BIO 100 Flashcards
(302 cards)
1
Q
Define BIO 100
A
General Biology for Non-Majors. An introductory course emphasizing the processes of science and the fundamentals of biology. Includes a basic introduction to molecules, cells and metabolism, the flow of genetic information, evolutionary theory, and ecological processes. Connects life science concepts to the understanding of everyday concerns such as human health.
2
Q
Course Learning Outcomes
A
• Be able to explain the major characteristics of science and recognize the difference between
scientific vs. non-scientific ideas.
• Be able to understand and implement basic scientific methodology
3
Q
Bias in an experiment can occur when (LO6)
A) a researcher randomly assigns subjects to the control or experimental group.
B) a technician knows which samples are from the control group.
C) subject finds out the results of the experiment after it is finished.
D) subject does not know who is in the control or experimental groups.
A
B
4
Q
Correlations are less convincing than controlled experimental results because correlations (LO7)
A) do not eliminate as many alternative hypotheses as experimental results.
B) cannot be statistically significant.
C) are subject to greater bias than experimental results.
D) cannot be observed outside the laboratory.
A
A
5
Q
Which of the following is a sign that scientific information on a website may be unreliable? (LO10)
A) The site is set up to allow you to buy the product being described.
B) The site avoids anecdotal evidence.
C) A reputable medical establishment maintains the site.
D) The site backs up its claims with references to primary sources.
A
A
6
Q
There is a strong correlation between stress and susceptibility to colds. This means that (LO7)
A) people with high stress must come into contact with more cold viruses.
B) stress must directly cause susceptibility to colds.
C) a high susceptibility to colds must directly cause stress.
D) stress might or might not affect susceptibility to colds.
A
D
7
Q
A news report on CNN that describes recently published research on a new treatment for colds is an example of a(n) (LO9)
A) peer-reviewed report.
B) anecdote.
C) secondary source.
D) primary source.
A
C
8
Q
Which of the following situations has the greatest potential for observer bias in an experimental process? (LO6)
A) Ms. Bradley is an outside consultant who is conducting a health and wellness survey for a pharmaceutical company. She does not know the name of the company nor does she know the name of the drug being tested during the survey.
B) Dr. Jones is evaluating cancer patients for their responses to a new therapeutic drug. She knows which patients are receiving the placebo and which are receiving the drug.
C) Mr. Bromley is conducting a survey of weight loss for his professor. He asks each student in the study the same questions.
D) Dr. Postgate is analyzing biopsy samples from rats that have been given either a placebo or an experimental drug believed to reduce inflammation. Each sample is identified by a code number so that Dr. Postgate cannot tell which treatment the rats received.
A
B
9
Q
A scientific theory is (LO2)
A) an explanation supported by a very large amount of experimental evidence.
B) any testable explanation for a question or problem.
C) little more than an educated guess.
D) an explanation that cannot be modified in light of new experimental evidence.
A
A
10
Q
The most trustworthy source of scientific information is (LO9)
A) peer-reviewed research publications.
B) science reports in newspapers and on TV.
C) anecdotal evidence.
D) paid advertisements.
A
A
11
Q
Why are hypotheses never accepted as proven true by scientists? (LO4)
A) Experimentation cannot support a hypothesis because it only tests predictions.
B) Hypotheses change every time a new experiment is conducted.
C) A hypothesis cannot ever be true or false because it is an opinion.
D) Alternative hypotheses might provide a better answer to the research question.
A
D
12
Q
Which of the following would be a control in an experiment testing the prediction that a certain drug prevents cataracts in females over the age of 65? (LO5)
A) alternative drugs that are suspected to prevent cataracts
B) male subjects
C) female subjects younger than 65
D) female subjects over 65 that are given placebos
A
D
13
Q
Which of the following statements is a testable scientific hypothesis? (LO1)
A) Smoking makes people less attractive.
B) Antioxidants from food are better than antioxidants from a vitamin pill.
C) Eating fish reduces the chance of having a stroke.
D) Embryonic stem cell research will allow scientists to find a cure for diabetes.
A
C
14
Q
A statistically significant result is one that (LO8)
A) is unlikely due to chance.
B) has real-world importance but is not necessarily based on mathematical probability.
C) is likely due to chance differences between groups.
D) the media can report as valid but scientists must consider as unsupported by research.
A
A
15
Q
A scientific hypothesis has which of the following features? (LO1)
A) it is able to be proven true.
B) It is not based on observations.
C) It is falsifiable.
D) It is a theory about something.
A
C
16
Q
Suppose that a botanist is interested in the effect of light on plants. In an experiment she conducts, 50 individuals of a single species of flowering plant are grown for 60 days under different lengths of artificial daylight. The plant species has flowers that can be either white or pink, depending on the genetics of the parent plants. The amount of water and fertilizer provided to each plant is constant. At the end of the experiment, the size of each leaf of every plant is measured. The dependent variable in this experiment is the (LO5)
A) duration of artificial daylight.
B) flower’s color.
C) duration of the experiment.
D) leaf’s size.
A
D
17
Q
If an inductively reasoned hypothesis makes sense, based on all available and historical observations, then (LO3)
A) the hypothesis cannot possibly be true.
B) the hypothesis might be false.
C) experimentation is not necessary.
D) the hypothesis must be true.
A
B
18
Q
Deductive reasoning is used to make ________ based on a hypothesis. (LO3)
A) correlations
B) statistical tests
C) predictions
D) data
A
C
19
Q
Consider this hypothesis: “Drinking Echinacea tea reduces the duration and severity of colds.” Which of the following statements is the best prediction based on this hypothesis? (LO1)
A) If people with a cold drink Echinacea tea, then they will feel better sooner than people who don’t consume the tea.
B) If people with a cold drink Echinacea tea, then an ingredient in the tea will bind to cold viruses and destroy them.
C) If a person doesn’t drink Echinacea tea, then he or she will catch a cold very easily.
D) If people with a cold drink Echinacea tea, then the tea will reduce their stress, making them feel better.
A
A
20
Q
If the two means differ slightly between control and treatment groups, the difference is likely to be statistically significant only if (LO8)
A) the hypothesis is false.
B) The experimental result is not practically significant.
C) the sample size is very large.
D) the experimental result is practically significant.
A
C
21
Q
A researcher has hypothesized that the chemical tributyltin (an additive in boat paint) seeps out of the paint into the water and causes reproductive defects in developing marine snails. Which of the following would be a good control in an experiment that tests the effects of tributyltin on developing snails? (LO5)
A) Developing snails are kept in a dry tank to avoid exposure to contaminated water.
B) Developing snails are kept in a tank of water and exposed to boat paint that does not contain tributyltin.
C) Developing snails are kept in a tank of water and exposed to below-expected levels of tributyltin.
D) Developing snails are kept in a tank of water that has never been exposed to boat paint.
A
B
22
Q
Results from one test of a new drug are found to be statistically significant; therefore, the hypothesis (LO2)
A) should be tested again.
B) is called a theory.
C) is rejected.
D) is accepted as correct.
A
A
23
Q
What gas do plants release during photosynthesis? (LO5-5)
A) carbon dioxide
B) water vapor
C) oxygen
D) carbon monoxide
A
C
24
Q
How do scientists “know” the atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide that existed on Earth hundreds or thousands of years ago? (LO5-8)
A ) They measure it from erupting volcanoes, bubbling hot springs, and seeping hydrothermal vents.
B) They estimate it from the relative numbers of carbon-based life forms that existed over time.
C) They deduce it from the carbon dioxide content of fossil fuels.
D) They measure it from bubbles of gas trapped in Antarctic ice.
A
D
25
What happens when water is heated? (LO5-2)
A) Hydrogen atoms jump from one water molecule to another water molecule.
B) It's broken into hydrogen and oxygen atoms.
C) Hydrogen bonds between water molecules are broken.
D) New hydrogen bonds are created between water molecules.
C
26
What can happen to the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere? (LO5-5)
A) It can be converted to glucose by plants.
B) It can be converted into carbon monoxide by the oceans.
C) It can react with nitrogen to form fossil fuels.
D) It can be released into space from the atmosphere.
A
27
The greenhouse effect is most similar to (LO5-1)
A) heating up the air inside a car by parking it in the sun.
B) warming the air for a hot-air balloon with a propane burner.
C) growing plants in your office to reduce indoor air pollution.
D) burning kerosene in a heater to warm up the air inside a cold house.
A
28
An ecological footprint ___________. (LO16-5)
A) is equal to the size of a human population
B) is the position an individual holds in the ecological food chain
C) is often smaller than the actual land footprint of residences in a city
D) estimates the total land area required to support a particular person or human population
D
29
In summer, why is the air around a large body of water cooler than nearby inland areas? (LO16-1)
A) Water temperature changes slowly in response to solar irradiation when compared to the rate of temperature change of land surfaces.
B) It's not actually cooler; the breezes associated with the water only make it seem cooler.
C) Water temperature isn't affected by solar irradiation, whereas the temperature of land surfaces is affected.
D) Air molecules are farther away from each other over water, so they do not generate as much heat.
A
30
Which of the following statements about the greenhouse effect is true? (LO5-1)
A) The greenhouse effect is a dangerous phenomenon that should be stopped as soon as possible.
B) The greenhouse effect results from the presence of oxygen in the atmosphere.
C) Global warming is likely the result of a lessening of the greenhouse effect.
D) Most life on Earth relies upon the hospitable temperatures resulting from the greenhouse effect.
D
31
When all living organisms are included, ________ contain about 70% of the biomass found on Earth's land surface. (LO16-3)
A) forests
B) grasslands
C) deserts
D) tundras
A
32
The dry deserts of Nevada are most influenced by (LO16-2)
A) the hot desert sun.
B) the Pacific Ocean.
C) the rain shadow from a California mountain range.
D) overgrazing by livestock.
C
33
The process by which carbon dioxide and water are converted to glucose and oxygen is called (LO5-5)
A) photosynthesis.
B) cellular respiration.
C) glycolysis.
D) fermentation.
A
34
Which of the following is a true statement about carbon and the carbon cycle? (LO5-3)
A) Carbon is recycled among plants, animals, water, soil, and the atmosphere.
B) Carbon is recycled in a general sense, but once carbon dioxide is exhaled from animals, it can only enter the atmosphere, where it's trapped and adds to the greenhouse effect.
C) There is a one-way flow of carbon from volcanoes to plants to herbivores to carnivores and, finally, to the atmosphere.
D) Carbon dioxide (CO2) is the only carbon-containing compound involved in the carbon cycle.
A
35
Heat is a measure of (LO5-2)
A) the resistance to temperature change within a substance.
B) the rate that molecules are moving within a substance.
C) the total amount of energy associated with the movement of molecules in a substance.
D) the ability of a substance to transfer energy between its molecules.
C
36
What are fossil fuels? (LO5-4)
A) accumulations of partially decomposed dinosaurs
B) carbon-rich remains of plants and microorganisms
C) underground deposits of carbon dioxide
D) timber from old-growth forests
B
37
Which of the following biomes has a structure made up primarily of the remains of its dominant organisms? (LO16-4)
A) coral reefs
B) freshwater lakes
C) estuaries
D) rivers
A
38
Almost all scientists believe that the global warming observed over the past 100 years has been caused by elevated levels of gases in the atmosphere. Which of the following gases is primarily responsible for this problem? (LO5-8)
A) carbon dioxide
B) nitrous oxide
C) oxygen
D) ozone
A
39
Which of these is a fossil fuel? (LO5-4)
A) hydrogen gas
B) vegetable oil
C) wood
D) coal
D
40
During which process does water vapor move out of plant stomata? (LO5-6)
A) combustion
B) transpiration
C) condensation
D) evaporation
B
41
Where does most of the carbon dioxide released by human activities come from? (LO5-8)
A) burning wood for cooking fires
B) burning fossil fuels
C) decomposing garbage in landfills
D) exhaling (cellular respiration waste products)
B
42
Which of these emits carbon dioxide into the atmosphere? (LO5-3)
A) green plants
B) soil
C) water
D) volcanoes
D
43
Developed countries tend to have lower population growth rates and are characterized by (LO8)
A) industrial economies and low individual incomes.
B) industrial economies and high individual incomes.
C) agricultural economies and low individual incomes.
D) agricultural economies and high individual incomes
B
44
Which of the following is a density-independent factor? (LO6)
A) waste concentration in the environment
B) supply of suitable habitat for survival
C) food supply
D) weather
D
45
The principle of a carrying capacity corresponds to a pattern of population growth that's (LO5)
A) bell-shaped.
B) J-shaped.
C) logistic.
D) a straight line.
C
46
If everyone on the planet used resources and lived the average lifestyle of an American, then (LO8)
A) there would be same number of people in less-developed countries as there are Americans.
B) the population growth rate would immediately decrease.
C) the Earth would have the carrying capacity to sustain the human population.
D) we would need multiple Earths for this to be possible.
D
47
Exponential growth, when graphed, appears as a(n) (LO3)
A) straight line.
B) "S" curve.
C) "J" curve.
D) wavy line that goes up and down regularly.
C
48
When a population of spotted salamanders in an area of vernal pools remains stable for many years and the population has stabilized because of resource limits, then (LO5)
A) carrying capacity has been reached.
B) density dependence is not involved.
C) predation has decreased.
D) density independence occurs.
A
49
What is the birth rate in a population in which 35 babies are born per every 1000 people in the population each year? (LO4)
A) 35%
B) 0.35%
C) 3.5%
D) 0.35
C
50
A population has reached the carrying capacity of the environment when (LO5)
A) the food supply in that particular environment begins to decrease.
B) the environment can't support a further increase in the population.
C) it has entered an extended period of exponential growth.
D) the environment can't support the current population.
B
51
Which of the following projects would be conducted by an ecologist? (LO1)
A) a project to genetically modify a wheat plant in order to increase production
B) a research project testing new pollution filters for cars
C) observations of toad embryos' development in a Petri dish
D) a study of squirrels and their interactions with other animals
D
52
Which of the following is a nonrenewable resource? (LO7)
A) wind power
B) solar energy
C) natural gas
D) hydrogen fuel cell
C
53
When you look at the spacing of humans on a global level, the population follows a(n) ________ distribution. (LO1)
A) clumped
B) uniform
C) random
D) indescribable
A
54
When considering the growth of the human population, how is the annual growth rate determined? (LO4)
A) the number of deaths averaged over the population as a whole minus the number of births averaged over the population as a whole
B) the number of births averaged over the population as a whole minus the number of deaths averaged over the population as a whole
C) the number of births averaged over the population as a whole for the entire year
D) the number of births averaged over the population as a whole as well as the number of immigrants into the population during the year
B
55
Which of the following must be an assumption of the mark-recapture method? (LO2)
A) marked individuals avoid recapture, relative to unmarked individuals
B) marked individuals become "trap-happy," relative to unmarked individuals
C) few individuals enter or leave the study area during the period between mark and recapture
D) the population size changes dramatically between the time of mark and recapture
C
56
Increased mortality in a population due to increased competition for water is the effect of a(n) (LO6)
A) density-independent factor.
B) demographic transition.
C) increase in carrying capacity.
D) density-dependent factor.
D
57
Human populations may surpass the carrying capacity of their environment due to (LO7)
A) temporary reliance on stored or nonrenewable resources.
B) increases in death rates as the population growth approaches carrying capacity.
C) decreases in birth rates as resources are depleted.
D) sudden population crashes.
A
58
In some situations, the death rate of a population declines before the birth rate begins to decline. This is an example of (LO4)
A) a density-dependent factor in action.
B) what occurs in industrialized nations.
C) demographic transition.
D) the carrying capacity being reached.
C
59
An ecological population of organisms would include all (LO1)
A) chipmunks in a wood lot.
B) plants in a garden.
C) plants and animals in a rainforest.
D) animals in a zoo.
A
60
Students studying a population of salamanders in a vernal pool mark each salamander caught as it's entering the pool. During the first spring migration to the pool, the students mark 200 salamanders. The following year, they again capture 200 salamanders. Of these, 20 were from the previous year. Students use this information to calculate that they captured ________ of the total population and that the total salamander population in their pool is about ________. (LO2)
A) 10%; 2000
B) 20%; 2000
C) 20%; 200
D) 10%; 200
A
61
Approximately how many people are on Earth today? (LO3)
A) 700,000,000
B) 7,000,000,000
C) 70,000,000
D) 7,000,000
B
62
As the Industrial Revolution took place, there was a decrease in infant mortality, resulting in (LO4)
A) boom and bust cycles of the population growth rate.
B) a stabilization of the population growth rate.
C) an increase in the population growth rate.
D) a decrease in the population growth rate.
C
63
Which of the following is at the "bottom" of a trophic pyramid? (LO4)
A) secondary consumers
B) sunlight
C) primary consumers
D) producers
D
64
One advantage of preserving more than one population of an endangered species at more than one location is _______________. (LO8)
A) lower numbers of heterozygotes in each population
B) higher levels of inbreeding in each population
C) higher rates of genetic drift in each population
D) a lower risk of extinction of the entire species if a catastrophe strikes one population
D
65
During the 1980s, wolves were reintroduced to Yellowstone National Park after decades of absence due to attempted extermination in the early part of the 20th century. Within 20 years, not only had the wolf population increased, but there was also a dramatic increase in other species, such as aspen, cottonwood, and willow trees, beavers, warblers, insects, and fish. These changes in Yellowstone Park are examples of how important a(n) ________ can be to an ecosystem. (LO6)
A) herbivore
B) keystone species
C) competitor
D) parasite
B
66
Over the past 580 million years, biodiversity has (LO1)
A) rapidly increased until it started to rapidly decrease in the past hundred years or so.
B) smoothly and steadily increased until the past hundred years or so.
C) generally increased but with punctuations in the pattern.
D) smoothly and steadily increased.
C
67
The current rapid loss of species is considered by many scientists to be another mass extinction. This increase in extinction rate, beyond background extinction, is thought to be due to (LO2)
A) changes in the number of solar flares observed recently.
B) a recent increase in earthquakes worldwide.
C) global climate change.
D) human population growth and the resulting habitat changes worldwide.
D
68
Ants from the genus Pseudomyrmex live in bull's horn acacia trees, Acacia cornigera. The ants will attack any predators of the tree. In return, the ants live protected in the thorns of the tree and eat the nectar and protein-rich secretions of the tree. This is an example of (LO5)
A) commensalism.
B) competition.
C) mutualism.
D) parasitism.
C
69
Fenway Park, home of the Boston Red Sox, is situated on land that was once a fen, a kind of wetland. The replacement of the fen is an example of (LO2)
A) pollution.
B) habitat destruction.
C) competition.
D) overexploitation.
B
70
A graph depicting the relationship between the size of a region and the biodiversity that it can support is called a(n) ________ curve. (LO3)
A) overexploitation
B) habitat loss
C) biomass
D) species-area
D
71
Life on Earth has experienced several mass extinctions. One or more of these extinctions was most likely caused by (LO1)
A) an asteroid impact.
B) worldwide drought.
C) an increase in large predatory mammals.
D) genetic drift.
A
72
Teosinte is a wild grass in Mexico from which corn (maize) was originally domesticated. Corn that is grown commercially is probably (LO8)
A) more genetically diverse than teosinte.
B) less genetically diverse than teosinte.
C) a threat to teosinte populations.
D) about as genetically diverse as teosinte.
B
73
In the heart of Costa Rica there's a private reserve called Rara Avis. Here, one can hike high into the mountains of a tropical cloud forest to take guided nature hikes and learn about this unique ecosystem. This is an example of how habitats can be preserved through (LO9)
A) regulations.
B) ecotourism.
C) critical habitat designation.
D) exploitation.
B
74
When essential mineral nutrients pass through a food web, they are generally not lost from the environment. This is known as ____________________. (LO7)
A) an ecological niche
B) commensalism
C) nutrient cycling
D) competitive exclusion
C
75
According to the generalized species-area curve, when habitat is reduced by 50% of its original size, approximately ______ of the species once present there will be lost. (LO3)
A) 25%
B) 10%
C) 50%
D) 90%
B
76
Most of the energy contained in one trophic level is "lost" when it gets to the next trophic level. The lost energy takes the form of (LO4)
A) kinetic energy, in the motion of consumers.
B) metabolic heat.
C) potential energy, in chemical bonds.
D) free electrons.
B
77
The web of life refers to the ___________. (LO6)
A) flow of information from parent to child
B) complicated nature of genetic variability
C) connections between species in an ecosystem
D) evolutionary relationships among living organisms
C
78
The North Atlantic Right Whale, Eubalaena glacialis, was called the "right whale" because they were the best whale for early whalers to kill. They have long baleen and lots of blubber and oil. When killed, they could be towed back to land for processing because they float. They once numbered in the millions, but the entire population of the species is now less than 400. The history of the right whale is an example of (LO2)
A) pollution.
B) overexploitation.
C) habitat destruction.
D) competition.
B
79
What law was passed to address the problem of rapid species loss in the United States? (LO9)
A) the Human Intervention Act of 1979
B) the Biodiversity Act of 1975
C) the Wilson-Biophilia Act of 1994
D) the Endangered Species Act of 1973
D
80
All individuals of all species living within an area of interest represent a(n) (LO5)
A) community.
B) population.
C) trophic level.
D) ecosystem.
A
81
Scientists have used the fossil record to estimate the average length of time that a species inhabits the Earth. This estimate is useful for assessing the impact of humans on the Earth's biological diversity because it can (LO1)
A) estimate how many species extinctions are caused by human activity.
B) determine which species might become extinct soon, even if humans aren't involved.
C) assure us that human activity is not the cause of most species extinctions.
D) help determine how long the human species might survive.
A
82
Purple loosestrife, Lythrum salicaria, is a beautiful, long-stemmed wetlands species brought to the United States from Europe as an ornamental plant. In the United States, it has no predators and crowds out cattails, Typha latifolia, another wetlands plant that's a valuable resource for many species. Purple loosestrife is an example of (LO2)
A) a parasite.
B) a predator.
C) an introduced species.
D) overexploitation
C
83
In the equation N = 1000/R...as R gets larger, N ________.
A) gets smaller
B) gets larger
C) becomes zero
D) none of the answers is correct
A
84
Which of the following is/are within an order of magnitude of 175?
A) all of the answers are correct
B) 1500
C) 25
D) 570
A
85
How many orders of magnitude (factors of 10) are there from 2 to 2 million?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 9
C
86
What is the chance of flipping 3 heads in a row in a coin toss, assuming an equally weighted coin (not a trick coin)?
A) this cannot be calculated
B) none of the answers is correct
C) 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 = 3/2, or >100%
D) 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 = 1/8, or 12.5%
D
87
If there is a 50:50 chance of an event, then...
A) in 100 chances the event could never happen 25 times
B) there will be exactly 50 occurances in 100 chances
C) in 100 chances the event is likely to occur about half the time, but it could happen more than 50 times or less than 50 times
D) in 100 chances the event could never happen 75 times
C
88
What kind of bond holds two water molecules to each other? (LO4)
A) ionic bonds
B) hydrogen bonds
C) nonpolar covalent bonds
D) polar covalent bonds
B
89
An atom will be least likely to form chemical bonds with other atoms when (LO3)
A) the number of protons equals the number of neutrons.
B) the number of protons equals the number of electrons.
C) the valence shell is full of electrons.
D) there is only one electron in the valence shell.
C
90
The atomic number of an element refers to the number of ________ in one atom of that element. (LO3)
A) neutrons
B) protons
C) protons plus neutrons
D) electrons
B
91
Which organelle is represented by a network of membranes involved in the production and modification of proteins? (LO9)
A) lysosome
B) endoplasmic reticulum
C) nucleus
D) chloroplast
B
92
Which organelle contains digestive enzymes that degrade a variety of macromolecules? (LO9)
A) chloroplast
B) lysosome
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) mitochondrion
B
93
Carbon is the basis of organic chemistry and is an important element in biology because it (LO5)
A) can directly bond with up to four other atoms at the same time.
B) is the basis of the pH scale.
C) is so rare.
D) is the only type of atom found in proteins.
A
94
Enzymes are (LO6)
A) carbohydrates.
B) nucleic acids.
C) proteins.
D) lipids.
C
95
Which organelle performs photosynthesis? (LO9)
A) lysosome
B) mitochondrion
C) chloroplast
D) Golgi apparatus
C
96
Which organelle performs cellular respiration thereby providing most of the cell's ATP? (LO9)
A) mitochondrion
B) lysosome
C) Golgi apparatus
D) endoplasmic reticulum
A
97
Which of the following are found in the nucleus of an atom? (LO3)
A) neutrons, electrons, and protons
B) electrons and neutrons
C) protons and electrons
D) neutrons and protons
D
98
In general, what makes one kind of amino acid different from other amino acids? (LO6)
A) the type of bonds
B) the amino group
C) the carboxyl group
D) the side group
D
99
Which organelle is found in plant cells but not in animal cells? (LO9)
A) chloroplast
B) endoplasmic reticulum
C) centriole
D) mitochondrion
A
100
The plasma membrane of all cells is composed primarily of (LO8)
A) a layer of DNA
B) carbohydrates.
C) a double layer of protein
D) lipids (phospholipid bilayer with proteins in it)
D
101
Polysaccharides are carbohydrates, and are polymers of (LO6)
A) amino acids.
B) nucleotides.
C) fatty acids.
D) sugars.
D
102
What is the name for the ability of living things to maintain a relatively constant internal environment? (LO1)
A) cellular respiration
B) homeostasis
C) stimulus-response
D) metabolism
B
103
Because the electrons in a water molecule are shared unequally between hydrogen and oxygen, water is said to be (LO4)
A) hydrophobic.
B) ionic.
C) polar.
D) noncovalent.
C
104
Eukaryotic cells differ from prokaryotic cells in that (LO7)
A) only eukaryotic cells have a nucleus.
B) only eukaryotes are found on Earth
C) only eukaryotic cells contain genetic material.
D) only eukaryotic cells are considered to be alive
A
105
Which of the following has the lowest OH- concentration (or highest hydrogen ion concentration)? (LO2)
A) coffee
B) baking soda
C) battery acid
D) pure water
C
106
Proteins are polymers of (LO6)
A) nucleotides.
B) sugars.
C) fatty acids.
D) amino acids.
D
107
A solution with a pH of 2 has an H+ ion concentration that is ________ than a solution with a pH of 4. (LO2)
A) 100 times higher
B) 1000 times lower
C) 10 times lower
D) 2 times higher
A
108
Nutrients are substances in food and drink that provide ___________. (LO1)
A) water
B) structural materials or energy
C) energy only
D) structural materials only
B
109
Which of the following is an example of a food that is rich in complex carbohydrates? (LO3)
A) table sugar
B) pasta
C) margarine
D) cheese
B
110
Table salt provides the body with necessary sodium and chloride. However, too much salt could result in (LO4)
A) bone damage.
B) high blood pressure.
C) kidney stones.
D) muscle cramps.
B
111
Scurvy is a disease that is caused by a deficiency of what vitamin? (Hint, it is water soluble and cannot be made by the body) (LO4)
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B6
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin E
C
112
Table sugar (sucrose) belongs to which category of nutrients? (LO3)
A) proteins
B) carbohydrates
C) minerals
D) fats
B
113
Why is fiber an important part of a healthful human diet? (LO3)
A) It is easily digested into monosaccharides, which are used for energy.
B) It increases the amount of HDL and LDL cholesterol in the body.
C) It contains more energy, gram for gram, than any other nutrient.
D) It may decrease the risk of certain types of cancers.
D
114
Which of these foods is rich in antioxidants? (LO4)
A) corn syrup
B) sugar
C) processed foods
D) tomatoes
D
115
Which macronutrient is the major source of immediate energy for cell processes? (LO3)
A) fats
B) carbohydrates
C) proteins
D) water
B
116
Carbohydrates are an excellent source of energy for the body. If a candy bar and a pear contain an equal number of calories from carbohydrates, which is a healthier food and why? (LO3)
A) The pear is healthier because it contains more vitamins, minerals, and fiber.
B) The pear is healthier because it contains fewer chemical bonds that need to be broken in the digestive tract.
C) The candy bar is healthier because it contains simple sugars, which are easier for the body to get energy from.
D) Neither the candy bar nor the pear is better because they both contain the same number of calories.
A
117
Sunlight is required for the synthesis of (LO4)
A) cholesterol.
B) vitamin K.
C) vitamin D.
D) amino acids.
C
118
In general, the net movement of small, uncharged atoms and molecules through the membrane of a cell will occur until (LO6)
A) the cell shrinks to the point that it can't function properly.
B) all those atoms or molecules are on the same side of the membrane.
C) the concentration of a solute is equal on both sides of the membrane.
D) the cell grows so large that it can't hold any more material.
C
119
Trans-fatty acids, which are common in fast food, are a concern to nutritionists because they (LO3)
A) outcompete the enzymes needed for normal bodily functions.
B) decrease the availability of iron to bodily cells.
C) cannot be digested by the human body.
D) increase the incidence of clogged arteries.
D
120
Which food is most likely to contain all essential amino acids? (LO3)
A) rice
B) corn
C) carrots
D) beef
D
121
Tanya eats a vegan diet, which means that she does not eat any animal products. What would be a good source of calcium for Tanya? (LO4)
A) cheese
B) nuts
C) spinach
D) whole grains
C
122
What is a function of antioxidants? (LO4)
A) to allow the cell to maintain water balance
B) to prevent muscle cramps and weakness
C) to improve skin tone and fight acne
D) to decrease damage done to cells by free radicals
D
123
A deficiency of water in the body is called (LO2)
A) hypertension.
B) diffusion.
C) dehydration.
D) endocytosis.
C
124
What is a major difference between saturated and unsaturated fats? (LO3)
A) Unsaturated fats contain carbon-to-carbon double bonds, but saturated fats don't.
B) At room temperature, saturated fats are liquid and unsaturated fats are solid.
C) Unsaturated fats have a flat molecular structure, but saturated fats are kinked.
D) Saturated fat molecules are packed together loosely, but unsaturated fats are tightly packed.
A
125
In commercial food manufacturing, hydrogenation is used to (LO3)
A) make an unsaturated fat more saturated.
B) convert fatty acids into amino acids.
C) reduce the amount of "empty calories" in a carbohydrate.
D) convert vitamins into minerals.
A
126
Which kind of vitamins could build up to dangerous levels within the body? (LO4)
A) water-soluble
B) fat-soluble
C) all those found in supplements
D) those taken in the morning
B
127
Why are whole foods better for your health than processed foods? (LO1)
A) Whole foods have been refined to provide the highest possible calorie content.
B) Whole foods contain more sugars and less fiber, so they're more digestible than processed foods.
C) Processed foods don't contain all the vitamins and minerals found in whole foods.
D) Processed foods may contain antioxidants, which can cause disease.
C
128
Chemical work within cells is powered by (LO5)
A) CO2.
B) ATP.
C) NAD+.
D) NADPH.
B
129
Where does the carbon dioxide you exhale come from? (LO6)
A) anaerobic respiration
B) aerobic respiration
C) glycolysis
D) transpiration
B
130
How does ATP provide energy to a cell? (LO5)
A) It loses a phosphate group, releasing energy in the process.
B) It shuttles electrons across the mitochondrial membrane to create potential energy.
C) It releases electrons, which are a source of energy.
D) It releases protons, which are used in the mitochondrion to create energy.
A
131
Which of the following statements about basal metabolic rates among people is true? (LO4)
A) Gender and weight can affect basal metabolic rates.
B) Basal metabolic rate is dependant upon age and genetics.
C) all of the answers listed are true
D) A person's nutritional status can affect their basal metabolism.
C
132
Activation energy is similar to the "push" needed to start rolling a stalled car down a hill. How do enzymes fit into this analogy? (LO3)
A) Enzymes decrease the effort that's needed to start the car moving.
B) Enzymes decrease the distance the car needs to move to reach the bottom of the hill.
C) Enzymes increase the effort that's needed to start the car moving.
D) Enzymes increase the steepness of the hill that the car will roll down.
A
133
The proteins that catalyze chemical reactions in the body are called (LO2)
A) high-density lipoproteins (HDLs).
B) coenzymes.
C) enzymes.
D) antioxidants.
C
134
What happens to an ATP molecule after it has released a phosphate? (LO5)
A) It is secreted in urine as a waste product of cellular respiration.
B) It is phosphorylated and becomes ADP.
C) It becomes AMP and is recycled into proteins.
D) It is converted into lactic acid and transported to the liver for disposal.
B
135
Why isn't a BMI (Body Mass Index) a perfectly reliable way to estimate your health? (LO9)
A) It doesn't account for differences in muscle mass between individuals.
B) Your relative amount of body fat is not correlated with the risk of illness and death.
C) It considers your weight but not your height.
D) It considers your height but not your weight.
A
136
If necessary, our muscles can rely upon an anaerobic (fermentative) pathway to metabolize glucose, but this can only last a short period of time. Why can't our cells survive very long under such anaerobic conditions? (LO8)
A) The ethyl alcohol that builds up in muscles as a result of fermentation is a toxin.
B) Anaerobic conditions creates a "carbon dioxide debt" that needs to be repaid quickly before the cells die.
C) Lactic acid causes the cell to die when it's exposed to even lower concentrations.
D) Fermentation doesn't extract enough ATP from glucose to sustain our energy-craving cells.
D
137
Which of the following macromolecules can't be broken down in the body and used to produce ATP? (LO7)
A) proteins
B) fats
C) vitamins
D) carbohydrates
C
138
Which of the following is a "metabolic taxicab" that shuttles electrons? (LO6)
A) NADH
B) ADP
C) OAA
D) ATP
A
139
Which is a correct statement about diet, exercise, and disease? (LO9)
A) Increased exercise and a better diet can clear away all HDL and LDL cholesterol from blood vessels.
B) Heart attacks are due to factors such as a lack of diet and exercise but are not due to genetics.
C) Type II diabetes is a disorder that can't be controlled by a change in diet or exercise.
D) Hypertension is a major disease associated with lack of exercise and an unhealthy diet.
D
140
Why is oxygen needed in cellular respiration? (LO6)
A) Fermentation in muscle cells relies upon oxygen as an electron acceptor.
B) Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain.
C) Oxygen carries electrons from the citric acid cycle to the electron transport chain.
D) Oxygen combines with ADP to create ATP.
B
141
Ethanol and carbon dioxide are released from certain yeast cells during (LO8)
A) alcohol fermentation.
B) the electron transport chain.
C) the citric acid cycle.
D) glycolysis.
A
142
What would happen if activation energy barriers didn't exist? (LO3)
A) All chemical reactions in the body would proceed whether they were needed or not.
B) Coenzymes would not work, but enzyme function would not be affected.
C) Chemical reactions in the body would never occur.
D) Substrates would not bind properly to enzymes.
A
143
Why is a very low level of body fat unhealthy in young women? (LO9)
A) Reduced levels of body fat make a woman unable to expend any energy.
B) Women with very low body fat have an increased risk of developing diabetes.
C) Women with very low body fat have an increased risk of having very heavy menstrual bleeding.
D) Women need a certain amount of fat to maintain their fertility.
D
144
More ________ will not increase an individual's basal metabolic rate. (LO4)
A) muscle mass
B) caloric intake
C) exercise
D) testosterone
B
145
Which of the following is true regarding enzymes? (LO2)
A) Enzymes are "used up" during chemical reactions.
B) Enzymes are not affected by high heat, as proteins are.
C) Enzymes are not very specific.
D) Enzymes can be recycled and used over and over again.
D
146
Metabolism is (LO1)
A) the sum of all the chemical reactions occurring in the body.
B) the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius.
C) the activation energy needed to start a reaction.
D) the measurement of how much food a particular individual consumes.
A
147
Fats are composed of fatty acids and ________, which can both be metabolized for the production of ATP. (LO7)
A) glycerol
B) nucleic acids
C) monosaccharides
D) amino acids
A
148
During which phase of mitosis does the cytoplasm divide? (LO9)
A) telophase and cytokinesis
B) anaphase
C) metaphase
D) prophase
A
149
The term "semiconservative replication" refers to the fact that (LO6)
A) the mode of DNA replication is only tentatively described.
B) DNA is created from only four of nine available nucleotides.
C) the DNA molecule includes a parental strand and newly created DNA strand.
D) DNA is not just one strand but two complementary strands.
C
150
Crossing over and random alignment of chromosomes during meiosis essentially ensure that every gamete is __________________. (LO15)
A) carrying two coplies of every allele
B) always contains homologous chromosomes
C) diploid
D) genetically distinct
D
151
Cancer cells within which of the following biopsy samples would be the best indicator that the cancer has metastasized and is circulating through the bloodstream? (LO12)
A) pancreas
B) liver
C) ovary
D) lymph node
D
152
What term describes a harmless, noncancerous or precancerous tumor? (LO2)
A) malignant
B) metastatic
C) carcinogenic
D) benign
D
153
During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate to opposite poles of the cell? (LO8)
A) telophase
B) prophase
C) anaphase
D) metaphase
C
154
Which of the following is a risk factor for colon cancer? (LO3)
A) male gender
B) high-fiber diet
C) advanced age
D) asbestos inhalation
C
155
________ is the cause of about one-third of all cancer deaths. (LO3)
A) Smoking tobacco
B) Exposure to ultraviolet light
C) Exposure to high-energy radiation
D) Exposure to viruses
A
156
The multiple-hit model of cancer means that (LO11)
A) a person gets cancer only if both of his or her parents had cancer.
B) most cancer-causing mutations are passed on to future generations.
C) most cancers occur in many different tissues simultaneously.
D) multiple mutations are required to cause most forms of cancer.
D
157
Why do chromosomes resemble the letter X when viewed during metaphase of mitosis? (LO8)
A) Because they all appear and function as X chromosomes at that stage.
B) Because microtubules encircle and attach pairs of chromosomes to each other at the centromere.
C) Because each X-shaped structure is actually four chromosomes joined at the centromere.
D) Because there are two sister chromatids joined at a point in the middle (the centromere).
D
158
Consider a strand of DNA with the sequence GAATTCGGCA. What is the sequence of the complementary strand? (LO5)
A) GAATTCGGCA
B) ACGGCTTAAG
C) AGGCCTAATG
D) CTTAAGCCGT
D
159
Normal cell division, which includes the phases of __________, produces daughter cells that are identical to the original cell and takes place to __________. (LO4)
A) mitosis; create gametes
B) mitosis; help organisms grow
C) meiosis; heal wounds
D) meiosis; replace damaged cells
B
160
Which of the following is not a known carcinogen? (LO3)
A) ultraviolet light
B) certain viruses
C) pet dander
D) cigarette smoke
C
161
Normal meiosis produces four ____________ haploid cells known as ____________ (eggs and sperm). (LO13)
A) unique; zygotes
B) unique; gametes
C) identical; zygotes
D) identical; gametes
B
162
DNA carries the ________ and is wrapped around proteins to form ________. (LO5)
A) genes; chromosomes
B) lipids; carbohydrates
C) carbohydrates; chromosomes
D) genes; lipids
A
163
Most cells spend most of their time in which phase? (LO7)
A) prophase
B) interphase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
B
164
Which of the following can neutralize dangerous free radicals within the body? (LO3)
A) carbohydrates from dietary rice and pasta
B) nucleotides from DNA
C) antioxidants from dietary fruits and vegetables
D) hormones from the ovaries and testes
C
165
When a cell in the ovary or testes undergoes meiosis, the resulting cells contain _________ the number of chromosomes as the beginning cell. (LO14)
A) one-third
B) double
C) half
D) four times
C
166
Which of the following is a common feature of cancer cells? (LO1)
A) contact inhibition
B) controlled division
C) anchorage dependence
D) metastasis
D
167
________ are places in the cell cycle where proteins survey the cell to make sure that conditions for a favorable cell division have been met. (LO10)
A) Mutations
B) Checkpoints
C) Proto-oncogenes
D) Tumors
B
168
Which if the following is the correct sequence of how an animal is "built"? (LO9)
A) meiosis → fertilization → zygote → embryo
B) meiosis → fertilization → embryo → zygote
C) fertilization → meiosis → zygote → embryo
D) fertilization → zygote → meiosis → embryo
A
169
Because of the law of independent assortment, (LO3)
A) dizygotic twins will have 100% of their alleles in common.
B) two typical siblings will have about 50% of their alleles in common.
C) monozygotic twins will have about 50% of their alleles in common.
D) an individual will get most of their alleles from one parent.
B
170
Homologous chromosomes (LO1)
A) are inherited together because they don't separate during meiosis.
B) are fewer in body cells than in gametes.
C) generally contain the same genes, but may carry different alleles (different versions of those genes)
D) almost always contain identical alleles.
C
171
A heterozygous organism (LO4)
A) can't produce gametes.
B) has two identical alleles of a gene.
C) has two different alleles of a gene.
D) always shows a recessive trait.
C
172
Typical quantitative traits (LO6)
A) are usually influenced by only one gene.
B) are easy to follow using Punnett squares.
C) are not affected by the environment.
D) show continuous variation.
D
173
An individual who is a carrier for a recessive genetic disorder but does not have symptoms of the disorder is (LO4)
A) either homozygous for the recessive allele or heterozygous.
B) heterozygous.
C) homozygous for the recessive allele.
D) homozygous for the dominant allele.
B
174
What causes the differences between two human cell types (for example, a skin cell and a brain cell)? (LO2)
A) Different cell types begin with the same genes but eliminate certain genes as they develop.
B) Different cell types contain different proteins that give each cell a unique combination of genes.
C) Different cell types contain the same genes but use different combinations of them.
D) Different cell types contain different genes.
C
175
Heritability is _______. (LO7)
A) the degree to which a trait is explained by genes
B) low for all traits because differences are always due to the environment
C) not important because genes do not influence traits
D) the same for all traits
A
176
Which of the following is a cross between parents who each have two different alleles for each of two different genes? (LO3)
A) AAbb x aaBB
B) AaBB x AABb
C) aabb x AABB
D) AaBb x AaBb
D
177
A mutation in a gene (LO1)
A) might have no effect on the protein encoded by the gene.
B) must result in the creation of a nonfunctional protein.
C) invariably results in a change in the phenotype of an organism.
D) cannot result in a protein with a new function.
A
178
If the DNA contained in the chromosomes of an organism is similar to an instruction manual, then what are the genes "instructing" the cell to do? (LO1)
A) synthesize specific proteins from amino acids
B) convert carbohydrates into enzymes
C) grow in size until a certain point is reached, then reproduce itself
D) change shape and structure to meet the demands of the local environment
A
179
Cystic fibrosis is caused by the allele f, which is completely recessive to the normal dominant allele F. Consider a couple with the genotype Ff. What is the chance that their second child will develop cystic fibrosis? (LO5)
A) 75%
B) It depends on which alleles were inherited by their first child.
C) 50%
D) 100%
E) 25%
E
180
Traits with a strong genetic component, such as IQ, _________. (LO8)
A) are completely determined by environment
B) will be the idential among all members of a family regardless of environment
C) are never influenced by environment
D) can also be strongly influenced by environment
D
181
Half of the gametes produced by an organism with the genotype Aa will receive the A allele, while half will receive the a allele. This is a demonstration of (LO3)
A) random fertilization.
B) independent assortment.
C) segregation.
D) mutation.
C
182
If you're interested in studying one gene within a human, and each gene has two alleles, then the Punnett square that you would use to predict the inheritance of the alleles would contain how many total boxes? (LO5)
A) 4
B) 16
C) 2
D) 8
A
183
Which of the following would be expected in normal eye cells but not in normal heart cells? (LO2)
A) genes for the production of rhodopsin, a color pigment protein
B) DNA that codes for the conversion of mitochondria into rhodopsin
C) light-detecting mitochondria
D) the protein rhodopsin, which is a color pigment protein
D
184
Which of the following is an example of a quantitative trait in humans? (LO6)
A) cheek dimples
B) musical ability
C) cystic fibrosis
D) number of toes
B
185
Huntington's disease is caused by the allele H, which is completely dominant to the normal recessive allele h. Consider a couple where the man has the genotype Hh, and the woman has the genotype hh. What is the chance that their first child will develop Huntington's disease? (LO5)
A) 50%
B) 25%
C) 0%
D) 75%
A
186
In pea plants, the allele for purple flowers (P) is dominant to the allele for white flowers (p). In a cross between a purple-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant, all 73 of the offspring plants had purple flowers. Which of the following most likely describes the cross above? (LO4)
A) pp x pp
B) PP x pp
C) PP x PP
D) Pp x Pp
B
187
The growth and reproduction of an individual is called its (LO9)
A) phenotype.
B) genotype.
C) life cycle.
D) normal distribution.
C
188
Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive allele causing a blood disorder. What are the chances that a daughter of a normal man and a woman, who is heterozygous for the disease, will have hemophilia? (LO5)
A) 100%
B) 25%
C) 75%
D) 0%
D
189
A child with type O blood could not have a parent with type ________ blood. (LO3)
A) AB
B) O
C) B
D) A
A
190
The AB blood type, in which both A and B alleles are expressed, is an example of (LO1)
A) independent assortment.
B) sex linkage.
C) incomplete dominance.
D) codominance.
D
191
A person with hemophilia lacks the pleiotropic gene that codes for the protein called clotting factor VIII. This means that he or she will (LO2)
A) always have neurological problems.
B) have only the symptom of lack of blood clotting (bleeding).
C) have many other symptoms in addition to excessive bleeding.
D) always have the same symptoms as other hemophiliacs.
C
192
If a blue-colored flower crossed with a white-colored flower produced light blue-colored flower offspring, then it's most likely a case of (LO1)
A) incomplete dominance.
B) codominance.
C) sex linkage.
D) independent assortment.
A
193
Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait in humans. If phenotypically normal parents have children without hemophilia, pedigree analysis (LO7)
A) would show that none of their children could have hemophiliac children.
B) could demonstrate that neither parent carries the hemophiliac allele.
C) would show that none of their children is a carrier of the hemophilia allele.
D) would not be able to show the exact genotypes of the parents or children.
D
194
What is responsible for the tortoiseshell phenotype in some female cats? (LO6)
A) incomplete dominance
B) X inactivation
C) codominance
D) pleiotropy
B
195
People with the same blood type (LO3)
A) are always unrelated.
B) always have both alleles in common but are not necessarily related.
C) may or may not be related.
D) are always related.
C
196
Phenotypic features that are coded for by several genes, such as eye color in humans, are called (LO2)
A) linked.
B) polygenic.
C) codominant.
D) polytrophic.
B
197
A woman with type A blood and a man with type B blood have a baby with type O blood. What are the genotypes of the woman and the man? (LO3)
A) IAi and IBi
B) IAIA and IBIB
C) IAIA and IBi
D) IAi and IBIB
A
198
Humans possess (LO4)
A) 1 pair of sex chromosomes and 22 pairs of autosomes.
B) 1 pair of sex chromosomes and 46 pairs of autosomes.
C) 2 pairs of sex chromosomes and 46 pairs of autosomes.
D) 2 pairs of sex chromosomes and 22 pairs of autosomes.
A
199
In humans, the sex of the offspring is ordinarily determined by the (LO4)
A) autosomes carried by the egg cell.
B) sex chromosome carried by the egg cell.
C) sex chromosome carried by the sperm cell.
D) autosomes carried by the sperm cell.
C
200
A child with the genotype IAi has type ________ blood. (LO3)
A) B
B) O
C) AB
D) A
D
201
A family tree that is used to follow human matings that have already occurred is a (LO7)
A) pedigree.
B) karyotype.
C) sex-linked record.
D) test cross.
A
202
Describing a person as having hemophilia is to indicate his or her (LO1)
A) genetic code.
B) genotype.
C) number of chromosomes.
D) phenotype.
D
203
Sex-linked traits can be expressed in (LO5)
A) females only.
B) carriers only.
C) either males or females.
D) males only.
C
204
A human sperm cell receives autosomes and (LO4)
A) an X chromosome always.
B) a Y chromosome always.
C) both an X and a Y chromosome.
D) either an X or a Y chromosome.
D
205
A man who carries a harmful allele for a sex-linked gene (on the X chromosome) will pass the allele on to (LO5)
A) all of his children.
B) only half of his daughters.
C) only half of his sons.
D) all of his daughters.
D
206
When the phenotype of a heterozygote is intermediate between both homozygotes, the pattern of inheritance is ________. (LO1)
A) sex linkage
B) incomplete dominance
C) codominance
D) independent assortment
B
207
Which of the following is not part of the procedure used to make a DNA fingerprint? (LO8)
A) DNA is amplified by PCR.
B) DNA from blood, semen, vaginal fluids, or hair root cells can be used for analysis.
C) DNA is placed in a gel and subjected to an electric current.
D) The genes that encode fingerprint patterns are cloned into bacteria.
D
208
What signal when present at the ribosome causes protein synthesis to end? (LO4)
A) DNA
B) a stop codon
C) RNA polymerase
D) tRNA
B
209
RNA polymerase binds to the ________ to begin the process of transcription. (LO2)
A) promoter
B) codon
C) anticodon
D) structural gene
A
210
When genes are copied (in transcription), the resulting copy is in the form of a (LO2)
A) molecule of tRNA.
B) palindrome.
C) complementary strand of DNA.
D) strand of mRNA.
D
211
A sequence of DNA codes for a (LO1)
A) protein.
B) lipid.
C) nucleotide.
D) monosaccharide.
A
212
All the genes in an organism constitute its (LO6)
A) genetic code.
B) palindrome.
C) genome.
D) reading frame.
C
213
Replacing defective humans genes with functional genes ______. (LO9)
A) is the goal of gene therapy
B) has never been accomplished
C) is done routinely to cure many different types of diseases
D) is done through reproductive cloning
A
214
Which of the following complementary base pairings occur between DNA and RNA? (LO2)
A) T to C and A to G
B) C to U and A to T
C) A to T and C to G
D) G to C and A to U
D
215
Recombinant proteins refer to proteins that have been made in which manner? (LO7)
A) more potent or more highly concentrated before their use
B) directly from deoxyribonucleic acids, thus bypassing transcription and translation
C) from chemicals in the lab
D) by genetically modified bacteria
D
216
Imagine that a mutation in a DNA molecule results in the codon CCU being changed to CCC. Both of these codons code for proline. The fact that more than one codon can code for the same amino acid is referred to as (LO4)
A) mutations in the genetic code.
B) the redundancy of the genetic code.
C) the ambiguity of the genetic code.
D) the universality of the genetic code.
B
217
The structure of a protein is determined by (LO3)
A) the function of the nucleic acids it contains.
B) the number of fatty acids it contains.
C) the number of amino acids it contains.
D) the sequence of the amino acids it contains.
D
218
The molecular structure that geneticists use to insert foreign DNA into a recipient bacterial cell where it can be replicated is called a(n) (LO7)
A) anticodon.
B) codon.
C) plasmid.
D) genome.
C
219
The sequence of events in the process of protein synthesis is usually (LO1)
A) RNA → DNA → protein.
B) Protein → RNA → DNA.
C) RNA → protein → DNA.
D) DNA → RNA → protein.
D
220
What is the function of tRNA molecules during translation? (LO3)
A) They carry amino acids to the ribosome.
B) They unzip double-stranded mRNA.
C) They serve as the starting point for RNA polymerase.
D) They encode the instructions for protein synthesis.
A
221
Milk production in modern dairy cows has been dramatically increased because of (LO9)
A) the insertion of Ti plasmids in the cow genome.
B) frameshift mutations in the DNA of the cows.
C) recombinant bovine growth hormone.
D) the use of gene guns to insert rBGH genes into the mammary tissues of cows.
C
222
When a mutation results in no significant change in the production of a functional protein, it's called a (LO5)
A) neutral mutation.
B) frameshift mutation.
C) normal mutation.
D) substitution mutation.
A
223
A point mutation results in the incorporation of a new amino acid in a protein. Which of the following would be the most likely result? (LO5)
A) two proteins produced instead of one
B) an incomplete protein that still functions normally
C) an altered protein, which could result in a genetic disease
D) no change to the function of the protein
C
224
Genetically modified foods have resulted in (LO8)
A) lettuce that doesn't require water to grow.
B) calorie-free potato chips.
C) a tomato that tastes like a melon.
D) rice that allows greater synthesis of vitamin A.
D
225
Which molecule remains in the nucleus during protein synthesis? (LO1)
A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) rRNA
D) DNA
D
226
Which statement best describes how the FDA regulates the food industry? (LO8)
A) Newly developed foods or food additives must be certified safe by the FDA before they can be marketed to the public.
B) All new foods developed by industry, whether they contain new products or old products, are put through a rigorous testing program by the FDA.
C) New foods can be marketed without FDA approval until there is a clear health issue with the food.
D) Foods must be clearly labeled in accordance with FDA guidelines to indicate whether they're naturally occurring or genetically modified food products.
A
227
The rate of production of cellular proteins within each cell is regulated through which of the following? (LO6)
A) redundancy in the genetic code
B) gene expression
C) frameshift mutations
D) ambiguity in the genetic code
B
228
Darwin observed that tortoises of the nearby islands, although slightly different, belonged to the same species. How might he have known they were the same species? (LO7)
A) He probably compared the metabolism of the different tortoises and saw they had similar enzymes.
B) He may have been told by local people that when tortoises of different islands were brought together, they could mate with each other.
C) He may have moved one group of tortoises to a new island and observed the accumulation of changes in the moved group.
D) He probably compared DNA sequence data from the different tortoises.
B
229
The DNA of cats and dogs is much more similar than the DNA of cats and hamsters. Why is that? (LO5)
A) Cats and dogs have a common ancestor that is more recent than the common ancestor of cats and hamsters.
B) The ancestors of cats and the ancestors of dogs evolved in similar environments.
C) Cats and dogs have lived together with humans for a longer period of time, so they have grown more similar.
D) Cats and dogs have fewer offspring during their lifetime than hamsters, so their DNA change less rapidly.
A
230
Humans and apes show such a strong degree of similarity that they are placed in the same (LO4)
A) genus.
B) subfamily.
C) subspecies.
D) species.
B
231
According to the theory of common descent, species on Earth today should (LO2)
A) not have ancestors in common with members of other species.
B) have a single ancestor in common.
C) have DNA that is mostly unique from other species.
D) look very similar to all other species.
B
232
The nonfunctional wings of an ostrich are an example of what sort of evidence for the theory of common descent? (LO5)
A) DNA similarity
B) vestigial structures
C) homologous structures
D) shared developmental pathways
B
233
Why are fossils from older species found deeper in the earth than those from more recent species? (LO8)
A) Older species were more likely to burrow underground.
B) Older species were more likely to be trapped in sediments and form fossils than modern species.
C) Modern species can swim better than older species.
D) Layers of sediments accumulate every year, covering older fossils in more layers.
D
234
In land mammals, the pelvic girdle is the point where the leg bones attach to the rest of the skeleton. Whales also have a small pelvic girdle. This would be an example of what type of evidence for common descent? (LO5)
A) a homologous gene
B) fossil evidence
C) a vestigial structure
D) a homologous structure
C
235
What is the role of fossils in supporting the theory of common descent? (LO8)
A) Fossils of dinosaurs show that other types of life existed, but there is no evidence of relationships between them.
B) There have been many fossils of intermediate types discovered that provide strong support for the theory of common descent.
C) There are plenty of fossils to show that animals have evolved, but there are not enough fossils of human ancestors to suggest that humans are related to other animals.
D) Fossil evidence has been found to support the relationship between humans and other primates but only in Europe.
B
236
True or false: Evolution, including the theory of common descent, is a very controversial idea among scientists. (LO9)
True
False
False
237
The standard classification system used by biologists today groups and classifies organisms on the basis of similar physical traits. This system was first developed by Carl Linnaeus. At the time of his work, there were other methods for grouping organisms that were based on similar habitats, similar diets, or similar behaviors. Why is Linnaeus's system the most useful one to biologists today? (LO4)
A) Linnaeus's system included all organisms found on Earth.
B) Linnaeus's system is the simplest; the others are too complicated.
C) Classifying on the basis of shared traits points out the underlying evolutionary relationships among organisms.
D) Linnaeus's system relies on Latin names that make the most sense to biologists.
C
238
What is it about macroevolution that people find controversial? (LO1)
A) the appearance of new traits in existing populations
B) the concept that genes can vary spontaneously
C) the common descent of all organisms from one ancestral cell
D) the concept of species being subdivided into separate populations
C
239
Even though marsupial mammals with pouches, like kangaroos, give birth to live young, an eggshell forms briefly early in their development. This is evidence that ______. (LO6)
A) marsupials share a common ancestor with some egg-laying species
B) marsupial mammals were separately created
C) the fossil record of marsupial mammals is incorrect
D) marsupials are not really mammals
A
240
Which of the following descriptions would be considered a theory in the same scientific sense that evolution is considered a theory? (LO2)
A) a theory about why blue is your favorite color
B) a theory about which of your classmates is the source of your cold
C) a theory about why an apple falls to the ground when dropped
D) a theory about why your neighbor has the nicest car in the neighborhood
C
241
What was Lamarck's idea about how organisms changed? (LO3)
A) He proposed that humans evolved from fish.
B) He proposed that body parts increased or decreased as a result of extra use or disuse.
C) He proposed that all organisms were unchanging over time.
D) He proposed that variations in populations were selected by the environment.
B
242
Which of the following is an example of biological evolution? (LO1)
A) Over time, a species of caterpillar becomes the same shade of green as the leaves on which it feeds.
B) The average woman's dress size has increased over the last 50 years.
C) You are vaccinated against polio and are protected against the disease.
D) A tree branch is broken off and another grows in its place.
A
243
What makes one louse able to survive treatment with permethrin and another louse unable to survive? (LO1)
A) If there is genetic variation in the louse population independent of permethrin exposure, then some lice are likely to be resistant.
B) If a louse is exposed to low levels of permethrin, then it becomes resistant.
C) If the parents of a louse are exposed to permethrin, then the offspring become resistant.
D) If a louse is exposed to other anti-lice treatments, then it becomes resistant to all anti-lice treatments.
A
244
How did the geologist Charles Lyell influence Darwin? (LO3)
A) He proposed a theory about how small islands were formed.
B) He provided evidence that Earth was really only about 10,000 years old.
C) He charted the currents found off the Pacific coast of South America.
D) He suggested that slow, gradual changes shaped the features of Earth.
D
245
The most important reason that one can see evolution in a population of mosquitoes more easily than one can see evolution in a population of squirrels is because mosquitoes (LO1)
A) have a higher mutation rate.
B) lay eggs rather than bear live young.
C) feed on blood.
D) have a shorter generation time.
D
246
Common descent is referred to as a theory because (LO2)
A) it's an idea from more than 100 years ago and thus is not a modern idea.
B) it's the only idea about life on Earth that can be tested by observation of the material universe.
C) scientists are reasonably sure it's true, but there's little evidence to support it.
D) there is overwhelming evidence to support it from many areas of biology.
D
247
Bat wings are homologous to the front legs of cats. What does the term "homologous" mean in this context? (LO5)
A) The common ancestor of bats and cats had a limb with a bone structure similar to that found in cat legs and bat wings.
B) The common ancestor of bats and cats had limbs that functioned as wings.
C) Both structures are used for the same purpose.
D) Bat wings are vestigial legs.
A
248
What causes the disease tuberculosis? (LO1)
A) exposure to polluted air
B) genetics
C) a particular type of virus
D) a particular type of bacteria
D
249
Your text describes an experiment in which low-nutrient conditions select bacteria that would kill off other bacteria. When nutrients became plentiful again, these killer bacteria became less common because they had lower fitness in this environment, but they didn't become extinct. Why wouldn't the killer bacteria die out completely in the new environment? (LO4)
A) The killer trait is a dominant trait, so it cannot be eliminated.
B) They're waiting for a future time when that trait may be useful again.
C) They have changed the killer gene to a less costly one but can regenerate the killer gene when necessary.
D) Competition must be low enough that the disadvantage of having the killer trait isn't great enough to cause extinction.
D
250
As natural selection acts on a trait in a population, the amount of variation associated with that trait in the population is likely to do which of the following? (LO3)
A) decrease
B) remain the same
C) disappear altogether
D) increase
A
251
A population of caterpillars feeds on the leaves of trees in a forest and is in turn food for birds that eat them off the tree leaves. Given this information, which adaptation would be most likely to evolve? (LO5)
A) Birds would evolve to eat more types of insects.
B) Caterpillars would evolve to eat the bark as well as the leaves.
C) Caterpillars would evolve to a larger size.
D) Caterpillars would evolve to a color that matched the leaves they eat.
D
252
A city was intensively sprayed with DDT to control houseflies. The number of houseflies was immediately greatly reduced. Each year thereafter, the city was sprayed again, but the flies gradually increased in numbers until 10 years later, when they were almost as abundant as they were when the control program began. Which of the following most likely explains this? (LO4)
A) The DDT caused new mutations to occur in the surviving flies, resulting in resistance to DDT.
B) The DDT killed most flies. The few that were already naturally resistant survived and passed this resistance on to their offspring.
C) The few flies that were affected by DDT but survived developed antibodies to DDT, which they passed on to their descendants.
D) Flies from other areas moved in and replaced the ones killed by DDT.
B
253
Ivory from elephant tusks is a valuable commodity on the world market. As a result, male African elephants with large tusks have been heavily hunted for the past few centuries. Today, male elephants have significantly shorter tusks at full adulthood than male elephants in the early 1900's. This is an example of _____. (LO7)
A) disruptive selection
B) evolutionary regression
C) stabilizing selection
D) directional selection
D
254
True or false: Natural selection occurs so an organism can become perfectly adapted to its environment. (LO6)
True
False
False
255
Your friend was diagnosed with strep throat 2 months ago. She was treated with antibiotics for 10 days, but 2 weeks after treatment, the symptoms returned. She was given a different antibiotic and her symptoms improved again, initially, but then got worse. What is happening? (LO8)
A) Your friend was originally infected with some bacteria that were resistant to these two antibiotics and the bacteria multiplied.
B) Your friend has taken antibiotics so long that she has become tolerant to them, making them ineffective.
C) Exposure to antibiotics has caused each individual bacterial cell to evolve resistance to the antibiotics.
D) Your friend probably doesn't have a bacterial infection. There must be some other reason for her symptoms.
A
256
A primary source for new, unique genes in a population is (LO2)
A) artificial selection.
B) mutation.
C) crossing over.
D) natural selection.
B
257
Which of the following steps in the theory of natural selection do humans impact the most to bring about artificial selection? (LO2)
A) There is differential survival and reproduction among individuals in a population.
B) Individuals in a population vary.
C) Some variation can be passed on to offspring.
D) Populations produce more offspring than the environment can support.
A
258
Antibiotic resistance is becoming common among organisms that cause a variety of human diseases. All of the following strategies help reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance evolving in a susceptible bacterial population except ______. (LO8)
A) using the drugs as directed, taking all the antibiotic over the course of days prescribed
B) preventing natural selection by reducing the amount of evolution the organisms can perform
C) using more than one antibiotic at a time for difficult-to-treat organisms
D) using antibiotics only when appropriate, for bacterial infections that are not clearing up naturally
B
259
What is the primary body part affected by tuberculosis? (LO1)
A) the lungs
B) the muscles
C) the immune system
D) the liver
A
260
Which of these is an example of diversifying selection? (LO7)
A) A population of moths with white and grey forms lives in a forest containing trees with light and dark bark.
B) A population of plants develops all orange fruit instead of a mixture of yellow, red, and orange fruit, due to animals showing a preference for orange fruit.
C) Wild cat populations gradually develop spots that allow them to be camouflaged in the dark forest.
D) Because bees prefer dark blue flowers, this color gradually becomes more dominant in a population of plants with a color ranging from light blue to dark blue.
A
261
You notice in the fall that the oak trees on campus change color at slightly different times, even though the environment is the same for all the trees. What is the most likely explanation? (LO2)
A) There are different alleles of the gene responsible for color change.
B) The weather changes the genes of the oak trees each year.
C) Natural selection is causing some trees to change.
D) All the trees have the same genes, but each tree makes different proteins from the genes.
A
262
Which of the following describes natural selection? (LO3)
A) A population of a mammal species lives near the water; water levels rise and the habitat becomes swampy; the animals have trouble moving in the water; the population changes to a shorter-legged type so they can move more easily in the water.
B) A population of a mammal species lives near the water; water levels rise and the habitat becomes swampy; the act of swimming shortens the legs of the mammals; the offspring of the mammal species have shorter legs.
C) A population of a mammal species varies in the length of their legs; water levels rise and the habitat becomes swampy; the individuals with shorter legs are better able to swim to food; the population evolves to become shorter-legged.
D) Water levels rise and a habitat becomes swampy; a population of a mammal species on high ground observes the change; individuals with shorter legs migrate to the area.
C
263
What is an allele? (LO5)
A) a trait that has been influence by artificial selection
B) a gene that hasn't changed over time
C) a particular version of a gene
D) A gene that has been changed by natural selection
C
264
Which of the following is the most direct (or first) result of natural selection on a population? (LO5)
A) New alleles are created when confronted with a new environment.
B) The frequency of some alleles changes in the population.
C) Members of the population start reproducing more rapidly.
D) Proteins lose some functions.
B
265
Many variants are produced during the long course of an HIV infection. Which of these variants would be most fit in the environment of the human body? (LO1)
A) a virus that infects liver cells
B) a virus that can't be recognized by the patient's immune system
C) a virus that makes fewer mistakes when replicating its RNA
D) a virus that reproduces very slowly
B
266
In what way is artificial selection different from natural selection? (LO3)
A) In artificial selection, human preference is the selecting force; in natural selection, environmental conditions are the selecting force.
B) Artificial selection causes one species to change to another, while natural selection only modifies existing species.
C) Artificial selection applies to changes in domestic animals only, while natural selection applies to all other species.
D) There's no difference; both have caused evolution throughout the history of life on Earth.
A
267
Which of the following is an adaptation? (LO5)
A) a grizzly bear learning to open a Dumpster
B) clipped ears on a dog to prevent the dog from developing ear infections
C) webbed feet on a bird
D) immunity to a virus caused by vaccination
C
268
Which of the following is an example of behavioral isolation? (LO12-1)
A) A species of daisy only blooms when nights become longer than nine hours.
B) The offspring of horses and donkeys are sterile.
C) Female spiders only mate when a male of the same species taps her web in a particular way.
D) The pollen of roses isn't recognized by the eggs of morning glories.
C
269
Nose shape and skin color are two physical traits in humans that have been influenced by ______. (LO12-7)
A) recent climate change
B) natural selection
C) genetic drift
D) random mating
B
270
Evolution that occurs as a result of chance events is called (LO12-9)
A) gene flow.
B) genetic drift.
C) sexual selection.
D) population bottleneck.
B
271
According to the endosymbiotic theory, both mitochondria and chloroplasts originated from free-living (LO13-4)
A) bacteria.
B) protists.
C) plants.
D) animals.
A
272
The vast majority of organisms within the kingdom Animalia are _______. (LO13-3)
A) mammals
B) birds
C) vertebrates
D) invertebrates
D
273
You read that two populations of hyena are different subspecies. Which of the following would be true of the two populations? (LO12-3)
A) They would have different diets.
B) One group would be much larger than the other group.
C) They could produce fertile offspring.
D) Their mating behavior would be quite different.
C
274
The tendency for individuals to choose mates who are like themselves is called _____. (LO12-10)
A) sexual selection
B) natural selection
C) assortative mating
D) random mating
C
275
An organism is described that can live in very high temperature water. This organism is most likely a member of the (LO13-2)
A) Bacteria domain.
B) Protista kingdom.
C) Animalia kingdom.
D) Archaea domain.
D
276
What causes the reproductive isolation that can lead to speciation? (LO12-2)
A) A group is extinct.
B) Some members of one group don't want to mate with other groups.
C) Members of one group are unable to make fertile offspring with other groups.
D) Some members of a group are sterile.
C
277
What produces gene flow? (LO12-2)
A) geographical isolation
B) mutation
C) mating between populations
D) speciation
C
278
Where can you find the most genetically diverse populations of humans? (LO12-4)
A) Africa
B) Central America
C) Europe
D) Pacific Islands
A
279
How are prokaryotes different from eukaryotes? (LO13-2)
A) Prokaryotes are unicellular, while all eukaryotes are multicellular.
B) Prokaryotes have no DNA.
C) Prokaryotes cause disease, but eukaryotes don't.
D) Prokaryotes have no nucleus separating the DNA from the rest of the cell.
D
280
According to the most current classifications, which of the following groups is the most different from all the others? (LO13-2)
A) protists
B) animals
C) archaea
D) bacteria
D
281
What is found when alleles among different human groups are analyzed? (LO12-7)
A) There are no race-specific alleles and no consistent patterns of allele frequencies within racial groups.
B) There are no race-specific alleles but several consistent patterns of allele frequencies within racial groups.
C) There are many race-specific alleles and several consistent patterns of allele frequencies within racial groups.
D) There are a few race-specific alleles but no consistent patterns of allele frequencies within racial groups.
A
282
Why are companies particularly interested in bioprospecting? (LO13-1)
A) Companies hope to become famous for discovering a new species.
B) Companies hope to discover how life on Earth began.
C) Companies hope to make more students interested in taxonomy.
D) Companies hope to discover a species that contains an enzyme or another protein that can be marketed.
D
283
On Long Island, New York, there's a population of wall lizards that originated from a group in Italy. Several had been imported to be sold as pets many decades ago, and some escaped and started a new population in this suburban area. This is an example of (LO12-9)
A) a population bottleneck.
B) the founder effect.
C) gene flow.
D) genetic drift.
B
284
One species of plant produces flowers when nights are 10 hours long. A related species comes into flower when nights are 9 hours long. This is an example of (LO12-1)
A) gamete incompatibility.
B) temporal isolation.
C) mechanical isolation.
D) behavioral isolation.
B
285
The terms "subspecies" and "race" are best described by which of the following scenarios? (LO12-5)
A) a breed of dog with a longhaired coat instead of a shorthaired coat
B) two populations of birds that have different amounts of orange coloration and could produce offspring if they were not separated by a mountain range
C) a population of rabbits that lives near a lake and sometimes breeds with rabbits farther inland
D) two populations of frogs that cannot produce offspring
B
286
Animals are defined as _______. (LO13-5)
A) single celled organisms that make their own food
B) multicellular organisms that make their own food
C) single celled organisms that ingest other organisms for food
D) multicellular organisms that ingest other organisms for food
D
287
After a speciation event (LO12-2)
A) one new species evolves, while the original species goes extinct.
B) one new species evolves, while the original species stays the same.
C) one new species evolves, while the original species may stay the same or evolve into something different.
D) two species have evolved that are each different from the original species.
C
288
Bromelin is an enzyme that ________.
A) has a particular shape, and its shape is important to its functioning
B) causes a specific reaction to occur more quickly than without the enzyme
C) is influenced by factors such as temperature
D) all of the answers are correct
D
289
This lab is investigating the impact of _________ on bromelin.
A) both temperature and pH
B) none of the answers is correct
C) pH
D) temperature
D
290
Heat can cause proteins (and enzymes) to permanently change shape (unfold), making them less functional or non-functional. This background information best aligns with which of the following hypotheses?
A) None of the answers is correct
B) Heat has a negative impact on bromelin's functionality
C) Heat has no impact on bromelin's functionality
D) Heat has a positive impact on bromelin's functionality
B
291
If the best hypothesis is that heat has a negative impact on bromelin, the matching prediction is that the ________.
A) heated enzyme will not break down gelatin as well, thus releasing more fluid, compared to the non heated juice
B) heated enzyme will not break down gelatin as well, thus releasing less fluid, compared to the non heated juice
C) heated enzyme will break down gelatin the same, thus releasing the same amount of fluid, compared to the non heated juice
D) None of the answer is correct
A
292
If your hypothesis was that heat has a negative impact on enzymes, and you find less fluid in the sample exposed to the juice that was heated compared to the non-heated juice, then you would discuss how _____.
A) the evidence is inconclusive because you did not find what you predicted
B) the evidence is inconclusive because you found what you predicted
C) the evidence refutes your hypothesis
D) the evidence supports your hypothesis
D
293
Which of the following represents a genotype?
A) B
B) b
C) blue eyes
D) bb
D
294
Which of the following is a phenotype?
A) bb
B) B
C) blue eyes
D) b
C
295
Which of the following is an allele?
A) blue eyes
B) bb
C) Bb
D) b
D
296
If someone has the genotype BBHhTT, which kinds of gametes (egg or sperm) can they produce via meiosis?
A) BHT and BhT
B) BhT only
C) BBHhTT and BBHhTT
D) BHT only
A
297
If Jane is "bb" genotype, what kinds of alleles can she pass one to her children?
A) B allele only
B) either B or b alleles
C) always B and b both
D) b allele only
D
298
If there are 10 total alleles in a population, and 2 of them are "R", what is the frequency of the R allele?
A: cannot be calculated
B: 20
C: 0.2 or 20%
D: 2
C
299
Suppose there are 10 total alleles and there are 2 types of alleles, R and r. If the frequency of R is 0.2, what is the frequency of r?
A: 20
B: 6%
C: 0.8 or 80%
D: 8
C
300
Red flowers have which genotype?
A: R
B: rr
C: Rr
D: RR
D
301
The R allele is not truly dominant in this example. If it were, which of the following would be true?
A: The Rr genotype would produce red flowers
B: The production of red vs. white flowers would not be related to genotype
C: The rr genotype would produce red flowers
D: The Rr genotype would produce white flowers
A
302
A dominant allele is not always the most frequent allele. Dominance and frequency are different concepts. Which of the following describes a scenario where a dominant allele might become rare?
A: The dominant phenotype is preferred by selection
B: The recessive phenotype is selected against
C: The dominant phenotype is selected against
D: The dominant allele confers an advantage to the individuals who have it
C
