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Kaplan Full Length 3 > Bio/Biochem > Flashcards

Bio/Biochem Flashcards

1
Q

during starvation, the average human being can generate glucose from:

A

1) glycogen
2) the glycerol portion of triacylglycerol
3) amino acids

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2
Q

where is glucose stored as glycogen in the body?

A

the liver and muscle tissues

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3
Q

how can glucose be generated from triacylglycerol?

A

the glycerol portion can be turned into glucose via gluconeogenesis

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4
Q

how can amino acids be used to generate glucose?

A

AA can be used as substrates for gluconeogenesis

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5
Q

does glycogen or triacylglycerol have more energy?

A

triacylglycerol

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6
Q

why acetyl-CoA converted to ketone bodies after a few weeks of starvation?

A

gluconeogenesis depletes the supply of oxaloacetate which is essential for the entry of acetyl-CoA into the Krebs Cycle

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7
Q

what’s generated when you break down fatty acids?

A

acetly CoA

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8
Q

what happens after you eat a meal?

A

insulin secretion, glycogen systhesis and glycolysis

what doesn’t happen is glucagon secretion, gluconeogenesis, hydrolysis of triacylglycerol because those raise blood glucose levels

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9
Q

what does gluconeogenesis do?

A

it’s kind of the reverse of glycolysis

it raises blood glucose levels

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10
Q

what does insulin inhibit?

A

glucagon secretion

insulin decreases blood glucose levels

glucagon raises blood glucose levels so insulin would inhibit glucagon secretion

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11
Q

what term defines the tendency to have more sever symptoms and earlier onset with greater numbers of a CAG repeat?

A

increased expressivity

also knowns as anticipation

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12
Q

where are the dorsal root ganglia located?

A

spinal cord

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13
Q

what are Meissner’s corpuscle?

A

processing units in the skin

a sensory nerve ending that is sensitive to mechanical stimuli, found in the dermis in various parts of the body.

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14
Q

if RBC were grown on a medium that blocks the ETC, what would happen?

A

nothing, RBC don’t have organelles

so they don’t have mitochondria to even need the ETC

they produce ATP anerobically

ATP production would not change

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15
Q

what is the vitreous humor?

A

the transparent jellylike tissue filling the eyeball behind the lens

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16
Q

what would increased levels of H+ do to the anion gap?

A

it would increase it

you would need more base to make the solution a buffer

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17
Q

what does hypoventilation result in??

A

decreased oxygen, increased CO2 levels

H2O + CO2

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18
Q

what does hyperventilation result in?

A

increased oxygen, decreased CO2 levels

H2O + CO2 –> HCO3- + H+

the equilibrium has shifted right

metabolic acidosis

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19
Q

what happens during isoelectric focusing?

A

amino acids migrate towards a pH near their pI

ex. aspartate has a pI of 3; if you’re at a pH of 4 then it will migrate towards the anode which is at a lower pH
ex. phenylalanine has a pI of 6; at a pH of 4 it would migrate towards the cathode which is at a higher pH

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20
Q

what’s the pH of the anode?

A

acidic

low pH

things are getting oxidized, losing H+ so it’s acidic

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21
Q

what is the pH of the cathode?

A

basic

high pH

things are getting reduced, not a lot of H+ around

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22
Q

what is a frameshift mutation?

A

either an insertion or deletion

a genetic mutation caused by indels (insertions or deletions) of a number of nucleotides in a DNA sequence that is not divisible by three

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23
Q

what is a missense mutation?

A

a point mutation in which a single nucleotide change results in a codon that codes for a different amino acid

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24
Q

what’s a nonsense mutation?

A

a mutation in which a sense codon that corresponds to one of the twenty amino acids specified by the genetic code is changed to a chain-terminating codon

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25
Q

what are stop codons?

A

During protein formation, DNA (or RNA) nucleotide sequences are read three nucleotides at a time in units called codons, and each codon corresponds to a specific amino acid or stop signal (stop codon)

Stop codons are also called nonsense codons because they do not code for an amino acid and instead signal the end of protein synthesis

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26
Q

what is a silent mutation?

A

A form of point mutation resulting in a codon that codes for the same or a different amino acid but without any functional change in the protein product

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27
Q

what does the lysosome do?

A

an organelle that contains many enzymes that break down proteins

also key in organelle recycling

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28
Q

what does the peroxisome do?

A

the breakdown of very long chain fatty acids through beta-oxidation

then they’re shuttled to mitochondria where they are eventually broken down to carbon dioxide and water

perioxisome replicates by division and does not contain its own genome

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29
Q

what does the smooth endoplasmic reticulum do?

A

the ER is in the cytoplasm

SER helps with synthesis of phospholipids and cholesterol

in the liver, the SER helps with the breakdown of carcinogens

in the adrenal gland and gonads, cholesterol is modified to a steroid hormone in the SER

in muscle tissue, the SER stores calcium for CBC

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30
Q

what does a methylated gene mean?

A

methylated genes are inactive

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31
Q

where are 5’caps found?

A

mRNA

not found in DNA!

32
Q

what are introns?

A

Introns are noncoding sections of an RNA transcript, or the DNA encoding it, that are spliced out before the RNA molecule is translated into a protein

The sections of DNA (or RNA) that code for proteins are called exons

33
Q

what are exons?

A

The sections of DNA (or RNA) that code for proteins are called exons

34
Q

where are poly(A) tails found?

A

mRNA

increases the stability of mRNA

not found in DNA!

35
Q

what is the founder effect?

A

when certain areas of the world have a higher frequency of a certain allele than other area

like if two people with a disease move to an island and start reproducing then everyone there would probably have that disease and the frequency would be higher

36
Q

what is disruptive selection?

A

also called diversifying selection

describes changes in population genetics in which extreme values for a trait are favored over intermediate values (double bell curve around 50)

in this case, the variance of the trait increases and the population is divided into two distinct groups - increases genetic variance when natural selection selects for two or more extreme phenotypes that each have specific advantages

ex. imagine a population of mice living at the beach where there is light-colored sand interspersed with patches of tall grass. In this scenario, light-colored mice that blend in with the sand would be favored, as well as dark-colored mice that can hide in the grass. Medium-colored mice, on the other hand, would not blend in with either the grass or the sand

37
Q

what is stabilizing selection?

A

natural selection favors an average phenotype and selects against extreme variations

genetic variance will decrease

38
Q

what is directional stabilization?

A

a population’s genetic variance shifts toward a new phenotype when exposed to environmental changes

selects for phenotypes at one end of the spectrum of existing variation

39
Q

what’s the bottleneck effect?

A

events in which the number of individuals in a population is reduced drastically

ex. a disease wiping out a population down to 20 individuals or being hunted down to 20 individuals

you lose genetic variance

40
Q

what is genetic drift?

A

the change in the frequency of a gene variant (allele) in a population due to random sampling of organisms

when there are few copies of an allele, the effect of genetic drift is larger, and when there are many copies the effect is smaller–> the gene pool of a small population will be significantly altered by random mutations

ex. 20 marbles in a jar –> Half of the marbles in the jar are red and half blue, and both colours correspond to two different alleles of one gene in the population –> In each new generation the organisms reproduce at random. To represent this reproduction, randomly select a marble from the original jar and deposit a new marble with the same colour as its “offspring” into a new jar. (The selected marble remains in the original jar.) Repeat this process until there are 20 new marbles in the second jar. The second jar then contains a second generation of “offspring,” consisting of 20 marbles of various colours. Unless the second jar contains exactly 10 red marbles and 10 blue marbles, a random shift occurred in the allele frequencies.

41
Q

what’s the relationship between genetic drift and founder effect and bottleneck effect?

A

genetic drift can follow the pattern of founder effect and bottleneck effect but it can’t cause them

42
Q

how is mitochondrial DNA inherited?

A

only from the mom

the sperm does not have any organelles

43
Q

what’s transcription?

A

DNA to RNA

44
Q

what’s translation?

A

RNA to proteins

45
Q

what are antibiotics for?

A

bacteria!

NOT viruses

46
Q

what influences the rate of enzyme catalyzed reaction?

A

1) temperature
2) pH
3) salinity

47
Q

what is the replication of somatic cells?

A

mitosis

48
Q

what’s the replication of reproductive cells?

A

meiosis

49
Q

what is gastrulation?

A

during gastrulation, cell movements result in a massive reorganization of the embryo from a simple spherical ball of cells, the blastula, into a multi-layered organism

the endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm form

50
Q

what layer of protein structure is characterized by alpha helices and beta sheets?

A

secondary structure

51
Q

what is heart rate?

A

beats per minute

52
Q

what is cardiac output?

A

CO = HR X SV

CO = (beats/minute)(liters/beat) = liters/minute

53
Q

what does vasodilation or vasoconstriction do to blood flow?

A

vasodilation increases blood flow but decreases speed

vasoconstriction decreases flood flow but increases speed

54
Q

where is oxytocin synthesized and released from?

A

synthesized in the hypothalamus

released from posterior pituitary

55
Q

what gives rise to pseudopodia?

A

polymerization and depolymerization of actin

actin is a microfilament

56
Q

what are intermediate filaments important for?

A

cytoskeleton

57
Q

what are microfilaments important for?

A

maintaining cell shape

58
Q

what are centrioles important for?

A

centrioles are microtubule organizing centers

59
Q

what regions an antibody are involved in antigenic hormone binding?

A

variable region of the light chain

variable region of the heavy chain

60
Q

what is the constant region of the heavy chain in an antibody involved in?

A

cellular recognition

61
Q

what is the constant region of the light chain in an antibody involved in?

A

the constant region of the light chain binds tightly to the constant region of the heavy chain

62
Q

if an amino acid is subjected to electrophoresis at pH = 8.5 and migrates towards the anode, what is the isoelectric point of the amino acid?

A

less than 8.5

the anode oxidizes aka takes electrons

if the AA moves towards the anode then it must have a net negative charge

so to be neutral, it has to be protonated and you can do that by lowering the pH

63
Q

during electrophoresis, what happens to an AA with a negative charge?

A

it moves towards the anode to be oxidized and lose the “extra” electrons and become neutral

the pI of the AA would be lower than the current pH that it’s in because it needs to gain H+ to become neutral since it’s (-)

64
Q

during electrophoresis, what happens to an AA with a positive charge?

A

it moves towards the cathode to be reduced and gain electrons to become neutral

the pI of the AA would be higher than the current pH that it’s in because it needs to lose H+ to become neutral since it’s (+)

65
Q

what energy source do cells that use direct phosphorylation have?

A

creatine phosphate

does not require glucose metabolism

ATP is not the energy storage molecule used for direct phosphorylation

66
Q

what modifications occur during post-transcriptional processing?

A

1) addition of the 5’ cap
2) splicing of exons
3) removal of introns
4) polyadenylation (poly-A tail)

67
Q

what does polyadenylation do?

A

it occurs during post-transcriptional processing

it protects the 3’ end of mRNA from degradation

68
Q

in what direction does translation occur?

A

translational machinery assmebles at the 5’ end of mRNA

69
Q

what happens to the primary transcripts?

A

they are made in the nucleus and exported to the cytoplasm

70
Q

what does the nucleolus do?

A

site of rRNA transcription and processing

the size of the nucleolus in a cell is proportional to the amount of protein produced by the cell = the more protein a cell needs, the more ribosomes it’ll have and the bigger the nucleolus will be

71
Q

where are alpha cells located?

A

pancreas

72
Q

what cells would have large a nucleolus?

A

cancer cells

they’re replicating quickly and have high metabolic activity

so they’re making lots of proteins and their nucleolus is where rRNA is transcribed

73
Q

what types of RNA are noncoding?

A

tRNA and rRNA

74
Q

where is trypsinogen produced?

A

pancreas

75
Q

where is amylase produced?

A

salivary glands and pancreas

76
Q

what is the mitral valve?

A

bicuspid valve

between the left atrium and right atrium

77
Q

what is facilitated diffusion?

A

when a carrier molecule facilitates the diffusion of another molecule across a membrane along the molecules concentration gradient (not against, aka doesn’t need ATP)

Kaplan Full Length 3 (2 decks)

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