appropriate response?

A

Avoid discussing issues with relatives without the permission of the patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A child wishes to know more about his illness; appropriate response?

A

Ask what the paretns have told the child about his/her illness. Parents of a child decide what information can be relayed about the illness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A 17 year old girl is pregnant and requests an abortion; appropriate response?

A

Many states require parental notification or consent; unless she is at medical risk, do not advise a patietn to have an abortion regardless of her age or the condition of the fetus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A 15 year old girl is pregnant and wants ot keep her child; her parietns want you to tell her to give her up for adoption; appropriate response?

A

The patietn has the right to make decisions regarding her child, even if her parents disagree. Provide information to teen about pratical issues of childcare. Discuss options. Encourage discussion between her and her parents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A terminally ill patient requests physician assistance in ending his life; appropriate response?

A

Refuse involvement; may give analgesics that coincidentally shorten the patient’s life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Patient is suicidal; appropriate response?

A

Assess the seriousness of the treat; if serious, suggest that the patient remain in the hospital voluntarily; patient may be hospitalized involuntarily if he/she refuses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Patient states that he finds you attractive; appropriate response?
Ask direct, closed-ended questions and use a chaperone. Romantic relationships with patients are never appropriate. Never say "there can be no relationship while you are a patietn" because that implies a relationship may be possible if the individual is no longer a patient.
26
A middle-aged married woman who had a masectomy says she feels "ugly" when she undresses at night; appropriate response?
Find out why the patient feels this way. Do not offer falsely reassuring statements (e.g. you still look good).
27
Patient is angry about the amount of time he spent in the waiting room; appropriate response?
Acknowledge the patient's anger, but do not take it personally. Apologize for the inconvience. Stay away from efforts to expalin the delay.
28
A patient is upset with the way he was treated by another doctor; appropriate response?
Suggest that the patient speak directly to that phsyician regarding his concerns. If the problem is with your staff, tell the patient you will speak to that individual.
29
A drug company ofers a "referral fee" fofr every patient a phsyician enrolls in a study; appropriate response?
Eligible patients who benefit from the study may be enrolled, but it is never acecptable to receive compensation. Patients must be told about the existence of a referral fee.
30
A physician orders an invasive test for the wrong patient; appropriate response?
No matter how serious or trivial a medical error, a physician is ethically obligated to inform a patietn that a mistake has been made.
31
A patient requires a treatment not covered by his insurance; appropriate response?
Never limit or deny care because of the expense in time or money. Discuss all treamtent options with patients, even if some are not covered by their insurance companies.
32
What is the APGAR score?
Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration. (\>7 good, 4-6 assist and stimulate; \<4 resuscitate).
33
When is the APGAR score taken?
1 and 5 minutes after birth.
34
What APGAR score indicates a risk of long term neurological damage
Less than 4
35
Low birth weight definition; aossicated with what problems?
\< 2500 g; hgreater incidence of physical and emotional problems, infections, respiratory diress syndrome, necrotizing enterocolitis, germinal matriax hemorrhages, persistant fetal circulation (PDA).
36
What causes low birth weight.
Prematurity or intrauterine growth retardation.
37
Developmental milestones birth - 3 months (motor, social, verbal/cognitive)
Motor: rooting reflex, holds up head, Moro reflex disappears; social: social smile; verbal: orients and responds to voice.
38
Developmental milestones 7-9 months (motor, social, verbal/cognitive)
Motor: sits alone, crawls, transfer toys hand to hand; social: stranger anxiety; verbal: responds to name and simple instrucitons, uses gestures.
39
Developmental milestones 12-15 months (motor, social, verbal/cognitive)
Motor: walks, Babinski reflex disappears; social: separation anxiety; verbal: first words.
40
Developmental milestones 12-24 months (motor, social, verbal/cognitive)
Mtoor: climbs stairs, stacks 3 blocsk at 1 year 6 at 2 years; social: rapprochment (moves away from and then returns to mother); verbal: object permanence; 200 words and 2 word sentences at age 2.
41
Developmental milestones 24-36 months (motor, social, verbal/cognitive)
Motor: feeds self with fork and spoon, kicks balls; social: core gender identitiy, parallel play; verbal: toilet training.
42
Developmental milestones 3 years (motor, social, verbal/cognitive)
Motor: rides tricycle, copies line or circle drawings; social: comfotably spends part of the day away from mother; verbal: 900 words and complete sentences.
43
Developmental milestones 4 years (motor, social, verbal/cognitive)
Motor: uses buttons and zippe,s brushes teeth, hopes on 1 foot, makes simple drawings; social: cooperative play, imaginary friends; verbal: can tell detailed storeis and use propositions.
44
Sexual changes in male and female elderly
Men: slower erection/ejaculation, longer refractory period; woman: vaginal shortneing, thinning, dryness.
45
Sleep changes in the elderly
Decrease REM sleep (slow-wave sleep), increased latency and awakenings.
46
What two things do not decrease with aging.
Sexual interest or intelligence.
47
Stages of grief
Shock, denial, guilt, and somatic symptoms; may experience illusions.
48
Normal duration of grief
2 months
49
Pathological grief definition
Prolonged grief lasting \> 2 months; grief that is dealyed, inhibited, or denied. May experience depressive symptoms, delusions, and hallucinations.
50
Stress effects on body
Induces production of free fatty acids, cortcosteroids (immunosuppression), cholesterol, catecholamines; affects awter absorption, muscular tonicity, gastrocolic reflex, and mucosal ciruclation..
51
Sexual dysfunction
Due to drugs (antihypertensives, neuroleptics, SSRIs/TCAs, ethanol), diseases (depression, diabetes), psychological (anxiety).
52
Body mass index
Weight in kg / (height in meters)^2 ; 25 overweight ; \>30 obese; \>40 morbidly obese.
53
Sleep stages - awake; description and ECG waveform
Alert, active mental concentration =\> BETA waves (highest frequency, lowest amplitude); eyes closed =\> ALPHA waves
54
Sleep stages - Stage I; description and ECG waveform
Light sleep; THETA waves (5%)
55
Sleep stages - Stage II; description and ECG waveform
Deep sleep and bruxism; sleep spindles and K complexes (45%)
56
Sleep stages - Stage III; description and ECG waveform
Deepest NREM (slow-wave sleep); sleep walking; night terrors; bedwetting. DELTA waves (lowest frequency, highest amplitude). (25%)
57
Sleep stages - Stage IV (REM); description and ECG waveform
Dreaming, loss of motor tone, possibly a memory processing function, erections, increased brain O2 use (BETA waves!). (25%)
58
Effect of REM sleep on neurotransmitters and body
Ach is the principal neurotransmitter in REM sleep; NE reduces REM sleep. Serotonin initiates sleep (raphe nucelus). Increase variable pulse and blood pressure. Extraocular movements due to PPRF. Penile/clitoral tumescence. Occurs every 90 minutes; duration increase through the night.
59
Effect of depression on sleep patterns
Decrease slow-wave sleep (delta, stage 3 NREM). Decrease rem latency; increased REM earily in sleep cycle; increase total REM sleep; repeated nighttime awakenings; early morning awakening (important screening question).
60
Classical conditioning
Learning in which a natural response is elicited by a conditioned or learned stimulus that previously was presented in conjunction with an unconditioned stimulus.
61
Operant conditiong
Learning in which a particular action is elicited because it produces a reward.
62
Positive reinforcement
Desired reward produces action (mouse presses button to get food).
63
Negative reinforcement
Removal of aversive stimulus elicits behavior (mosue presses button to avoid shock).
64
Punishment
Application of aversive stimulus extinguishes unwanted behavior.
65
Extinction
Discontinuation of reinforcement eliminates behavior.
66
Transference
Patient projects feelings about formative or other important persons onto physician (e.g. psychiatrist = parent).
67
Countertransference
Doctor projects feelings about formative or other persons onto patient.
68
What are ego defenses
Unconscious mental processes used to resolve conflict and prevent undesirable feelings (e.g. anxiety, depression).
69
Splitting - definition and example
Narcissistic defense mechanism. Belief that people are either all good or all bad at different times due to intolerance of ambiguity; seen in borderline perosnality disorder. E.g. a patient says that all the nurses are cold and insenstivite but the doctors are warm and friendly
70
Denial - definition and example
Narcissistic defense mechanism. Avoidance of awareness of some painful reality; e.g. a common reaction in newly diagnosed AIDS and cancer patients.
71
Projection - definition and example
Narcissistic defense mechanism. An unacceptable internal impulse is attributed to an external source; e.g. a man who wants another woman thinks his wife is cheating on him. Associate with PARANOIA and AUDITORY HALLUCINATIONS.
72
Blocking - definition and example
Immature ego defense mechanism. Transient inability to remember. Not when you lose whole swathes of information; it's losing a name, number, etc. at a focal stressful event.
73
Regression - definition and example
Immature ego defense mechanism. Turning back the maturational clock and going back to earlier modes osf dealing with the world; e.g. seen in children under stress (illness, punishment, birth of new sibling like bed wetting in previously toilet-trained child).
74
Identification (introjection) - definition and example
Immature ego defense mechanism. Modeling behavior after another person who is more powerful (though not necessarily admired); e.g. abused child identifies himself/herself as an abuser.
75
Acting out - definition and example
Unacceptable feelings and thoughts are expresesd through actions; e.g. tantrums.
76
Rationalization - definition and example
Proclaiming logical resons for actions actually performed for other reasons, usually to avoid self-blame; e.g. after getting fired, claiming the job was not important anyway.
77
Isolation of affect - definition and example
Separation of feelings from ideas and events; e.g. describing a murder in graphic detail with no emotional response.
78
Intellectualization - defintion and example
Feeling removed and replaced with cognition; facts instead of feelings. Sense of emptiness.
79
Displacement - definition and example
Process whereby aovided ideas and feelings are transferred to some neutral person or object (vs. projection); e.g. mother places blame on child because she is angry at her husband.
80
Fixation - definition and example
Partially remaining at a more childish level of development (vs. regression); eg. men fixating on sports games.
81
Reaction formation - definition and example
Process whereby a warded-off idea or feeling is replaced by an (unconsciously derived) emphasis on its opposite; e.g. a patient with libinous thoughts enters a monastery.
82
Passive aggression - definition and example
Nonperformance after setting the expectation of performance; unconscious expression of hostility.
83
Undoing - definition and example
Action to reverse an unacceptable impulse; a focal fixing or repairing; e.g. superstitious behaviors, verbal reflexes, atonement (associate OCD).
84
Repression - definition and example
Involuntary withholding of an idea or feeling from conscious awareness; e.g. not remembeirng a conflictual or traumatic experience or pressing bad thoughts into the unconscious.
85
Dissociation - definition and example
Temporary, drastic change in personality, memory, consciousness, or motor behavior to avoid emotional stress; e.g. extreme forms can result in dissociative identity dosrder (multiple personalities).
86
Altruism - definition and example
Guilty feelings allievated by unsolicited generosity towards others; e.g. mafia boss makes large donation to charity.
87
Humor - definition and example
Appreciating the amusing nature of an anxiety-provoking or adverse stiuation; nervous medical student jokes about the boards.
88
Sublimation - definition and example
Process whereby one replaces an unacceptable course of action that is similar to the wish but does not conflict with one's value system; e.g. teenager's aggression toward his father is redirected to perform well in sports.
89
Suppression - definition and example
Voluntary withholding of an ideal or feeling from conscious awareness (vs. repression); e.g. choosing not to think about the USMLE until the week of the exam.
90
Four mature ego defenses
SASH: sublimation, altriusim, suppression, humor.
91
Three narcissistic ego defenses
Projection, denial, splitting,
92
Immature ego defenses
Blocking
93
Ethics Rule #1
Comptent patients have the right to refuse medical treatment.
94
Ethics Rule #2
Assume that the patient is competent unless there is CLEAR contrary evidence.
95
Clear evidence of incompetence
Suicidal, patient is unable to get or give information.
96
Ethics Rule #3
AVOID GOING TO COURT, ETHICS COMMITTEE, ETC. (Never pass off, YOU make a decision!)
97
Ethics Rule #4
When surrogates make decisions, they should be in THIS order: 1. subjective standard (what the patient says; advance directives), 2. substituted judgment (guessing what the patient probably wants), 3. best-interest standard (of the PATIENT).
98
Ethics Rule #5
If patient is incompetent, physician should rely on advance directives (undocumented oral notification is ENOUGH).
99
Ethics Rule #6
Feed tube is a medical treatment and can be withdrawn at the patient's request.
100
Ethics Rule #7
Don't do anything to actively help the patient die sooner (this is NOT the same as not treating; being passive at patient's quest is OKAY). Maximal pain relief short of killing the patient.
101
Ethics rule #8
The physician determines when the patient is dead (futile treatment).
102
Clinical definition of death
Flat line brain EEG over a period of 24 hours.
103
Ethics rule #9
NEVER ABANDON A PATIENT. Don't ever threaten abandonment.
104
Ethics rule #10
Keep physician-patient relationship within bounds (no gifts, do not treat family or friends, don't date patient or their family).
105
Ethics rule #11
STOP HARM FROM HAPPENING. Stop harm to patients, but also stop patients from harming anyone else (CAN break confidentiality).
106
Ethics rule #12
Always obtain infomred consent (procedure, purpose, benefits, risks, alternatives). Never withold information on potential treatments to the patient. Patient must read AND understand fully for informed consent.
107
Ethics rule #13
Special rules apply with children; under 18 you are incompetent unless it pertains to STD treatment, substance abuse treatment, birth control, or prenatal care.
108
Ethics rule #14
Parents cannot withhold life or limb staving treatment from their children.
109
Ethics rule #15
Good Samaritan law limits liablity when physicians help at accidents; applies if you act in area of competence, accept NO compensation, stay until relieved, standard procedures.
110
Ethics rule #16
Confidentiality is ABSOLUTE. Only break confidentiality if: threat or harm to self or others, infectious disease is a threat.
111
Ethics rule #17
Patients should be given chance to state DNR orders, and physicians should ABSOLUTELY follow them.
112
Ethics rule #18
Committed mentally ill patients RETAIN THEIR RIGHTS. They have the right to refuse treatment (medication!)
113
Ethics rule #19
Courts committ, physicians detain. STOP HARM FROM HAPPENING (infectious disease, danger to others)
114
Ethics rule #20
The right answer isn't the minimum the law requires, it's the maximum that ethics demand.