Big Exam 3 Flashcards
(160 cards)
1
Q
A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when:
Select one:
A. signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours.
B. medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot.
C. a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage.
D. a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms.
A
D. a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms.
2
Q
Febrile seizures:
Select one:
A. are also referred to as absence seizures.
B. often result in permanent brain damage.
C. occur when a child’s fever rises slowly.
D. are usually benign but should be evaluated.
A
D. are usually benign but should be evaluated.
3
Q
Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the: Select one: A. liver. B. kidneys. C. pancreas. D. brain.
A
A. liver.
4
Q
The mental status of a patient who has experienced a generalized seizure:
Select one:
A. progressively worsens over a period of a few hours.
B. typically does not improve, even after several minutes.
C. is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes.
D. is easily differentiated from that of acute hypoglycemia.
A
C. is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes.
5
Q
The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the: Select one: A. cerebellum. B. cerebral cortex. C. brain stem. D. cerebrum.
A
C. brain stem.
6
Q
The spinal cord exits the cranium through the: Select one: A. cauda equina. B. vertebral foramen. C. foramen lamina. D. foramen magnum.
A
D. foramen magnum.
7
Q
When transporting a stable stroke patient with a paralyzed extremity, place the patient in a:
Select one:
A. sitting position with the head at a 45° to 90° angle.
B. supine position with the legs elevated 6 feet to 12 feet.
C. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down.
D. recumbent position with the paralyzed side up.
A
C. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down.
8
Q
Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure? Select one: A. Brain tumor B. Poisoning C. Head trauma D. Massive stroke
A
B. Poisoning
9
Q
You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should:
Select one:
A. instruct the patient to keep her eyes open and then repeat the arm drift test.
B. defer this part of the test and assess her for facial droop and slurred speech.
C. repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient’s arms into position yourself.
D. repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward.
A
C. repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient’s arms into position yourself.
10
Q
You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth, and has an oxygen saturation of 96%. You should:
Select one:
A. administer one tube of oral glucose and transport.
B. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask.
C. insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport.
D. suction her oropharynx and transport immediately.
A
D. suction her oropharynx and transport immediately.
11
Q
You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should:
Select one:
A. initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible.
B. perform CPR for 5 minutes before applying the AED.
C. assess the patient for a facial droop and hemiparesis.
D. obtain a blood glucose sample to rule out hypoglycemia.
A
A. initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible.
12
Q
You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes valproate (Depakote) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to administering oxygen, you should:
Select one:
A. place her in the recovery position and transport her with lights and siren.
B. administer one tube of oral glucose and prepare for immediate transport.
C. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level.
D. give her small cups of water to drink and observe for further seizure activity.
A
C. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level.
13
Q
You arrive at the residence of a 33-year-old woman who is experiencing a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. She has a small amount of vomitus draining from the side of her mouth. After protecting her from further injury, you should:
Select one:
A. place a bite block in between her teeth, apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and consider inserting a nasopharyngeal airway.
B. maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen.
C. restrain her extremities to prevent her from injuring herself, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, and assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
D. wait for the seizure to stop, manually open her airway, insert an oropharyngeal airway, and assess her oxygen saturation with the pulse oximeter.
A
B. maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen.
14
Q
Common signs and symptoms of severe hyperglycemia include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. cool, clammy skin. B. rapid, thready pulse. C. acetone breath odor. D. warm, dry skin.
A
A. cool, clammy skin.
15
Q
Ketone production is the result of:
Select one:
A. acidosis when blood glucose levels are low.
B. fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable.
C. blood glucose levels higher than 120 mg/dL.
D. rapid entry of glucose across the cell membrane.
A
B. fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable.
16
Q
Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is:
Select one:
A. compensating for decreased blood glucose levels.
B. attempting to eliminate acids from the blood.
C. trying to generate energy by breathing deeply.
D. severely hypoxic and is eliminating excess CO2.
A
B. attempting to eliminate acids from the blood.
17
Q
To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose?
Select one:
A. An unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin
B. A semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex
C. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor
D. A conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting
A
C. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor
18
Q
When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:
Select one:
A. presence of a medical identification tag.
B. patient’s mental status.
C. rate of the patient’s pulse.
D. rate and depth of breathing.
A
D. rate and depth of breathing.
19
Q
When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes, it would be MOST important to determine:
Select one:
A. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress.
B. if there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions.
C. the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin.
D. approximately how much water the patient drank that day.
A
A. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress.
20
Q
Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes? Select one: A. Weight loss and polyuria B. Total lack of appetite C. Low blood glucose level D. Weight gain and edema
A
A. Weight loss and polyuria
21
Q
You respond to a residence for a patient who is “not acting right.” As you approach the door, the patient, a 35-year-old male, begins shouting profanities at you and your partner while holding a baseball bat. The man is confused and diaphoretic, and is wearing a medical identification bracelet. You should:
Select one:
A. retreat at once and call law enforcement.
B. contact medical control for instructions.
C. calm him down so you can assess him.
D. be assertive and talk the patient down.
A
A. retreat at once and call law enforcement.
22
Q
A 25-year-old man overdosed on heroin and is unresponsive. His breathing is slow and shallow and he is bradycardic. He has track marks on both arms. The EMT should:
Select one:
A. insert a nasal airway and ventilate with a BVM.
B. position the patient on his side and transport.
C. administer naloxone via the intranasal route.
D. administer naloxone via the intramuscular route.
A
A. insert a nasal airway and ventilate with a BVM.
23
Q
Activated charcoal may be indicated for a patient who ingested: Select one: A. methanol. B. aspirin. C. ethanol. D. iron.
A
B. aspirin.
24
Q
Airborne substances should be diluted with: Select one: A. oxygen. B. an alkaline antidote. C. syrup of ipecac. D. activated charcoal.
A
A. oxygen.
25
```
Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Fructose.
B. LiquiChar.
C. Actidose.
D. InstaChar.
```
A. Fructose.
26
```
Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include:
Select one:
A. slurred speech.
B. hypotension.
C. tachycardia.
D. hypothermia.
```
C. tachycardia.
27
```
The major side effect associated with administration of activated charcoal is:
Select one:
A. headache.
B. black stools.
C. abdominal pain.
D. ringing in the ears.
```
B. black stools.
28
You are dispatched to a local nursery for a 39-year-old female who is sick. When you arrive, you find the patient lying on the floor. She is semiconscious, has copious amounts of saliva coming from her mouth, and is incontinent of urine. You quickly feel her pulse and note that it is very slow. Immediate management for this patient should include:
Select one:
A. assisted ventilation with a BVM.
B. thoroughly suctioning her oropharynx.
C. requesting a paramedic to give her atropine.
D. performing a rapid secondary assessment.
B. thoroughly suctioning her oropharynx.
29
You respond to a college campus for a young male who is acting strangely. After law enforcement has secured the scene, you enter the patient's dorm room and find him sitting on the edge of the bed; he appears agitated. As you approach him, you note that he has dried blood around both nostrils. He is breathing adequately, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is 200/110 mm Hg. Treatment for this patient includes:
Select one:
A. asking law enforcement to place handcuffs on the patient.
B. assisting his ventilations with a bag-valve mask device.
C. attempting to calm him and giving him oxygen if tolerated.
D. requesting a paramedic to administer naloxone (Narcan).
C. attempting to calm him and giving him oxygen if tolerated.
30
```
Your paramedic partner administers atropine to a 49-year-old male with bradycardia. Which of the following side effects would you expect the patient to experience?
Select one:
A. A fall in blood pressure
B. Pupillary constriction
C. Excessive lacrimation
D. Dry mucous membranes
```
D. Dry mucous membranes
31
```
Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is to:
Select one:
A. obtain and maintain a patent airway.
B. decontaminate the patient's skin.
C. move the patient to a safe area.
D. avoid contaminating yourself.
```
D. avoid contaminating yourself.
32
```
____________ is what you can see of a person's response to the environment.
Select one:
A. Behavior
B. Affect
C. Neurosis
D. Psychosis
```
A. Behavior
33
A 66-year-old male presents with bizarre behavior. His daughter states that he did not seem to recognize her and was very rude to her. The patient is conscious, and has a patent airway and adequate breathing. You should:
Select one:
A. advise the patient that his behavior is unacceptable.
B. ask the daughter how her father normally behaves.
C. carefully restrain the patient and transport at once.
D. conclude that the patient has Alzheimer disease.
B. ask the daughter how her father normally behaves.
34
A patient with a history of schizophrenia called EMS because he was experiencing abdominal pain. When law enforcement arrived, the patient became violent, necessitating the placement of handcuffs. When you assess the patient, he tells you that killing someone will make his abdominal pain go away. His vital signs are stable. How should you manage this situation?
Select one:
A. Transport the patient in a prone position on the stretcher
B. Refuse to transport the patient because of his homicidal threat
C. Request that a police officer transport him to the hospital
D. Request a police officer to accompany you in the ambulance
D. Request a police officer to accompany you in the ambulance
35
General guidelines for managing a patient with a behavioral emergency include:
Select one:
A. allowing the patient to be alone if he or she wishes.
B. firmly identifying yourself as an EMS provider.
C. placing the patient between yourself and an exit.
D. being prepared to spend extra time with the patient.
D. being prepared to spend extra time with the patient.
36
In addition to ensuring his or her own safety, the EMT's responsibility when caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency is to:
Select one:
A. determine the underlying cause of the problem and offer advice.
B. diffuse and control the situation and safely transport the patient.
C. transport the patient directly to a specialized psychiatric facility.
D. diagnose the patient's problem and provide definitive treatment.
B. diffuse and control the situation and safely transport the patient.
37
Organic brain syndrome is defined as:
Select one:
A. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function.
B. bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain.
C. a change in behavior or mental status secondary to decreased cerebral blood flow.
D. a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ.
A. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function.
38
```
The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to:
Select one:
A. take vital signs.
B. ensure your safety.
C. obtain proper consent.
D. restrain the patient.
```
B. ensure your safety.
39
When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should:
Select one:
A. be direct and clearly state your intentions.
B. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety.
C. frisk the patient for the presence of weapons.
D. spend as little time with the patient as possible.
A. be direct and clearly state your intentions.
40
```
Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse?
Select one:
A. Alcohol withdrawal
B. Dimly lit environment
C. Limited physical contact
D. Elevated blood glucose
```
A. Alcohol withdrawal
41
```
You are assessing a conscious 55-year-old male with a sudden change in behavior. Which of the following clinical findings would be MOST suggestive of dysfunction of this patient's central nervous system?
Select one:
A. An irregular pulse
B. Consistent eye contact
C. Excessive tearing or crying
D. Rapid eye movement
```
D. Rapid eye movement
42
A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer high-flow oxygen and give him epinephrine via intramuscular injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should:
Select one:
A. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack.
B. transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route.
C. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control.
D. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away.
C. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control.
43
```
A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient's present condition is:
Select one:
A. a ruptured aortic aneurysm.
B. acute myocardial infarction.
C. severe septic hypoperfusion.
D. cardiogenic hypoperfusion.
```
D. cardiogenic hypoperfusion.
44
```
Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. cool and clammy skin.
B. restlessness or anxiety.
C. rapid, shallow breathing.
D. absent peripheral pulses.
```
D. absent peripheral pulses.
45
Neurogenic shock occurs when:
Select one:
A. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container.
B. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.
C. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging.
D. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.
B. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.
46
Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock?
Select one:
A. Widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection
B. Bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation
C. Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation
D. Viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstriction
C. Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation
47
Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct?
Select one:
A. Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure.
B. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen.
C. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.
D. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure.
C. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.
48
You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to:
Select one:
A. determine if she was injured when she fainted.
B. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history.
C. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital.
D. provide emotional support regarding her sister.
A. determine if she was injured when she fainted.
49
```
You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should:
Select one:
A. reassess his condition in 5 minutes.
B. repeat your secondary assessment.
C. arrange for an ALS rendezvous.
D. take his vital signs in 15 minutes.
```
A. reassess his condition in 5 minutes.
50
You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should:
Select one:
A. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.
B. apply direct pressure to the wound.
C. assess the rate and quality of his pulse.
D. immediately evaluate his airway.
B. apply direct pressure to the wound.
51
```
Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to:
Select one:
A. administer high-flow oxygen.
B. ventilate her with a bag-valve mask.
C. check her airway for obstructions.
D. move her to the ambulance stretcher.
```
C. check her airway for obstructions.
52
Bacterial vaginosis is a condition that occurs when:
Select one:
A. numerous bacteria enter the uterus through the cervix and cause severe tissue damage.
B. normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms.
C. abnormal bacteria enter the vagina and cause damage without causing any symptoms.
D. harmful bacteria infect and cause damage to the uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes.
B. normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms.
53
```
Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the:
Select one:
A. fallopian tube.
B. vagina.
C. uterus.
D. cervix.
```
A. fallopian tube.
54
```
If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT should assume that she:
Select one:
A. is in shock.
B. has an ectopic pregnancy.
C. has an infection.
D. is pregnant.
```
A. is in shock.
55
```
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the:
Select one:
A. fallopian tubes.
B. ovaries.
C. urinary bladder.
D. uterus.
```
C. urinary bladder.
56
```
The onset of menstruation usually occurs in women who are:
Select one:
A. between 11 and 16 years of age.
B. between 8 and 10 years of age.
C. between 25 and 28 years of age.
D. between 18 and 23 years of age.
```
A. between 11 and 16 years of age.
57
When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she:
Select one:
A. ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant.
B. has obtained a complete set of vital signs.
C. has gathered patient history information.
D. has formed a general impression of the patient.
C. has gathered patient history information.
58
When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT's main focus should be to:
Select one:
A. keep assessment and treatment to a minimum.
B. maintain her ABCs and transport without delay.
C. ask questions related to her gynecologic history.
D. determine the underlying cause of her problem.
B. maintain her ABCs and transport without delay.
59
Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be:
Select one:
A. given the option of being treated by a female EMT.
B. thoroughly assessed, even if no signs of injury exist.
C. encouraged to take a shower and change her clothes.
D. asked to provide a brief description of the perpetrator.
A. given the option of being treated by a female EMT.
60
Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Select one:
A. Pain around the umbilicus, low-grade fever, and generalized weakness
B. Lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge
C. Upper abdominal cramping, severe headache, and heavy vaginal bleeding
D. Left lower quadrant pain, referred pain to the left shoulder, and fever
B. Lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge
61
Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is correct?
Select one:
A. Most men who are infected with gonorrhea do not experience symptoms.
B. Symptoms of gonorrhea usually appear within 3 months of being infected.
C. Painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in both men and women.
D. Mild infections with gonorrhea cause abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever.
C. Painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in both men and women.
62
Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct?
Select one:
A. Rape is a legal diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis.
B. The EMT should try to determine if rape occurred.
C. Only a licensed physician can make a diagnosis of rape.
D. Rape causes more physical harm than emotional harm.
A. Rape is a legal diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis.
63
```
Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause:
Select one:
A. nausea or vomiting.
B. diffuse bruising.
C. referred pain.
D. distention.
```
D. distention.
64
```
Assuming that no obvious signs of intra-abdominal injury are present, which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause an injury to the liver or spleen to be overlooked?
Select one:
A. Femur fracture
B. Lumbar spine fracture
C. Pelvic fracture
D. Shoulder fracture
```
D. Shoulder fracture
65
```
Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the:
Select one:
A. stomach.
B. liver.
C. spleen.
D. kidney.
```
B. liver.
66
```
Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called:
Select one:
A. withdrawing.
B. flexing.
C. guarding.
D. referring.
```
C. guarding.
67
```
During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of:
Select one:
A. a severe liver laceration.
B. a ruptured spleen.
C. intra-abdominal bleeding.
D. rupture of a hollow organ.
```
C. intra-abdominal bleeding.
68
```
Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as:
Select one:
A. gross distention.
B. red areas of skin.
C. localized pain.
D. dark-purple marks.
```
B. red areas of skin.
69
Peritonitis usually occurs when:
Select one:
A. the vessels that supply the abdominal organs become inflamed.
B. solid abdominal organs bleed secondary to penetrating trauma.
C. hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents into the peritoneal cavity.
D. bacteria or viruses invade the walls of the gastrointestinal tract.
C. hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents into the peritoneal cavity.
70
The mesentery is:
Select one:
A. a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.
B. a layer of thick skeletal muscles that protects the abdominal organs.
C. a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver.
D. the point of attachment between the small and large intestines.
A. a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.
71
The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury:
Select one:
A. indicates a state of decompensated shock.
B. is always accompanied by hypotension.
C. is most commonly caused by severe pain.
D. should be assumed to be a sign of shock.
D. should be assumed to be a sign of shock.
72
When worn properly, a seatbelt should lie:
Select one:
A. across the abdominal wall at the level of the umbilicus and against the hip joints.
B. below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints.
C. across the abdominal wall at the level of the diaphragm and below the hip joints.
D. above the anterior posterior iliac spines of the pelvis and below the hip joints.
B. below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints.
73
```
A person's ability to shiver is lost when his or her body temperature falls below:
Select one:
A. 92°F (33°C).
B. 90°F (32°C).
C. 95°F (35°C).
D. 94°F (34°C).
```
B. 90°F (32°C).
74
```
Compared to adults, infants and children are at higher risk for hypothermia for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. a decreased ability to shiver.
B. a smaller amount of body fat.
C. a smaller overall muscle mass.
D. a relatively small surface area.
```
D. a relatively small surface area.
75
Heat loss from the body through respiration occurs when:
Select one:
A. the core body temperature is greater than 98°F (37°C).
B. cool air is inhaled and displaces warm air.
C. air temperature is greater than body temperature.
D. warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere.
D. warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere.
76
```
High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by:
Select one:
A. evaporation.
B. conduction.
C. radiation.
D. convection.
```
C. radiation.
77
```
Hypothermia can worsen internal bleeding secondary to:
Select one:
A. a decreased heart rate.
B. blood-clotting abnormalities.
C. cardiac arrhythmias.
D. severe muscular rigidity.
```
B. blood-clotting abnormalities.
78
In order for sweating to be an effective cooling mechanism:
Select one:
A. it must be able to evaporate from the body.
B. several layers of clothing must be worn.
C. the body must produce at least 1 L per hour.
D. the relative humidity must be above 90%.
A. it must be able to evaporate from the body.
79
```
The body's natural protective mechanisms against heat loss are:
Select one:
A. respiration and vasoconstriction.
B. vasoconstriction and shivering.
C. vasodilation and respiration.
D. shivering and vasodilation.
```
B. vasoconstriction and shivering.
80
```
To assess a patient's general body temperature, pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand on his or her skin at the:
Select one:
A. forehead.
B. neck.
C. abdomen.
D. chest.
```
C. abdomen.
81
```
When the body loses sweat, it also loses:
Select one:
A. electrolytes.
B. erythrocytes.
C. plasma.
D. nutrients.
```
A. electrolytes.
82
```
Which of the following medications increases a person's risk of a heat-related emergency?
Select one:
A. Motrin
B. Tylenol
C. Diuretics
D. Aspirin
```
C. Diuretics
83
A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. You should:
Select one:
A. carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina.
B. place her in a left lateral recumbent position.
C. position her supine and elevate her legs 12 inches.
D. ventilate her with a bag-valve mask.
B. place her in a left lateral recumbent position.
84
Abruptio placenta occurs when:
Select one:
A. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.
B. the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening.
C. the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus.
D. a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage.
A. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.
85
An infant is considered to be premature if it:
Select one:
A. is born before 40 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 7 lb.
B. weighs less than 5.5 lb or is born before 37 weeks' gestation.
C. weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks' gestation.
D. is born before 38 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 6 lb.
C. weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks' gestation.
86
```
Fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. low birth weight.
B. premature delivery.
C. respiratory depression.
D. profound tachycardia.
```
D. profound tachycardia.
87
Following delivery of the placenta, the mother is experiencing vaginal bleeding. After massaging the uterine fundus and allowing the mother to breastfeed, the bleeding stops. This occurred because:
Select one:
A. a portion of the placenta was retained in the uterus.
B. these actions simulate the production of oxytocin and cause uterine contraction.
C. breastfeeding causes uterine blood vessels to dilate.
D. uterine massage increases blood flow to the uterus.
B. these actions simulate the production of oxytocin and cause uterine contraction.
88
In contrast to abruptio placenta, placenta previa:
Select one:
A. may not present with heavy vaginal bleeding.
B. may present without significant abdominal pain.
C. is caused by hypertension or abdominal trauma.
D. is typically associated with severe abdominal pain.
A. may not present with heavy vaginal bleeding.
89
Placenta previa is defined as:
Select one:
A. premature placental separation from the uterine wall.
B. development of the placenta over the cervical opening.
C. abnormal development and functioning of the placenta.
D. delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby.
B. development of the placenta over the cervical opening.
90
Spina bifida is a developmental defect in which:
Select one:
A. the spinal column is severely deformed, resulting in permanent paralysis.
B. an excessive amount of cerebrospinal fluid damages the spinal cord.
C. a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae.
D. nerve fibers that arise from the spinal cord do not function properly.
C. a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae.
91
The ONLY indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are:
Select one:
A. limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage.
B. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.
C. nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg.
D. vertex presentation and delivery of the placenta.
B. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.
92
The umbilical cord:
Select one:
A. contains two veins and one large umbilical artery.
B. separates from the placenta shortly after birth.
C. carries blood away from the baby via the artery.
D. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein.
D. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein.
93
Upon delivery of an infant's head, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck. You should:
Select one:
A. provide free-flow oxygen to the infant and transport.
B. give high-flow oxygen to the mother and transport.
C. attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head.
D. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord.
C. attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head.
94
Which of the following are normal physiologic changes that occur in the mother's respiratory system during pregnancy?
Select one:
A. Decreased respiratory rate and increased minute volume
B. Increased respiratory reserve and decreased oxygen demand
C. Increased respiratory depth and decreased respiratory rate
D. Increased respiratory rate and decreased respiratory reserve
D. Increased respiratory rate and decreased respiratory reserve
95
Which of the following is NOT generally considered an obstetrical emergency?
Select one:
A. Failure of the placenta to deliver after 30 minutes
B. Return of contractions following delivery of the baby
C. Significant bleeding after delivery of the placenta
D. More than 500 mL of blood loss before placental delivery
B. Return of contractions following delivery of the baby
96
Which of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is correct?
Select one:
A. The onset of gestational diabetes typically manifests with hypoglycemia.
B. Gestational diabetes results in permanent diabetes mellitus after delivery.
C. Diet and exercise are typically ineffective in controlling gestational diabetes.
D. In some cases, women with gestational diabetes require insulin injections.
D. In some cases, women with gestational diabetes require insulin injections.
97
Which of the following statements regarding suctioning of a newborn's mouth and oropharynx is correct?
Select one:
A. Newborns rapidly expel fluid from their lungs and do not require suctioning.
B. Suctioning is indicated prior to cutting the cord if respiratory distress is present.
C. If the head delivers facedown, the mouth and nose should be suctioned at once.
D. Suctioning should be performed on all newborns immediately following delivery.
B. Suctioning is indicated prior to cutting the cord if respiratory distress is present.
98
Which of the following statements regarding the placenta is correct?
Select one:
A. The placenta allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other products to transfer between the mother and fetus but does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus.
B. The placenta allows for the transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the mother and fetus but prevents most medications from passing between the mother and fetus.
C. The placental barrier consists of two layers of cells and allows the mother's blood that contains high concentrations of oxygen to directly mix with the blood of the fetus.
D. The placenta provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus and is expelled from the vagina about 30 minutes before the baby is born.
A. The placenta allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other products to transfer between the mother and fetus but does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus.
99
Which of the following statements regarding twins is correct?
Select one:
A. Twins are typically larger than single infants.
B. Most twins are born within 45 minutes of each other.
C. Fraternal twins have two cords coming from one placenta.
D. Identical twins are typically of different gender.
B. Most twins are born within 45 minutes of each other.
100
While examining a woman in labor, you see the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. You should:
Select one:
A. push the infant's head away from the cord.
B. carefully push the cord back into the vagina.
C. cover the umbilical cord with a dry dressing.
D. gently pull on the cord to facilitate delivery.
A. push the infant's head away from the cord.
101
```
You have just delivered a baby boy. His body is pink, but his hands and feet are blue. His heart rate is approximately 110 beats/min and his respirations are rapid and irregular. He has a weak cry when stimulated and resists attempts to straighten his legs. His Apgar score is:
Select one:
A. 8
B. 6
C. 7
D. 9
```
A. 8
102
You have just delivered a premature baby. Your assessment reveals that he is breathing adequately; however, his heart rate is 90 beats/min. You should:
Select one:
A. assess his skin color and give free-flow oxygen as needed.
B. clamp and cut the umbilical cord and keep him warm.
C. keep him warm and ventilate with a BVM.
D. begin chest compressions and reassess in 30 seconds.
C. keep him warm and ventilate with a BVM.
103
```
A 67-year-old female presents with difficulty breathing and chest discomfort that awakened her from her sleep. She states that she has congestive heart failure, has had two previous heart attacks, and has been prescribed nitroglycerin. She is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. Her blood pressure is 94/64 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Treatment for this patient includes:
Select one:
A. placing her in an upright position.
B. ventilations with a BVM.
C. nitroglycerin for her chest pain.
D. oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
```
A. placing her in an upright position.
104
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe:
Select one:
A. a severe decrease in perfusion caused by changes in heart rate.
B. the warning signs that occur shortly before a heart attack.
C. the exact moment that a coronary artery is completely occluded.
D. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia.
D. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia.
105
```
Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle:
Select one:
A. enters the systemic circulation.
B. has a high concentration of oxygen.
C. flows into the pulmonary arteries.
D. was received directly from the aorta.
```
C. flows into the pulmonary arteries.
106
Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by:
Select one:
A. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature.
B. a profound increase in the patient's heart rate.
C. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle.
D. hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting.
C. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle.
107
```
Common signs and symptoms of AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. shortness of breath or dyspnea.
B. irregular heartbeat.
C. sudden unexplained sweating.
D. pain exacerbated by breathing.
```
D. pain exacerbated by breathing.
108
In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm:
Select one:
A. is typically preceded by other symptoms, such as nausea.
B. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset.
C. usually presents gradually, often over a period of hours.
D. is more commonly associated with pressure in the chest.
B. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset.
109
Ischemic heart disease is defined as:
Select one:
A. death of a portion of the heart muscle due to a decrease in oxygen.
B. absent myocardial blood flow due to a blocked coronary artery.
C. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium.
D. decreased blood flow to the heart muscle due to coronary dilation.
C. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium.
110
```
Major risk factors for AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. hypertension.
B. diabetes mellitus.
C. hypoglycemia.
D. elevated cholesterol.
```
C. hypoglycemia.
111
```
A 40-year-old patient without a history of seizures experiences a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. The LEAST likely cause of this seizure is:
Select one:
A. brain tumor
B. epilepsy
C. a serious infection
D. intracranial bleeding
```
B. epilepsy
112
A patient who is experiencing aphasia is:
Select one:
A. usually conscious but has slurred speech.
B. experiencing a right hemispheric stroke.
C. not able to swallow without choking.
D. unable to produce or understand speech.
D. unable to produce or understand speech.
113
```
A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she:
Select one:
A. has had a prior heart attack.
B. has bleeding within the brain.
C. is older than 60 years of age.
D. has a GCS score that is less than 8.
```
B. has bleeding within the brain.
114
A patient with an altered mental status is:
Select one:
A. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.
B. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events.
C. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli.
D. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus.
A. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.
115
```
Components of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale include:
Select one:
A. arm drift, memory, and grip strength.
B. speech, pupil reaction, and memory.
C. facial droop, speech, and pupil size.
D. arm drift, speech, and facial droop.
```
D. arm drift, speech, and facial droop.
116
```
Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:
Select one:
A. brain stem.
B. cerebral cortex.
C. cerebellum.
D. cerebrum.
```
C. cerebellum.
117
Status epileptics is characterized by:
Select one:
A. profound tachycardia and total muscle flaccidity.
B. an absence seizure that is not preceded by an aura.
C. generalized seizures that last less than 5 minutes.
D. prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness.
D. prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness.
118
```
The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:
Select one:
A. diabetes mellitus.
B. heavy exertion.
C. hypertension.
D. severe stress.
```
C. hypertension.
119
When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should:
Select one:
A. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side.
B. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.
C. observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes.
D. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down.
B. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.
120
```
When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for:
Select one:
A. a seizure.
B. an acute stroke.
C. a febrile convulsion.
D. respiratory distress.
```
A. a seizure.
121
```
Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured aneurysm?
Select one:
A. Sudden, severe headache
B. Nasal discharge of blood
C. Unilateral hempiaresis
D. Confusion and weakness
```
A. Sudden, severe headache
122
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain?
Select one:
A. Blocked cereal artery in the frontal lobe
B. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest
C. Reduced bloody supply to the left hemisphere
D. Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe
B. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest
123
```
Which of the following findings should concern the EMT the MOST when assessing a patient who complains of a headache?
Select one:
A. History of migraines
B. Slow onset of symptoms
C. Sinus congestion
D. Neck stiffness or pain
```
D. Neck stiffness or pain
124
```
Which of the following is characteristic of a focal-onset aware seizure?
Select one:
A. No change in vision, smell, or taste
B. Generalized twitching of all muscles
C. Absence of breathing
D. Normal level of consciousness
```
D. Normal level of consciousness
125
```
Which of the following MOST accurately described the cause of an ischemic stroke?
Select one:
A. Narrowing of a carotid artery
B. Blockage of a cerebral artery
C. Acute atherosclerotic disease
D. Rupture of a cerebral artery
```
B. Blockage of a cerebral artery
126
```
A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect:
Select one:
A. strangulated hernia.
B. acute pancreatitis.
C. aortic aneurysm.
D. kidney stones.
```
C. aortic aneurysm.
127
A strangulated hernia is one that:
Select one:
A. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs.
B. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention.
C. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours.
D. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.
D. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.
128
Chronic renal failure is a condition that:
Select one:
A. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.
B. causes dehydration from excessive urination.
C. occurs from conditions such as dehydration.
D. can be reversed with prompt treatment.
A. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.
129
```
Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who:
Select one:
A. have uncontrolled diabetes.
B. consume a lot of alcohol.
C. have weak immune systems.
D. have a history of esophagitis.
```
B. consume a lot of alcohol.
130
```
Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and lack of appetite are MOST indicative of:
Select one:
A. appendicitis.
B. cholecystitis.
C. pancreatitis.
D. gastroenteritis.
```
A. appendicitis.
131
```
Solid abdominal organs include the:
Select one:
A. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas.
B. stomach and small intestine.
C. urinary bladder, colon, and ureters.
D. gallbladder and large intestine.
```
A. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas.
132
The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by:
Select one:
A. removing sodium and water from the body.
B. eliminating toxic waste products from the body.
C. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium.
D. accommodating a large amount of blood volume.
A. removing sodium and water from the body.
132
The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by:
Select one:
A. removing sodium and water from the body.
B. eliminating toxic waste products from the body.
C. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium.
D. accommodating a large amount of blood volume.
A. removing sodium and water from the body.
133
```
The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is:
Select one:
A. severe pain.
B. peritonitis.
C. internal bleeding.
D. high fever.
```
B. peritonitis.
134
```
The parietal peritoneum lines the:
Select one:
A. walls of the abdominal cavity.
B. lungs and chest cavity.
C. surface of the abdominal organs.
D. retroperitoneal space.
```
A. walls of the abdominal cavity.
135
```
The principal symptom in both infectious and noninfectious gastroenteritis is:
Select one:
A. high fever.
B. dysuria.
C. vomiting.
D. diarrhea.
```
D. diarrhea.
136
```
Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men?
Select one:
A. Cystitis
B. Cholecystitis
C. Hepatitis
D. Pancreatitis
```
A. Cystitis
137
```
Which of the following organs assist in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies?
Select one:
A. Pancreas
B. Kidneys
C. Spleen
D. Liver
```
C. Spleen
138
```
Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space?
Select one:
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Spleen
D. Gallbladder
```
B. Pancreas
139
Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?
Select one:
A. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.
B. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.
C. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated.
D. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver.
A. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague or poorly localized.
140
```
Your patient's past medical history includes hypertension, congestive heart failure, diabetes, and seizures. Today, he presents with signs of acute renal failure. Which of his medical problems MOST likely caused this?
Select one:
A. Hypertension
B. Heart failure
C. Diabetes
D. Seizures
```
B. Heart failure
141
```
A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing:
Select one:
A. dysphagia.
B. dysphasia.
C. aphasia.
D. dysarthria.
```
D. dysarthria.
142
```
Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke?
Select one:
A. A postictal state
B. Hypovolemia
C. Intracranial bleeding
D. Hypoglycemia
```
B. Hypovolemia
143
Which of the following MOST accurately describes a focal-onset aware seizure?
Select one:
A. A seizures that begins in one extremity
B. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura
C. A generalized seizure without incontinence
D. A seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly
A. A seizure that begins in one extremity
144
```
A 35-year-old obese woman is complaining of localized pain in the upper right quadrant with referred pain to the right shoulder. The MOST likely cause of her pain is:
Select one:
A. acute cystitis.
B. acute cholecystitis.
C. pancreatitis.
D. appendicitis.
```
B. acute cholecystitis.
145
```
A 50-year-old man with diabetes has an altered mental status and is unable to tell you when he last ate or took his insulin. Your glucometer keeps malfunctioning and you are unable to determine his blood glucose level. Which of the following clinical signs would MOST likely lead you to the correct diagnosis?
Select one:
A. Hypotension and tachycardia
B. Deep and rapid breathing
C. Restlessness and irritability
D. Rapid and weak pulse
```
B. Deep and rapid breathing
146
```
A 75-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain snd a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing:
Select one:
A. hyperglycemia.
B. an acute stroke.
C. a heart attack.
D. hypoglycemia.
```
C. a heart attack.
147
```
Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines?
Select one:
A. Albuterol (Ventolin)
B. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
D. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
```
B. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
148
```
Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include:
Select one:
A. adrenaline and histamines.
B. leukocytes and epinephrine.
C. the bee venom itself.
D. histamines and leukotrienes.
```
D. histamines and leukotrienes.
149
A 4-year-old, 15-kg male ingested an unknown quantity of acetaminophen (Tylenol). The child's mother states that she does not know when the ingestion occurred. The child is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. The EMT should:
Select one:
A. give the child milk to absorb the Tylenol.
B. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen.
C. contact medical control for guidance.
D. administer 15 g of activated charcoal.
D. administer 15 g of activated charcoal.
150
Law enforcement personnel request your assistance for a 30-year-old man who was pulled over for erratic driving. The patient became actively violent while he was being questioned, which required one of the officers to subdue him with a taser. When you arrive and assess the patient, you find that he is very agitated and is experiencing apparent hallucinations. His skin is flushed and diaphoretic. You should:
Select one:
A. recognize that he is experiencing a complex psychiatric crisis, quickly load him into the ambulance, and transport without delay.
B. suspect that he is acutely hypoglycemic, consider giving him one tube of oral glucose, and transport with lights and siren.
C. quickly rule out any life-threatening conditions and then perform a detailed secondary assessment as he is being restrained.
D. limit physical contact with the patient as much as possible and avoid interrupting him if he is attempting to communicate with you.
D. limit physical contact with the patient as much as possible and avoid interrupting him if he is attempting to communicate with you.
151
```
When a driver is in a car equipped with an airbag, but is not wearing a seatbelt, he or she will MOST likely strike the ________ when the airbag deploys upon impact.
Select one:
A. dashboard
B. steering wheel
C. door
D. windshield
```
C. door
152
```
During your assessment of a patient with a head injury, you note that he opens his eyes when you pinch his trapezius muscle, is mumbling, and has his arms curled in toward his chest. You should assign him a GCS score of:
Select one:
A. 8
B. 7
C. 9
D. 10
```
B. 7
153
```
Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during:
Select one:
A. frontal collisions.
B. rollover collisions.
C. lateral collisions.
D. rear-end collisions.
```
C. lateral collisions.
154
```
All of the following should be addressed during the primary assessment except:
Select one:
A. severe hemorrhage.
B. airway obstruction.
C. capillary bleeding.
D. slow, shallow breathing.
```
C. capillary bleeding.
155
You arrive at the home of a 50-year-old female with severe epistaxis. As you are treating her, it is most important to recall that:
Select one:
A. the patient might be significantly hypertensive.
B. many medications interfere with blood clotting.
C. the patient is at risk for vomiting and aspiration.
D. a detailed exam is needed to determine the cause.
C. the patient is at risk for vomiting and aspiration.
156
```
A 21-year-old male was working in auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, the patient has burns that cover ____ of his body surface area.
Select one:
A. 18%
B. 36%
C. 27%
D. 45%
```
A. 18%
157
```
According to the rule of palm method for estimating the extent of a patient's burns, the palm of the patient's hand is equal to ____ of his or her total body surface area.
Select one:
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 4%
D. 6%
```
A. 1%
158
During an altercation in a bar, two patrons got into a fist fight. The first patient, a 44-year-old female, was struck in the mouth and refuses EMS care. The second patient, a 39-year-old female, has a small laceration to her left knuckle and also refuses EMS care. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is correct?
Select one:
A. The patient struck in the mouth should be immobilized.
B. The 39-year-old female is at high risk for infection.
C. The 44-year-old female is at high risk for infection.
D. You should contact the police and have the patients arrested.
B. The 39-year-old female is at high risk for infection.
159
```
A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. On the basis of this patient/s clinical presentation, you should suspect that she:
Select one:
A. is significantly hyperglycemic.
B. has a low blood glucose level.
C. has urinary tract infection.
D. has overdosed on her insulin.
```
A. is significantly hyperglycemic.
