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1
Q

Define reproduction

A

Reproduction is the fusion of egg and sperm via fertilization

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2
Q

What is the transformation of the egg over time to an organism?

A

development

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3
Q

name some primary and secondary sex characteristics.

A

Primary: uterus, ovaries
secondary: voice, breasts, antlers

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4
Q

Where are ovum made?

A

the two ovaries

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5
Q

How do eggs travel to the uterus?

A

oviduct is where eggs move via fallopian tubes to uterus where development takes place. Then it exits thru a small opening called the cervix.

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6
Q

What is the small opening of vagina fetus exits thru?

A

vagina

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7
Q

Where are follicles located and what do they do?

A

they are located in around fallopian tubes and store ovum

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8
Q

in males what produces sperm

A

testes in the semiferous tubules

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9
Q

what is temperature for testes?

A

two degrees lower than body

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10
Q

where does the sperm mature?

A

epididymus

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11
Q

which structure connects the epid.and urethra and what 2 glands are let into the deferens

A

vas deferens; two glands are prostate glands and seminal vesicle with fructose

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12
Q

what do prostate glands? do

A

give out fluid to urethra

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13
Q

what is sperm head composed of? what is it function?

A

acrosome; lysosome at the tip with enzymes toget to egg

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14
Q

what connects the flagella of sperm to headpiece?

A

midpiece with the mitochondria

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15
Q

what is the process that females makes eggs?

A

oogenesis

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16
Q

When oogonia goes thru mitosis, what does it make?

A

eggs

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17
Q

When do primary oocytes stop dividing during meiosis and when does it continue

A

prophase 1and continues at menstrual cycle

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18
Q

Where do primary oocyte grow and what does it form?

A

grows in follicle nand forms secondary oocyte and polar body

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19
Q

Where do secondary oocytre fuse with sperm

A

in oviduct after it gets out of follicle

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20
Q

What is first stage of spermatogenesis

A

puberty

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21
Q

Describe spermatogenesis.

A

primary spermatocytes made in semiferous tubules which then become secondary spermatocytes and then spermatids becoming sper. This then goes to epididymis to mature

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22
Q

How did sperm come from spermatids?

A

due to sertoli cells for nourishment

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23
Q

WHat does GnRH release and from where?What do they make in males

A

FSH and LH; in males they end up making testosterone and endrogens

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24
Q

How deos GnRH play in females?

A

they release FSH but at the end they make estrogenand progesterone in ovaries

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25
What occurs when the progesterone and estrogen levels decrease?
the menstrual cycle starts and negative feedback ovvurs
26
In what phase of menstrual cycle is estrogen from FSH and hormone LH released?
follicular phase
27
WHat happens during ovulation, leutal, and menstrual phase?
ovulation: follicle opens and is released leutal: becomes corpus leutum which releases estrogen and progesterone and implantation occurs and endometrium develops when there are increases in the hormone levels menstrual: negative feedback when the FSH and LH levels stop and endometrium breaks up
28
WHat occurs during implantation?
the GnRH is released from embryo and and keeps hormones fxning
29
what is present in urine if you are pregnant?
HCG
30
Describe three phases of ovarian cycle?
follicular phase where egg is developed and estrogen released, ovulation which releases egg, and leutal phase where corpus leutum has two hormones in its active form
31
WHat is metamorphasis
maturing developmentof species
32
Where does sperm go to at the start of fertilization
sperm goes to plasma membrane of egg.
33
what is the protein on the eggs PM the sperm attach for recognition?
zona pellucida
34
What enters the oocytes as both PM fuse together?
sperm nucleus
35
What makes penetration of sperm to egg after awhile impossible?
calcium ions
36
what is a cleavage and what structure does it form?what structure does it form at the end?
cell division without increase in number of cells; forms a blastomere
37
What are the two types of poles in an egg?
animal and vegetal pole; lower one is vegetal with all yolk
38
Match the following types cleavage... 1. polar a. perpendicular to poles 2. equitorial b. shifted based off how its aligned below 3. radial c. from pole to pole 4. spiral d. early cleavage in deutosterome; cell at both poles on top of each other
polar-c equitorial-a radial-d sprial-b
39
WHat occurs in indeterminate cleavgae
occurs in deutosteromes when blastomere leads to developmetn
40
What occurs in determinate cleavage?
occurs in protostomes when cell makes embryo
41
Define morula, blastula, and gastrula.
morula-solid ball of cells blastula- hollow ball of cells due to cavity and becomes a blastula gastrula- cells going into blastula to produce two layers
42
What does blastula become in protostome?
mouth and in deutostome the anus
43
Where does archentoeron open to?
forms as the center of gastrulation inside endoderm
44
what is the extra embryonic membrane made from?
out of amniotes in embrypo
45
WHat structure does chorion develop into?
placenta
46
WHat is its fxn in birds and reptiles?mammals?
in reptiles it is used for gas exchange and in mammals it is used for implantation into endometrium
47
WHat is the layer under the choroin?WHat structure does it become in mammals? what is its fxn in reptiles and birds?
allantois-->umbilical cord; wastes storage
48
What is the fxn of amnion?
the amnion covers the amniotic cavity and protects embryo and provides shock absorbance
49
Where do nutrients come from in embryotic mammals?
placenta
50
Where do nutrients come from in birds and reptiles?
yolk sac
51
WHat is organogenesis
organs developing
52
Where does the notochord form from?
dorsal part of mesoderm
53
What does the neural tube become?
central nervous system from ectoderm cells
54
What does the neural crest become?
become teeth bones which go on top of neural tube and becomes peripheral nervous system
55
When does neuralation begin?
it begins after 3 weeks of development
56
What do you need for development in amphibians
grey crescent
57
In gastrulation process, where is the blastoporeand what does it contain?
blastopore is in the grey crescent which becomes dorsal lip; contains vegetal pole with yolk
58
Where is the blastula located in bird?
its a flat disk on top of yolk
59
what is a primitive streak?
its a straight line that makes the blastopore
60
WHat two things does a blastocyst contain?
trophoblast and embryonic disk
61
What process is the trophoblast responsible for?
implantation into endometrium
62
What does the embryonic disk form?
its a mass of cells that ends up going to one end of pole and flattens
63
WHy does egg cytoplasm contribute to cell differentiation?
there is unequal distribution with cleavage
64
WHy does induction occur?
thru influence of other cells
65
WHat are the cells that influence by inducing a chemical to other cells that would stimulate developemtn of notochord?
organizers
66
WHat are homoetic genes? | How many nucleotides are there?
turns onn/offgenes that affect others for development; there are 180 nucleotides
67
What are sex organs called?
gonads
68
Give two examples of hermaphrodites?
hydra and earthworm
69
what are fxns of estrogen and progesterone?
estrogen: maturation, developemnt of endometrium progesterone: released from corpus leutum
70
Why does menopause occur?
decline in FSH and LH levels
71
Describe the acrosomal process?
sperm hits rediata of ovum and acrosome contacts with zona pellucida which then forms a sperm tube in ovum
72
How many zygotes are there in monozygotic twins
one which become two embryo
73
Differemntiate between dizygotic and monozygotic twins
dizygotic: two zygotes and different placenta, amnion, and different implantation
74
Match the following: 1. ectoderm a.hair, nose, skin 2. mesoderm b. digestiv/resp. liver, pancreas 3. endoderm c. muscle, skel, sex organ, circulatory system, kidney
ectoderm-hair nose skin mesoderm-mucles skel, sex organ endoderm-dig/resp, liver
75
WHat is a spina bifida?
when neural tube doesnt close
76
what occurs at end of 8 weeks in first trimester?
major organs develop
77
what organs form 22 days after first trimester?
heart, eye, limb gonad, and liver form
78
How long does the limb grow after seventh week?
9 cm long
79
what grows to become about 33cm at second trimester?
amnion
80
What two systems of body is developing in third trimester?
immune system and brain
81
what occurs during labor?
cewrvix dilates, fetus sac breaks, baby comes out via many contractions
82
How is teratogens caused? What does it lead to?
caused by H- ions and leads to malnutrition, radiation in babaies
83
what is experimental embryology?
USING ANTIGENS TO STUDY STEM CELLS and investigate embryo FUTURE PROBLEMS AS DIAGNOSIS
84
Name 8 taxonomic sections in order?
1. Domain, 2. Kingdom 3. Phylum 4. Class 5. Order 6. Family 7. Genus 8. SPecies
85
Distinguish euk/prok flagella and nucleuc
euk flagella: 9+2 arrangement prok flagella: flagellin euk nucleus:nucleus with DNA prok nucl: no nulceus but a circular DNA
86
Who gets E from inorganic substance and who gets E from by light?
chemoautorophs; photoauto
87
Define Obligate, Anaerobe, Aerobe, and facultative anaerobe
Obligate: makes Oxygen Anaerobe: cannot make oxygen facultative anaerobe: can live with or without oxygen
88
WHat component in PM and cell wall do archae have?
polysaccharides in cell wall and glycerol ether lipid in cell membrane
89
Where do methanogens live?
live in env of no oxygen and make methane
90
WHat are 2 extremophiles?
halophiles and thermpphiles
91
WHat temp do thermopjhiles reside
60-80 Celcius
92
WHat are bacteria cell wall made of?
peptidoglycan
93
What are the three basic shapes of bacteria?
cocci, spirali, bacili
94
Describe what the prefixes diplo, staphyl, and strepto mean.
diplo: duplexes strepto: chains staphyl: clusters
95
WHichj of the following has thin cell wall; gra, negative or positive
negative
96
WHat type of bacteria are photosyntheitc, no flagella, and no organelles? Name an example.
cyanobacteria, blue green algae
97
WHat do chemoautotroph convert nitric oxide to?
NO3
98
WHat type of bacteria live mutually with plants
N2 fixing bacteria
99
What is shape of spirochetes?
spiral/coiled
100
WHere do protist get energy from and what pigment do they have?
get energy from phototsynthesis and examples are chlorophyll A
101
WHich algae protist have two flagella are bioluminescentand send nerve toxins?
dino flagellates
102
Which has flagellated sperm and is an example of seaweed?
Brown algae
103
WHich have 1-3 flagella, and their PM dont have cellulose
euglenoid
104
WHat is Euglenoids eyespotand pellicles function?
phototaxis
105
WHat are diatoms shells made of?
siO2
106
what is the pigment of rhodophyta that gives away its red color?
phycobilin
107
what is chlorophytas cell wall made of?
cellulose
108
Match three forms of sexual rep. 1. isogamous a. sperm and egg diff. in size 2. anisogamous b. egg stays in parent and sperm comes and hits it 3. oogamous c. sperm and egg are motile
isogamous-c anisogamous-a oogamous-b
109
which animal protist are amoebas? How do they move? How do they eat?
rhizopods; psedopoda, phagocytosis
110
what are the foramiferas shells made of?
calcium carbonate
111
what disease do apicomplexans make?do they make spores? Are they motile? What kind of relationship do they have?
malaria; they do make spores; they are not motile; they are animal parasites
112
Give an example of a ciliate?
paramecium
113
what two things are bodies of fungal protozoa full of?
filaments and spores
114
How did cellular slime mold become part of fungi kingdom?
it was part of protozoa but it had many nuclei
115
Hoew does a cellular slime mold become a slug? What is the top of a slug composed of?
the spores become amoeba which then become slug; the top of slug is called stalk and has a capsule
116
What do plasmodial slime mold consume?
its a mass of fungal protist that acts as a detrivore feeding on dead.
117
Describe how it becomes a plasmodium.
spores become amoeba then becomes plasmodium
118
Name 2 examples of oomycota. What are septa? WHy are oomycota coencytic?
parasites that include water mold, mildew and they have hyphae. These have no cell walla. Septa are the cell walls; They are coencytic because they have many nuclei
119
What are fungi cellwall made of?
chitin
120
What is haustoria?
the hyphae consisted in parasites that affect host
121
what is a plasmogamy?WHat type of reproduction is it?
dikaryotic hyphae in which two nuclei fuse; sexual reproudtcion
122
WHat is karyogamy?
two haploid fuse to make a diploid nucleus
123
what occurs during asexual reproduction?
fragementation in which hyphae part breaks off and budding occurs
124
what is the relationship between plants and fungi in which the fungi provides phosphate? What type of fungi does this?
mycchorizae; glomeromycota
125
Which fungi have septa? WHich do not?
Do have septa: ascomycota, basidiomycota | Dont have it: zygomycota, glomeromycota
126
Match the following: 1. Zygomycota a. mushroom 2. lichens b. cynabacteria 3. asidiomycota c. bread mold 4. basidiomycota d. mildew, yeast 5. deutromycota e. pennecillin
``` zygomycota-bread mold lichens-cyanobacteria asidiomycota-mildew, yeast basidiomycota-mushroom deutromycota-penecillin ```
127
What do lichens have mutualistic relationship with?
algae
128
what are fxns of rhizoids?
tissues for absorption that make plants stand up
129
how do plants stand up straight
they have varying tissues that hold mechanical support
130
what is the main life cycle of plants, sporophyte or gametophyte?
sporophyte
131
Match the following : bryophyta club mosses/spike lycophyta vascular plants pterophyta liverwort/hornwort tracheophyta flowering plant coniferphyta ferns angiosperm pines/firs/spruce
``` bryophyta-liverwort/hornwort lycophyta-club mosses/spike pterophyta-ferns tracheophyta-vascular plants coniferphyta-pines/firs/spruce angiosperm-flowering plants ```
132
what type of plant is lycophyta? What is the male organ and female organ called?
resurrection plant due to it being herbacious; male is antheridium and female is aarchegonium
133
what is the dominant generation of bryphyta?
gametophyte
134
where do ferns grow from?
rhizomes with big leaves
135
In pterophyta, whatr makes spores?
sporangia
136
why are horsetails structure rough?
because of silicon dioxide
137
what two types of cells do tracheophyte have?
phloem and xylem
138
how do tracheophyte conserve gas?
thru stomata
139
what do microsporangia and macrosporangia make?
micro makes microspores which become pollen grainand then become 1 tube cell and 2 sperm cellls; macro sporangia makes macrospores which then go to 4 haploid cells and 8 accessory pigments
140
what three things do micro spores eventually become?
1 tube cell and 2 sperm
141
what are integuments and where does it compose of?
2 tissue layers in mega sporangium. composed in ovule containing this megaspor.
142
what happens when pollenb gets to megasporangia?
forms a pollen tube
143
how is the tube connected to the egg?
thru a micropyle
144
what do integuments become eventually?
seed coat
145
what type of plant has th ebiggest group? Are the gymnosperms or angiosperms?
coniferophyta; gymnosperms
146
what are compo. of male and female parts of cone?
male: small cones female: large cones with the sporangia
147
how do they fertilize?
male pollen goes into wind and sperclei fertilizes the egg
148
match the following: cycads vines gnetophyte seeds with smell makes herb medicine gingko feathery/short
cycads-feathery cyclinder stout gnetophyte-vines ginkgo-herbal medicine
149
name female part of angiosperm and what are the two components
pistil; stigma and style
150
name the male part of angiosperm and its components
stamen; anther and stalk
151
what are pollinators attracted to
petals and sepals
152
how many nuclei does the megaspor. in ovule divide to
3 times forming eight nuclei, then becomes 2 polar nuclei and 6 to be embryo sac
153
what is in the micropyl end of embryo
1 egg and 2 synergid
154
when 2 cells travel down pollen tube, what do they fuse with and make
one cell fuses with polar body and makes endosperm and the other fuses with egg
155
how many tissue layers do animals usually have
2-3
156
what is it called when animal is diploblastic? triploblastic
diplo: 2 layers triplo: 3 layers
157
in dicot, how are veins of leaves? How is vascular bundle set out
dicot: veins are net veined, and vascular bundle is in a ring
158
in monocot , how are veins of leaves and the vascular bundle
its parallel and vascualr is randomly spread out
159
distinguish between radial and bilateral
radial symmetry means it can have front and backand bilateral is front back top and bottom
160
what is cephalization
alot of nerve tissue in head in bilateral species
161
what are two types of gastrovascular cavity
one with one opening and one with two. ow can coelem be motile
162
how can coelom be motile
thru mesoderm actions
163
describe what coelom, pseudo coelom, and acoelmate means
true coelom: has coelom pseudo: partially acoelom: no coelom
164
how do porifera bring in water? out water?
in water:choanocytes | out water: osculum
165
what type of cleavage do deutostomes have
radial cleavge
166
what type of cleavage do protostomes have
spiral cleavage
167
what are their spikule needles make of
calcium carbonate
168
what are some common cnidarians
jellyfish, sean anemones
169
Distinguish between medusa and polyp? a. Are they diploblastic/triploblastic b. what kind of symmetry c. how many openings does it have
medusa: floating umbrella polyp: cylindrical body a. diploblastic b. radial c. protostome
170
Name some platylhelminthes. a. Are they diplo/triplo b. What kind of symmetry c. what is their coelom structure?
flatworms, tapeworms a. triploblastic b. bilateral c. pseudocoelomate
171
what is the structure on rotfiers that allow them to eat/drink? a. Are they coelomate, pseudo, or acoelomate? b. what kind of symmetry do they have c. are they protostome or deutostrome d. are they diplo or triplo
cilia; a. pseudocoelates b. bilateral c. deutostome d. triploblastic
172
how many shells do bivalvia have? a. do they have open/close circulatory system b. how many layers do they have c. are they deutostome or protostome d. what kind of symettry does it have
2 shells a. open circulatory system b. three layers c. deutostome d. bilateral
173
where are the bivalve's mantels located?WHat do they release?
exoskeleton; release calcium carbonate
174
name some anellids. a. are they triplo/diplo b. deuto/proto c. what is their symmetry d. coelomates?
earthworms, leeches; a. triplo b. protostome c. bilateral d. coelom
175
``` name some arthropods. how are their limbs composed what are thei skeleton made of what two stages are in arthropods life cycle which stage conducts metamorphasis how many gut opening does it have what is the symmetry ```
``` spiders, crustaceans limbs are composed of joint appendages chitin two stages are larvae and nymph stage larvae 2 opening bilateral ```
176
what kind of texture does echinoderm have? a. how many gut openings? b. what is the symmetry and is it protostome or deutostome?
spiny; a. 2 gut opening b. deutostome and radial
177
name invertibrates and vertebrates a. what do the vertibrtes conserve and get rid of b. what forms the nervous system c. what is the function of the pharyngeal slit d. do they keep the muscular tail
invertebrates: lancelets, tunicate vertebrate: shark, fish, reptiles a. conserve the nerve cord and gets rid of notochord b. dorsal hollow nerve cord c. oxygen exchange d. no they lose it during embryonic development
178
what class is jawless fish
agnatha
179
what are some fish that have cartilage
lamprey and hagfish
180
what are ostheicytes? Do they have notochord? what gives them a bony appearance
bony fish that do not have notocord; cartilage
181
what is unique about amphibeans? a. how do they breathe? b. how many chambers in the heart does it have
they live in water and land a. gills b. 3
182
How do reptiles fertilize? a. are they homeo/poikilo thermic b. how many chambers does its heart have
internal fertilization; a. poikilo b. 3
183
are mammalian homeo/poikilo? | a. how do they feed their young?
they are homeo | a. thru their mammary glands
184
Match the following: monotremata-embryo goes from uterus to pouch marsupialia-lay eggs and has no nipples (platypus) placentalia-embryos are in uterus
monotremata-lay eggs and have no nipples marsuplaia- uterus to pouch placentalia-in uterus
185
how many chambers do aves have in their heart and are they homeo or poikilo?
4 chambers and are homeotherm
186
``` match the following: epithelial-deals with nervous system connective-lining of organs nervous-musculatory/skeletal muscle-bone and cartilage ```
epithelia-lining of organs connective-bone and cartilage nervous-nervous system muscle-skeletal
187
what is homeostasis?
sustaining internal environment of body
188
In negative feedback what is the receptor and change evaluated by?
by the integrator and the effectory that corrects it
189
What occurs in positive feedback
when there is an action that is increased tension in a condition
190
Distinguish between ecto therm and endo
ecto are cold blooded and endo generate their own heat.
191
what are some ways you generate own body
sweating, mucle contraction, metabolism
192
what system protects against dehydration, infection, and temperature? a. what does it help exit the blood b. where does air travel over to make sound
respiratory system a. helps carbon dioxide to exit blood b. over vocal cords
193
what are two ways ventilation can occur with the environment
skin and gills
194
what system is gas exchange conducted via gills
ventilation
195
describe how ventilation occurs in insects
via trachaea in which oxygen goes in and co2 comes out thru spiracles
196
write pathway of respiration from oral cavity to alveoli
air goes into nose then pharynx and larynx then trachae then epiglottis then 2 bronchi then bronchioles then alveoli
197
where does diffusion of gas occur
between alveoli and capillary
198
how many bronchi does right lung and left lung have respectively`
2 in left and 3 in right
199
when does carbon dioxide become HCO3? what is the enzyme
when co2 is in plasma thru carbonic anhydrase
200
what causes lung volume to increase during contraction
as diaphragm and muscles contract due to the phrenic nerve
201
what happens when muscles relax
air comes out and diaphragm decreases
202
what occurs to the thoracic cavity and pressure when you exhale
thoracic decreases and pressure increases
203
when does blood pH decrease?
increased levels in HCO3 and CO2
204
what are chemoreceptors responsible for
check carotid artery to see the intercoastal and diaphrgm muscles to increase respiratory rate
205
why do chemoreceptors check the carotid artery
to see intercoastal and diaphragm muscles to increase respiration rate
206
what do surfactants assist in
help in lung collapse prevention and surface tension for alveoli
207
what does the medulla control?WHat occurs as carbon dioxide increases and hydrogen ions?
controls breathing; increase levels means it starts to inhale/exhale
208
match the following: total lung cap.-amt of air inhaled/exhaled in maximum conditions tidal volume-air is still in lungs after exhalation inspiratory reserve volume-amt of air left after max cond. expiratory reserve volume- how much air is moving per breath vital capacity-total amt of air lungs can withstand residual volume-how much air still inhaled after inhalation
tota lung cap-total amount of air lungs can withstand tidal volume-how much air is moved in one breath inspiratory reserve volume-amt of air still inhaled after resting inhalation expiratory reserve volume-air is still in lungs after exhalation vital capacity- amt of air that is inhaled and exhaled in max conditions residual volume-amt of air left after maximal exhalation
209
what fluid does the blood in hemolymph go to tissues
hemocyl
210
what are ostia? what do they provide entry to?
little holes in heart that make entry to hemolymph
211
Distinguish sizes of ventricles and atria
atria are thin and ventricles are thick
212
when ventricles contract, what valve shuts
tricuspid valve
213
when the ventricles relax, what valve shuts
semilunar valve
214
why is left ventricle muscular than the right ventricle
because of greater systemic resistance in left ventricle
215
what is rhythmic contraction of the heart called? how is it regulated?
cardiac cycle; regulated thru autorhythmic cells
216
what do the AV nodes send their impulse to?
thru a bundle of purkinge fibers
217
distinguish between parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system
parasympathetic deals with decreased heart rate and symp. deals with increase
218
what hormone is released via medulla
epinephrine
219
if you have Blood A, what antigen and antibody you sue
antigen A and antibody B
220
if you have blood B, what antigen and antibody you use
antigen B and antibody A
221
if you have AB, what antigen and antibody you use
antigen A and B; no antiboddy
222
if you have blood O, what antigen and antibody you use
no antigen and A and B antobody
223
what is universal donor
blood O
224
what is universal acceptor
blood AB
225
what is Rh+
positive for Rh factor in blood
226
what happens when pregnant mother is Rh-?
The mother with the Rh negative is affected by the baby but the antigen goes to the mother thru placenta when you have another baby with Rh positive. it causes erythroblastosis fetalis
227
what drug stops the killing
rhogam stops it
228
what is different between systole and diastole? WHat valves close in each of these?
systole is when ventricles contract and the blood goes thru the pulmonary artery and closes the AV valve; diastole is when the ventricle relaxes and semi lunar vakves close
229
what is cardiac output
when left ventricle pumps blood in one minute
230
what causes blood to move thru arteries?veins?
hydrostatic pressure; adjacent skeletal movement
231
what are the walls of capillaries made of?
endothelium
232
what is the lymnphatic system? WHere are the ducts located
lymph moves thru lymp vessels and returns it to circulatory system thru two ducts in the shoulder area
233
How much hemoglobin does red blood cells have? How many oxygen can hemoglobin bind to at once
250 ml of hemoglobin and can bind to 4 oxygen
234
What converts fibrinogen to fibrin
platelets
235
how much is plasma part of blood
55 percent
236
what does plasma consist of?
salt, resp gases, hormones
237
where are erythrocytes formed
bone marrow in stem cells
238
what allows them to get out of the bone marrow? Where is it located?
erythropeoiton in kidneys
239
what dont red blood cells have?Where do they mature? For how long?
mitochondria; mature in spleen for 120 days
240
how does a platelet plug form
clot occurs when platelet and collagen combine in broken vessel area. thrombopl;astin releases and the prothrombin gives out the thrombin to join thromboplastin. The thrombin makes fibrinogen so fibrin can later on cover the vessel
241
what does prothrombin make and then combine with? What makes fibrinogen?
prothrombin makes thrombin and combines with thromboplastin; this thrombin gives rise to fibrnigen
242
what fluid is released as clotting occurs
serum
243
how does warfarin stop clotting
takes out vitamin K to stop making more thrombin
244
what does the excretory system maintain
maintaining the water regulation and disposing wastes
245
what is the process called when you regulate body temperature when the evaporation of body sweat removes heat?
perspiration
246
Between marine water fish and fresh waterfish, which is hyper/hypo osmotic, urinates more, and has more salt in the fish than water
marine fish is hypoosmotic, urinates less, and has less salth in it than water
247
``` Match the following excretory system: flame cells-mammals nephridia-insects malphigian tubules-flat worms kidneys-earthworm ```
flame cells-flatworms nephridia-earthworms malphigian tubules-insects kidneys-mammals
248
WHat kind of system does flame cell occupy? How does it exit thru pores
tube system; fluid becomes filtered and the cilia moves it thru pores
249
what is the structure in which fluid moves via collecting tube where reabsorption takes place
nephron
250
where does the fluid come from in malphigian tubules and go to
comes from hemolymph and goes to hindgut
251
what are nephrons
filter and make urine
252
what are the arteries leaving and entering glomerulus called
leaving: efferent arteriole entering: afferent arteriole
253
what happens in collecting duct
where nephrons are passed to the center of kidney into renal pelvis
254
where does the urine travel after collecting duct
the ureter which then goes to bladder and then to urethra
255
what substance gets pushed out of bowman capsule
only water and solutes, not red blood cells
256
when does water move out of loop of henle? solute? | a. where does the solute accumulate after leaving loop?
when it goes down loop; solute moves out moving up loop | a. interstitual fluid
257
what is the function of ADH
it increases salt and water concentration and water permeability in collecting ductfor reabsorption
258
what is the function of aldosterone
increases sodium and water absorption and sodium to move out of distal convulatedtubule
259
how do aquatic animals get rid of nh3? how about mammals
thru water directly; by converting it to urea in which there is decreased water to be let out in urine
260
Do ADH and aldosterone increase or decrease urine making
decrease urine and increase bp
261
where does nutrient reabsorption occur
proximated convoluted tubule
262
where does secretion of substance into filtrate occur
distal convoluted tubule
263
when does osmolarity increase
when going down medulla and when sodium/chlorine ions go in/out of nephron
264
what is a counter-current multiplier system
when energy is used find out the concentration gradient which makes interstitual fluid hyperosmolar to nephron
265
what does diuretics do
make urine and increases its levels;
266
Which medication helps to stop sodium from being reabsorbed in the ascending loop?
loop diuretics
267
WHich medication helps to stop sodium chloride transport in distal convoluted tubule
thiazide loop
268
what is the pH of urine
7.4
269
WHich acid/base disorder affects pH of blood with the difference in HCO3 concentration
metabolic
270
what is the difference between alkalosis and acidosis
acidosis makes blood acidic and increases the carbon dioxide partial pressure and decreases levels of HCO3 alkalosis is when it increases blood pH and decreases partial pressure of Carbon dioxide and increases HCO3
271
which type of digestion occurs in vesicles which lysosome enzymes joins the vacuole
intracellular digestion
272
whivh type of digestion deals with the lumen and food break up
extracellular
273
how does the mechanical digestion work
food breaks down in the mouth into a bolus
274
what is the function of a epiglottis
heps stop certain liquid and solids from entering
275
what is the movement that assists in food traveling from esophogus to stomach
peristalsis
276
what two things does the stomach release; What does the stomach walls compose of
gastric juices and HCl; gastric mucosa
277
how many liters can the stomach store
two to four
278
what is chyme made of; what is the function of HCl in the stomach
food and water and gastric juices; to kill protein and other bacteria
279
how is pepsin formed
thru various proteins by pepsinogen and is activated by HCl
280
what occurs if bacteria cant make mucus
can cause peptic ulcers
281
where does most of digestion take place?How long is it
the duodenum in SI whichis first 25 cm
282
where does the chyme enter in the first segment of SI
pyloric sphincter
283
what is the enzyme used in SI
proleotic enzymes which break protein using amino peptidase
284
what are the enzymes used for digestion that are located in pancreas? What are their functions
lipases which break fat, amylase which break starch, and chemotrypsin which synthesize protein
285
WHere in pancreas do the enzymes get released from
from pancreatic duct which goes to duodenum
286
WHat do the enzymes in pancreatic duct want to neutralize
HCl
287
what chemical does pancreas secrete
HCO3which then goes to SI thru the duct
288
what does the liver make? WHere is it stored
liver makes bile and is stored in gall bladder; the bile goes thru bile duct and to the pancreatic duct
289
how does blood get to liver
blood in the digestive system goes to liver thru hepatic portal system and releases the nutrients
290
what does villi in SI function as
absorption and increase surface area
291
what are the villi made of
lacteals and capillaries
292
ow do amino acids and sugar travel in circulatory system? How do fatty acid/glycerol travel
the aa/sugar travel into the blood thru capillary because of Energy req. fatty acid and glycerol travel into the lymphatic systemand become triglycerides
293
How long is the LI; what is its function
1.5 cm long; releases feces thru anus in the rectum
294
what does the appendix do
cecum and digests cellulosre
295
what are the function of parietal cells and chief cells
the parietal cells secrete HCl and kill pathogen and chief cells are in gastric glands and convert pepsinogen to pepsin
296
Between esophogus and abdominal cavity, which has positive pressure?
esophogus has negative and abdominal cavity has positive
297
what is the gastroesophageal reflux dis due to? WHat has low pressure
it is due to periodically reflux that occurs of gastric juice; the sphincter of esophogus has low pressure so that the material in the stomach can come up
298
what does lactose intolerant mean
not having lactose to break milk, so lactose isnt digested and by bacteria it is
299
which hormone in stomach is made to release pepsinogen and histamine; When is it activated
gastrin; when food is in stomach
300
what is secretin made from; what does it produce; when is it activated
duodenum and S cells in the intestine; bicarbonate and is activated once food goes in duodenum
301
where is cholecystokinene made in
in Small intestine and lives in I cells of two upper segments of Si (duodenum and ileum)
302
what is a function of neuroglia
they support and protect neuron
303
which neurons are efferent and afferent
sensory neurons are afferent and motor are efferent
304
what does it mean when plasma membrane is polarized
when charge in and out is different usually more sodium out and potassium in.
305
why is charge in the cell more negative
proteins and nucleis acids
306
what is the status of cell being in resting potential
if its 70 mV inside more negative than out`
307
what occurs during action potential
when Na+ channels open and rush in (-70-->0) and is depolarized. WHen it is at -55 its threshold is so complete and depolatization occurs.
308
what is reached when All or Nothing happens?
threshold membrane potential
309
what happens during repolarization
when potassium ions channels open and move out and sodium gates close
310
when does hyperpolarization happen
before potassium gates close
311
what is the period when neuron goes to normality
refractory period
312
what happens when calcium gates open
influx of calcium ions are present after action pot occurs
313
distinguish between excitatory post synaptic neuro transmitter and inhibitatory
Excit: when sodium gates open and dep. generates inh: potasium gates open and hyper polar causes it but AP is hard to generate
314
how are neurotransmitters degraded
broken by enzymes
315
what does cholinesterase do
degrades acetocholine which is at the junction between motor neuron and muscle
316
where do gaba live
brain neurons
317
what is a reflex arc
have involuntary response to stimulus and doesnt use brain
318
what innervates thoracic viscera
the vagus nerve and acetopcholine does as parasympathetic restores normailty after stress
319
what are the grey and white matter
grey: outter portion of cell | white matter: innermyelinated part
320
match the following: prosencephelon-midbrain; visual/ auditory diencephelon-forebrain; cerebral cortex/memory mesencephelon-hindbrain; cerebellum, pons rhombocephelon-forebrain; hypo/thalamus
prosencephelon-forebrain; cerebral cortex/memory diencephelon-hypo/thalamus mesencephelon-midbrain; visual/auditory rhombocephelon-hindbrain; cerebellum, pons
321
what are grey and white matter full of in spinal cord
grey: nerve bodies white: motor/sensory neurons
322
wherre do sensory nerve enter? where do motor nerves exit from
thru dorsal horn and stay in dorsal rot ganglia; ventral horn
323
how is myelin made in CNS and in PNS
from oligodendrocytes in CNS and from schwann cell sin PNS
324
what type of cells deal with the blood brain barrier
astrocytes
325
what ttype of cells take away waste from NS?
microglia
326
what two areasdo ependymal cells associate with
with cerebral spinal fluid and ventricles
327
what type of cells are neural cells occupied by
satellite cells in PNS
328
What happens as a result of the diameter of axon increasing
its heavily myelinated and impulse travels faster
329
what does curare inhibit? does it involve constriction
nicotine receptors where relaxation and paralysis occurs but no constriction
330
what does the botulism toxin stop from coming to post synaptic cell?
prohibits entry of acetylcholine coming from presynaptic cell
331
what is the result of anticholinesterase not breaking down acetylcholine
uncoordinated movement
332
what is a plexus
nerve fibrers
333
what are microfilaments made of
actin
334
what is a function of an endo nuclease
to break off the bonds within a nucleotide
335
whatis a difference between Atrial natriuretic peptide and an renin angiotensin aldosterone system
ANP: decreases bp and dilates vessels while RAAS increases bp and constricts it
336
Would there be a fire of an action potential if the graded potential summation is lower than the actual threshold potntial
No
337
what is a function of a surfactant
to lower surface tension within alveoli to ease inspiration
338
what is a haplotype
when genes are linked and inherited together
339
Does a echinodermata have a mantle? What are their endoskeleton made of
No mantle and are made of calcium carbonate
340
what do gram negative and positive stain respectively? How many membranes do gram negative have
neg: pink; pos.: purple | 2
341
what layer is the notochord derived from? what does the notochord lead to
mesoderm; neural plate from endoderm
342
what is a founder effect
when remaining genes after a disaster get passed on to following generations, or new population in which sometimes lacks diversity and variation
343
what is habituation
when animal ignores a useless stimulus
344
Does aquatic biomes contribute or consume most of earths oxygen?
contributes due to the photosynthesizing factor of algae releasing oxygen
345
match the following description with type of muscle skeletal: striated; multi nucleated, voluntary smooth: 1 or 2 nucleated and is striated cardiac: not striated, 1 nucleus, lines digestive tract, uterine
match the following description with type of muscle skeletal: striated; multi nucleated, voluntary smooth: 1 or 2 nucleated and is striated cardiac: not striated, 1 nucleus, lines digestive tract, uterine
346
what do t-tubules carry
carry action potential to cell and line the sarcolemma
347
what do sarcoplasmic reticulum carry
calcium ions
348
what is the function for T-system
ion flow
349
how can many nuclei be seen via the sarcolemma
swelling and sometimes live off edge of cell
350
what are sarcomeres mad eof
myofibrils
351
what are thin/thick filaments called? which is made of globular protein
thin-actin thick-myosin; actin
352
what two molecules cover the actin binding sites
troponin and tropomyosin
353
what line does the actin live in? Where do myosin live?
I band; H zone
354
WHat is the striation due to
overlap filament
355
``` match the following: m line: contains actin I band: has myosin h zone: center of sarcomeres a band: seperates sarcomeres z: also has myosin ```
``` m line: center of sarcomere i band: contains actin h zone: has myosin a band: has myosin and some actin z line: seperates sarcomere ```
356
when does muscle contract
when atp joins myosin and becomes adp
357
what does the calcium ion bind to to make binding site exposed
troponin
358
what forms the crossbridge
the actins exposed site joins in with myosin to make a cross bridgeand then the adp is gone
359
what happens to the Z line when it contracts
z line moves inward and contracts
360
what breaks the crossbridge
when new atp binds
361
what happens when there is no atp in the muscle contracting system
myosin and actin would not break
362
what is released when an Action potential flows past the T-tubules? WHere does it go?
acetylcholine which goes into synaptic cleft
363
What happens when depolarization occurs in muscles?
calcium ions are released
364
What does calcium ions bind to in the msucle and what is exposed?
troponin of actin and tropomyosin is exposed
365
What is a pyramidal system?
there is no synaptic break and causes fast impulse to flow through skeletal muscle while extrapyromidial system is somatic motor commands resulting in unconsciousness
366
What is rigor mortis?
all muscles go stiff at time of death
367
match the following 5 types of contraction isotonic-dynamic where fiber and tension increases dynamic-tension is constant as muscle decreases concentric-length is constant and tension increases eccentric-dynamic where fibers decrease and tension increases isometric-length and tension changes
isotonic-muscle decreases tension is constant dynamic-length and tension changes concentric-is a dynamic process where fibers decrease and tension increases eccentric-dynamic where fiber and tension increase isometric-length doesnt change but tenson increases
368
what is a stimulated response that has a latent, contraction, and relaxation period
twitch
369
what is a absolute refractory period
when there is a relaxation period where muscle cannot respond to stimuli
370
what is it called when the muscle fibers portray a few stimuli and can only contract
temporal summation
371
distinguish between tetanus and tonus
tetanus: when muscle does not rerlax because it keeps contracting tonus: occurs when muscle can contract in limited amount
372
what is a pyruvid
is when pyruvic acid gets converted from glucose int he skeleton muscles.
373
what does lactate dehydrogenase do
makes lactate acid
374
what is the cori cyle a result of
stress and exercise when lactate acid forms from glucose
375
what does the muscle cells in glucose make
glycogen for energy
376
what deos creatine phosphate provide
increased energy for organisms
377
how do two hormones move to target cells
via blood
378
what releases hormones that connect the pit of hypothalamus
neurosecretory cells
379
what 2 hormones do posterior pituitary secrete and what are the functions
ADH for increasing reabsorption and oxytocin which associates with childbirth and increase in milk in mammary glands
380
what are tropic hormones
In the Anterior Pit. they release their hormones which are activated by giving out the hormones from neurosecretory cells
381
what is acromegaly
too much growth hormone of bone and skull
382
distinguish 2 cells of islet of langarhans
cells in the pancreas; Bcells--> release insulin when glucose in blood increases and makes liver absorb it to make glycogen alpha cell--> secrete glucagon when glucose is decreased
383
Distinguish between PTH and Calcitonin
PTH: increases calcium in blood and activates reabsorption thru kidneys and releases it via bones Calcitonin since there is alot of calcium it reduces calcium levels
384
Name the steps how hormone can activate genes in nucleus
A hormone goes thru plasma membrane, the cytoplasm, and to the nucleus. It first binds to a receptor protein in the nucleus which then activates genes It can also bind to a receptor on the plasma membrane and stimulate secondary messenger (for example: CAMP which causes cellular changes and IP3 which is made from Plasma Membrane and allows ER to release calcium ions
385
What secondary messenger hormone stimulate when it binds to receptor? what does IP3 do
Camp and IP3 makes ER release Ca
386
WHat is prolactin
direct hormone for milk in females
387
WHat hormone makes glucocortoids
ACTH
388
WHat does TSH release
thyroxine from thyroid
389
Where is the ACTH released from
adrenal cortex and steroid hormones
390
WHat are the steroid hormones responsible for
to either transport transcortins in blood or determine which gene in nucleus of target cell will get transcribed
391
WHat is the LH associated with? What hormones does it release
deals with corpus leutum and releases progesterone and testosterone
392
what us FSh's role in men and women
men: allows seminiferous tubule to develop women: releases estrogen via follicle
393
WHat makes pain decrease
endorphins
394
what are two types of corticoids
glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids
395
what is a function of glucocorticoids? what does it decrease
raise glucose levels decrease protein synthesis
396
what hormone deals wth mineral corticoid
aldosterone which controls the levels of K+and Na+ and allows reabsorption of sodum and water and allows for increased bp and bv
397
which of these two is made from angiotennsin II and ANP
mineralocorticoids
398
How does cortical sex hormone play a role in men/women
for men it is androgens and for women its masculinitiy
399
what two hormones does adrenal medulla consist
norepinephrine and epinephrine which makes up the catecholamines
400
what does epinephrine convert
glycogen to glucose in liver
401
where in body is blood supply increase or decrease
it increases in muscles heart and brain and other systems it decreases such as digestive system
402
what happens in the hypothalamic hypophaseal portal
the releasing hormone enter the anterior pituatory via condensive csapillary through this
403
how is the ACTH released in the adrenal cortex
thru portal vein and glucocortoids increase
404
how is thyroid in kidneys and adults beneficial
help kids brain and growth and in adults help in metabolism
405
where are T4/T3 made from
from thyroglobulin and thyroid cells
406
what compound in the thyroglobulin makes the T4/T3?
iodinated tyrosine
407
WHat is 20% of T3 come from
from T4 to T3 thru 5' monodeiodase
408
what is cretinism
in babies which deal with mental retardism
409
what is hypothyroidism and how can it be treated
no thyroid hormones which are treated by animal derivative productsand decreases bp
410
how is hyperthyroid treated
too much thyroid which can be treated by anti thyr supplement
411
what can form in the neck
goiter
412
what is diabetes due to
result of decreased insulin and hyperglycemia which is increased blood glucose
413
which diabetes has islet cell antibodies and insulin decrease? which produce alot of glucose
islet cell antibodies and insulin decrease--> type 1 | produces alot of glucose--> type 2
414
where do you have exocrine and endocrine system and what is the difference
in the pancrease and the exocrine in which cells are associated with digestion in small intestine and endocrine are associated with alpha and beta cells
415
what hormone is associated with renin? what does renin produce
aldosterone; angiotensinogen to angiotensin I and then angiotensin II
416
what protein does aldosterone make
erythropeoitin to make rbc
417
what does the pineal gland release? how does this lighten the skin
melatonin which lets out circadian rhythms. lighten skinn via pigment granules in melanophore
418
in a peptide hormone, what do first messenger do
bind to receptors of target cells secreting certain enzymes; these make atp and convert to cyclic amp
419
describe the cascade effect
the conversion to cyclic amp relays the message from outside to the cytoplasm
420
describe the method of steroid hormone
they enter phospholipid bilayer and respond to receptors in target cell in the cytoplasm and goes into expressing genes in nucleus forinstance: estrogen and aldosterone
421
what is the main first line of defense
skin, a physical barrier wehich has oily acidic via sweat gland
422
how isa it oily and acidic
sweat gland
423
where are antimicrobial protein composed in
tear and sweat , cilia which take away bad pathogens
424
what two types of hormones are there
steroid or peptide
425
name some examples of peptide hormones
ADH and long-insulin
426
what are the functions of gastric juices and symbiotic bacteria
gastric juices:kill pathogens in the stomach | symbiotic bacteria: take away bacteria in digestive system
427
what are phagocytes? name some examples
(i.e. leukocytes); take in foriegn objects
428
what is a compliment
20 protein which attract phagocytes and kill cells
429
what are substances that get released when cells get affected by viruses
interferons
430
what do they alert other cells to do
to produce defending proteins
431
when an inflammatory response occurs what do basophils secrete? what does it cause
histamine; vasodilationwhich causes redness/increased temperature
432
what is a MHC
mechanism that tells apart self and nonself and is composed of glycoproteins
433
what are the two types of lymphocyte
T and B cells
434
where do B cells grow and produce?
grow and produce in bone; they get in contact with antigen
435
what do plasma B cells make
antibody that joins with antigen
436
what do memory cells do
dont release antobody but help avoid invasion after first
437
where do T cells grow and produce
produce in bone but grow in thymus gland
438
what does the receptor of T cell do? What 2 cells do T make
they recognize between self and nonself and make 2 cells the killer cells, which kill toxic cells and helper t cells , which makes more kill t cells
439
how do T cells interpret mixed markers? give example
they can be nonself by T cell and can viewit as nonself by MHC on plasma membrane
440
what are 5 types of immunoglobulin
A,D,E,G. and M
441
why does clonal selection occur
as a result of B cells binding to antigen and T cells binding to nonself cellsdue to a foriegn substance
442
where do anti bodies come from
bacteria and fungi
443
what do vaccines promote
production of memory cells
444
what is passive immunity
when antibodies of infected person goes to new infection
445
whenever is there no immune response
there is no immune response if antibodies decrease in blood circulation
446
whatis innate immunity
initial defense against pathogens such as fever, white blood cells, enzymes, etc
447
in adaptative immunity, when cells become contact with antigen, what do they make to increase in repsonce
they make memory cells stimulated
448
when transplantation occurs, what does recipient do during immunity? what do drugs do that can affect immune system
affects donor organs but when drugs are given to decrease antgen response it can affect immune system
449
when do cell-mediated response occur
in response to T cells
450
what do helper t cells combine with
they make killer t cells to kill nonself and helper t cells that join with macrophages that has engulfed the pathogen
451
what do t cells release which then proliferate after contact with engulfing pathogens
interleukins and use positive feedback to proliferate
452
match the following leukocytes granulocytes-come present when you have asthma/allergy neutrophils-large WBC that let out macrophage eosinophil-come to injury and collect antigen basophil-attract other WBC and let out cytokines monocyte-release histamine/allergic rxns
granulocyte-come to injury and collect antigens neutrophils-present as injury occurs and attract other WBC and stick to cytokines eosinophil-come present when you have asthma basophil-allergic rxns, release histamine monocytes-large WBC that let out macrophages
453
how can t cells be destroyed
by not being responsive to MNC
454
what kind of protein does t cells have and what do t cells kill
have CD8 protein and respond to MHC1 and kill the tumor cells they are infected
455
what kind of protein do helper t cells have and kill
CD4 protein and associate with MHCII and kill nonself cells
456
what decreases t cells after infection
T regulatory cells
457
what do humoral response respond to
antigens
458
whatis function of integument
gives protection to different bacteria that enter thru top skin layer called skin microbiome
459
what is the function of sebacious gland? what is the pH
release oil and sweat which protect from bacteria and have a pH of 4-6
460
distinguish between epidermis and dermis
dermis supplys blood and most of differentiated cells, while epiderm contains keratinocytes which are water proff cells
461
what is the purpose of hair
the hair conserves body heat and avoids sweat contact from skin; secretions of mucus avoids bacteria to be let in skin layers
462
what is evolution
study of change of a organism
463
differentiate between micro and macro evolution
micro: change of populations of organisms and macro is patterns of change in related species
464
what is the study of relationship between organisms
phylogeny
465
who developed theory of evolution
Lamark
466
describe use and disuse theory
use: parts that were advantage were used disuse: parts that were not were not used
467
why is inheritance of acquired trait false
DNA from sex cells only does pass down from generation
468
what topic did darwin initiate
natural selection
469
what theory involves the relationship between natural selection and genetics
synthetic theory of evolution
470
what is plaeontology?what do some of these fossils contain
study of fossils to determine pre-existant creatures before time; include hand print, foot, body features
471
what is the process that brought minerals to make cells become conform
petrification
472
what is biogeography
when geogeaphy is used to study the location of different organisms
473
what is embryology
study of difference in development of species
474
distinguish between homologous and analogous structures
homologous: have same ancestor
475
what kind of structure is wings of bird and fly? how about flipper of whale and wing of bat
homologousl analogous
476
what is molecular biology
using DNA/genome to study evolution
477
name the arguments for natural selection
resources limited, variation, survival of fittest, competition, populations can reproduce, only favorable traits in population, variation is heritable
478
define stabilizing, directional, disruptive and sexual selection and give examples of each
stabilizing: traits dont favor extreme or unusual (ie height in human) directional: when you favor towards one extreme trait (iemoth color) disruptive: when environment favors both extreme and unusual trait, but no common ones (ie weed height) sexual: mating diff. and dep[ends on appearance
479
name three reasons variations occur via sexual reproduction
mutatons of alleles, sex rep, independent assortant of alleles and random fusion of gametes
480
what is diploidy
offspring recieves 2 alleles from parent
481
how does outbreeding contribute to variation
the alleles form as a result of two seperate species breeding
482
what allows diff phenotypes to exist in gene population
balanced polymorphism
483
whatis heterozygous advantage? example? what disease does it relate to?
when the heterozygous allele has advantage over homozygous recessive (ie sickle cell anemia- malarial resistance)
484
why does hybrid vigor occur
due to inbreeding
485
what is it called when recessiveis advatage
frequency dependent allele
486
what causes changes in population
allele frequencies
487
distinguish between gene flow and drift
flow: new and old alleles get introduced drift: increase/decrease in allele frequencies
488
what is difference between founder and bottleneck effect
FOunder: allele frequency not same as original Bottleneck: original frequency is not longer present due to natural disaster
489
what two things does non-random mating include
inbreeding and sexual selection
490
what is another word for genetic equilibrium? Define it.
Hardy weinburg eq; frequenies are constant throughout generations
491
what causes microevolution
Natural selection, mutations, genetic drift and pool
492
what are p and q? p^2 and q^2?
p and q are allele frequencies and the squares are homozygotic genotypes
493
Why does speciation occur
species forming due to enviornmental changes , mutation, migration, genetic drift/flow
494
What is difference between allopatric and sympatric speciation
allopatric: formation of new species with a barrier
495
How does natural selection play into balanced polymorphism
sympatric speciation without a barrier asscoiates with balanced polymorphism in which species with differenct traits thru NS separates them
496
where does hybridism occur
includes when 2 different species produce progeny in hybrid zone
497
what is adaptive radtiation
includes evolution from single ancestor
498
why cant some species interbreed when there isnt a barrier
reproductive isolation
499
what are 2 mechanisms for reproductive isolation
pre/post zygotic isolation
500
Match the following: behavior isolation-when male/female genetalic cannot be together mechanical isolation- time at which when and how they mate gametic isolation-they dont have contact with each other temporal isolation- exposure to gametes in enviornment has harmful effect to survive habital isolation can't recognize partners in mating because of wrong cortship
behavior isolation- cant recognize partners in mating due to wrong courtship ritual mechanical isolation- male/female genitalia cannot be together gametic isolation- exposure to gametes in env, has harmful effect to survive temporal iso- time at which relates to when and how they mate habital iso-dont have contact with each other
501
atch the follow: Hybrid inviability-hybrids make offspring that cant really produce Hybrid Breakdown- when zygote cant form progeny Hybrid sterility- when it reproduces sterile
Hybrid inviability- when zygote cant form progeny Hybrid Breakdown- hybrids make offspring that cant really produce hybris sterility- when it reproduces sterile
502
distinguish between punctuated eq. and phyletic gradualism
punctuated eq: evolution thru long periods of time and short big changes; gradualism: long period of short changes
503
what organisms were popular during paleozoic and mesozoic era
trilobites and dinosaurs
504
when did prehorse (dawn horse) evolve to sabor tooth, mammoth, gradualism or puctual
gradual
505
why were DNA bases of organisms similar in relation to comparitive biochemistry
Had similar enzymes in respiration
506
what was a good method to distinguish animals evolutionary patterns
blood samples
507
what are vestigial structure? Give example.
fxns that no longer are workin; appendix
508
``` match the following: heterotroph anaerobe: chemosynthetic bacteria autotrophic aerobe: humans autotrophic anaerobe: yeast heterotrophic aerobe: green plants ```
heterotroph anaerobe: yeast autotrophic aerobe: green plant autotrophic anaerobe: chemosynthetic bacteria heterotrophic aerobe: humans
509
what is a population
group of animals per area
510
what the relationship between organism and enviornment
ecosystem
511
what is a bioshphere
places where organisms reside
512
what is the difference between habitat and niche
habitat: where organism lives niche: resources in the environment
513
what is referred to the size of population
N
514
what is the total number of organisms per area
density
515
what is the term that describes how spread out the population is? what are three terms to describe dispersion
dispersal; random, uniform, clumped
516
what is the survivorship curve
organisms length of life
517
match the following: type 1-rodent; curve is constant type 2-oysters; die early type 3- humans; survive and die later on
type 1- humans; survive and die later on type2- rodent; curve is constant type 3- oysters; die early
518
What is the difference between biotic potential and carrying capacity
biotic pot: how much an organism can use respiration and grows carrying capacity: capacity at which animal lives
519
what is character shift displacement
some organisms get better resource than others
520
what isit called when 2 species can be at each others presence while being at 2 difference places in the same niche
realized niche
521
what occurs when 2 species diverge apart
development of new niche
522
how does parasite get its nourishment
from host
523
what is a parasitoid
when parasite lays eggs on host and dies from it
524
what do herbivores do
eat grass; grazers
525
name three symbiotic relationshop
mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism
526
whatis coevolution
one species evolves in response to other
527
what types of chemicals are released from plants that are harmful to the enviornment
secondary compounds
528
what is aposematic coloration
animals warn predator that they can bite and sting
529
Name/ Describe two types of mimicry
Mullerian: animal with defense blends with predator Batesian: without defense ''
530
what is it called when you have a change in composition of species
Ecological Succession
531
what is a climax community
community is at constant due to environment and other factors (biotic/abiotic) but can be affected by epidemic or disaster
532
what kind of species in habitat an area first
pioneer
533
what is the sere in grassland
dominant species(grass)
534
what are primary producers
autotrophs
535
what are primary consumers
herbvores
536
whivh part of trophic level recycle everything to goback to food cycle
detrivores
537
How much energy is used every trophic level
10 percent energy
538
which material cycle involves decomposition and respiration into atmosphere, fossil fuel production and for photosynthesis
Carbon cycle
539
which material cycle deals with excretion and decomposition into rocks and ocean sediments? what does it release tot he plants
phosphorus cycle; phosphoric acid which get absorbed to plants
540
which material cycle deals with plants aborsbing material due to transpiration, decomposition in air , water, etc.
Hydrologic cycle
541
which material cycle fixes nitrogen
nitric cycle
542
which biome has long leg animals decrease temperature than savannas no shelter for carnivores for protection
temp. grassland
543
which biome has cactii with less than 10 cm rain per year
desert
544
which biome has decrease amount of rain and have plants trees that are dispersed
savannah
545
where are temperate decidious forests located? what type of trees and animals does it have
Northeast; maple/oak/deer
546
distinguish between taigas and tundras
taiga: cold winter/hot summer, coniferous forest tundra: permafrost, thawy layer
547
what allows people to predict which animals inhabit an area
climax vegetation
548
why are aquatic biome more stable than land biome
constant temperature and oxygen levels
549
which biome includes pine, fir, and spruce
temperate coniferous forest
550
what happens as you go up a mountain
temperature increases
551
What is a cofactor
nonprotein molecules that assist enzymes (inorganic: vitamins, organic: metal ions)
552
What is the primary structure of protein
sequence of amino acids
553
What is the secondary structure of protein
3d shape resulting from hydrogen bonding between amino and carboxyl groups of adjacent amino acids (alpha helix, beta sheet)
554
What is the tertiary structure of protein
Noncovalent interactions between amino acid R groups | (H-bonds, ionic bonds, hydrophobic effect, disulfide bonds, van der waals
555
What is the quaternary structure of protein
shape of protein that is a grouping of two or more seperate peptide chains (hemoglobin)
556
What are the properties of water
Excellent solvent, high heat capacity, high heat of vaporization, ice floats, cohesion/surface tension, Adhesion
557
What are examples of dissacharides
sucrose (glu+fru), lactose (glu+gal), maltose (glu, glu)
558
What are examples of polysaccharides
Starch-stores energy in plant cells (alpha-glucose), Glycogen- stores energy in animal cells (alpha-glucose), Cellulose- structural molecules for walls of plant cells and wood, (B-glucose) Chitin- Nitrogen-containing group attached ring (B-glucose)
559
What is protein denaturation
secondary onward structure of protein is removed
560
``` Match the following: intertidal zone-depth upto 600ft neritic zone-photosynthesis; 250-600, plankton, fish/shark pelagic zone-dry/tidal; algae photic zone-open sea aphotic zone-dark/cold; heterotrophs ```
``` intertidal zone-dry/tidal; algae neritic zone-depth upto 600 ft; crabs pelagic zone-open sea photic zone- photosynthesis; 250-600, plankton, fish/shark aphotic zone- dark/cold; heterotrophs ```
561
what abiotic factors are contained in freshwater biomes
sun, oxygen, salinity
562
how do fish consume water in hypotonic enviornment
storing in the contractile vacuole
563
how does pollution affect freshwater biomes
death
564
what are biotic factors
organism/environment relationship
565
what is the rock and soil layer which can impact the organisms thru pH level of soil
substratum
566
how is water retained in the soil
depends in the structure
567
why do carnivornes have small digestive
digest fastly
568
why do reomra and shark share commensalism
remora sticks to surface of shark for food
569
what does a plants cuticle do
saves water
570
In poikilothermic animals is Energy absorbed or released to enviornment
poikilothermic are cold blood animals so E is releeasing to the environment
571
how does homeothermic animal save heat
homeothermic animal save energy thru fat and hair
572
what is osmoregulation
when animals sustain water input and output
573
how does virus act like an endoparasite
the virus enters host impairing the functions and performs DNA replication
574
what animal does saprophytic bacteria affect and what disease is the result
cattle; anthrax from diphteria
575
why do protists/fungi act as saprophytic organisms
feed on dead animals and release remnants into environment
576
name some examples of scavengers
hyenas; vultures
577
what do insects release from urea to save water
uric acid from urea
578
Distinguish between salt water fish and freshfish
saltwater fish: have less salt in them so they drink constantly an dmhave more salt go in freshwater salt: have more salt in them than the water and absorbs alot of salt and is hypoosmotic
579
define food web and food pyramid
food web: is there is abundance of food chains between animals which show who eats what food pyramid: when food moves thru the chain and releases energy
580
which has most energy top or bottom of pyramid
base of pyramid
581
as you go up pyramid does, does the mass and number of animals increase or decrease
decreases in mass and number of animals
582
what causes nitrogen to become nitrate in legumes
lightening
583
what happens when plants take in nitrate
becomes nucleic acid which goes to animals
584
name three ways how you know ecosystem is stable
1. if they are stable abiotic and biotic factors 2. Energy is going into syste of organisms to make organics compounds 3. there is regular flowing of material cycles
585
what two factors do dominant species look for
temperature and soil
586
What is a steroid
three 6-membered rings and one 5-membered ring
587
What makes up a nucleotide
nitrogen base, five carbon sugar deoxyribose, phosphate group
588
What is a purine
(2 rings)- adenine, guanine
589
What is a pyrimidine
(1 ring)- thymine, cytosine
590
How many H-bonds do Adenine and Thymine have?
2
591
How many H-bonds do guanine and cytosine have?
3
592
What is a nucleoside
sugar + base
593
What is RNA
contains ribose, thymine replaced by uracil, single stranded. Precursors to current life
594
What is the cell theory
1. All living organisms are composed of one or more cells 2. The cell is the basic unit of structure, function, and organization in all organisms 3. All cells come from preexisting, living cells 4. Cells carry hereditary information
595
What is a stereomicroscope
Visible light for surface of sample. Can look at living samples, but low resolution
596
What is a compound microscope
Visible light for thin section of sample. Can look at some living samples (single cell layer). May require staining
597
What is a phase-contrast microscope
Uses light phases and contrast. Detailed observation of living organisms (not good for thick samples and produces "Halo effect" around perimeter of samples)
598
What is a flouescence microscope
Can look at thin slices while keeping sample intact; fluorescent tagging. observe chromosomes during mitosis
599
What is a confocal laser scanning microscope
Uses laser light to scan dyed specimen, then displays image digitally
600
What is a scanning electron microscope
Look at surface with high resolution(can't use on living)
601
What is a transmission electron microscrope
look at thin cross-sections in high detail. Can look at internal structures but can't be used on living things
602
What is the order of organelles pellet out during centrifugation
nuclei layer --> mitochondria/chloroplasts/lysosome/peroxisomes --> ribosomes/viruses/ larger macromolecules -->
603
What is an allosteric enzyme
have both an active for substrate binding and an allosteric site for binding of an allosteric effector
604
What is cooperativity
enzyme becomes more receptive to additional substrate molecules after one substrate molecule attaches to an active site (quaternary structure)
605
wht four bases does dna have
thymine, adenine, guanine, and cytosine
606
name three forms of rna
r,t,m RNA
607
What is permeable in the phospholipid membrane
small, uncharged, nonpolar molecules and all hydrophobic molecules
608
which RNA goes from nucleus to ribosome
mRNA
609
what is rRna responsible for synthesizing
rRNA
610
which rRNA is most abundant
rRNA
611
Match the following description of parts/enzymes in DNA replication DNA Ligase-unwinds helix helicase-seals okazaki leading strand-makes DNA 3'-5' topoimerase-breaks H-bonds in nucleotide ss binding protein-replaces primers with nucleotide DNA Polymerase-hold strands separate RNA primase- okazaki put in 5'-3' lagging strand-fill in nucleotides to RNA primers
DNA ligase-replaces primers with nucleotide helicase-unwinds helix leading strand-makes DNA 3'-->5' topoimerase-breaks H bonds in nucleotide ss binding proteins-hold strands separate DNA polymerase-makes the DNA 3'->5' RNA primase-fill in nucleotides to RNA primers lagging strand-okazaki put in 5'-->3'
612
Describe the process of DNA rep
1. Helicase unwinds 2. single stranded binding protein holds apart 3. topoimerase prevents from strangling 4. RNA primers start replication and add into the strand 5. DNA polymerase fill in nucleotides to primers 6. leading strand replicates 5'--> 3' 7. lagging strand fills in okazaki fragment 8. ligase seals fragments 9. primase replaces primers with nucleotides
613
WHat is protein synthesis
DNA codes for proteins; the metabolic process that gets initiated by enzymes determines the trait
614
what is difference between 1 gene 1 enzyme and 1 gene 1 polypeptide
1 gene/enzyme: one gene codes for one enzyme | 1 gene/polyopept: one gene codes for multiple proteins
615
what do enzymes during metabolic process in protein synthesis determine?
the traits
616
What is the function of cholesterol
adds rigidity to membrane of animal cells under normal conditions (but at low temps, it maintains its' fluidity) Sterols in plant cells, hopanoids in prokaryotes
617
In initiation, where does the RNA polymerase bind to
promotor
618
WHat direction does elongation happen
5-->3
619
What is a holoenzyme
union of the cofactor and the enzyme
620
What is an apoenzyme
enzyme not combined with a cofactor
621
What is the phospholipid membrane permeability
small, uncharged, nonpolar molecules and all hydrophobic molecules
622
where does termination happen
pol A tail
623
what is the strand that is being transcribed
mRNA
624
what are codons? How many are there? How many stop codons are there?
they are 3 sets of nucleotides that bind to anticodon of tRNA; 64 codons and 3 stop codons
625
WHich RNA is involved in translation? WHat does it contain that bonds to codons?
tRNA; anti codon
626
WHat is the wobble position
the 3rd codon that doesnt need tomatch with anticodon
627
what are telomeres? WHat do telomerases do?
tips of DNA strandl they are enzymes that help out with replication at telomeres
628
How is energy used in elongation in replication
2 phosphate groups are cut off on new nucleotide
629
why does RNA processing occur
correct the RNA nucleotides
630
what is the function of polyA tail and what part of DNA is it bind to
polyA tail is added to 3' end to make sure it goes out iof nuclear envelope
631
WHat is the function of guanine cap and what part of DNA it binds to
forms GTP and can attach properly to small ribosome
632
Describe the process of RNA splicing?WHat cuts the introns off?
RNA splicing occurs to to remove unnecessary segments of RNA. Introns are spliced by snRPs and exons are expressed
633
WHy is ALternative SPlicing important
because they remove various parts of DNA so it codes for different proteins
634
WHat happens during initiation of translation? WHat is the first amino acid coded
Initiation: involves 5' cap which attaches to small ribosome and tRNA's codon binds to start codon of mRNA to produce methionine; the large subunit binds and all this occupies P site
635
Name the order of sites in ribosomes amino acid/tRNA goes to?
A site--> P--> E Elongation occurs when start amino acid releases and amino acid occupies A site. Once the P site attaches to amino acid A site moves to P site and so on
636
How is termination processed
occurs when a stop codon reaches and terminates sequence all amino acid are to be in E site to be released afterwards
637
WHat are mutations
alter protein sequences
638
``` Match all point mutations deletion-1 nucleotide gets into sequence frameshift-1 nucleotide is omitted substitution-when 2 nucleotide switch insertion-shifts codon so sequence is wrong ```
deletion-1 nuc. is ommited frameshift-shifts codon so sequence is wrong substitution-2 nuc. switch insertion-one nuc. gets into sequence
639
distinguish between missense and nonsense mutation
missense: new codon is added and new amino acid is a resultt
640
why do mutations occur
due to replication errors or environmental factors such as some mutagens--> chemicals, radiation, carcinogens
641
name three DNA repair mechanism and describe them
proofreading which DNA polymerase checks any incorrect nucleotide, Mismatch repair sees if there is something wrong with proofreading. Excision repair checks if mutagens have impacted activity of nuceotides
642
How many histones are wrapped in nucleosome
8 histones
643
what type of chromatin cannot be transcribed because its densely packed
heterochromatin
644
what type of chromatin can be transcribed because its loosely coiled
euchromatin
645
what do transposons allow DNA to do
to move around but can cause mutations
646
Are viruses living cells
nonliving cells and affect host functions
647
Describe lytic cycle
involves viruses to enter host cell membrane and use their enzymes to replicate their DNA and proteins; these DNA and proteins enter new virus cell which leaves host cell by lysing it
648
How does retroviruses make up DNA
they use ssRNA to make DNA which make RNA later on or goes thru lysogenic cycle
649
In the lysogenic cycle, what form does the DNA of virus stay in
involves temp. staying in host cell as a provirus and then going thru lytic cycle
650
WHat is the circular form of DNA in bacteria called
plasmid
651
How does the bacterial cell replicate
via binarry fission
652
what is it called when a plasmid incorporates into a chromosome
episome
653
what is the difference between F and R plasmid
F: is when pili connects two bacteria to exchange material R: produces resistance to antibiotic
654
DIstinguish among the 3 types of genetic variation of prokaryotes
conjugation: bacteria exchange DNA material thru pili transduction: virally send new DNA to bacteria transformation: bacteria gets DNA into genome thru environment and via recombination
655
what is an operon
when RNA polymerase attaches to initiate transcription
656
where is RNA polymerase blocked when repressor binds
operator
657
where does the RNA polymerase attach to start replication
promtor
658
What are structural genes
genes code for certain enzyme to make a product (lactose/trp)
659
where are regulatory gene located? what is its function?
located outside of operon can make repressor protein which blocks RNA polyemrase and activator protein which activates RNA polymerase to transcription.
660
what is the difference between lac and trp operon
lac: first cannot transcribe due to repressor binded to operon. When lactose is available, it inactivates repressor and transcription is possible trp: allows transciption to occur via RNA polymerase on operon to make trp. THis trp activates repressor which no longer can transcription
661
What is the difference between acylation and methylation
acetylation: histones are uncoiling with acetyl groups and can transcribe while methylation is when methyl groups of histones dont allow to coil and transcribe
662
Describe the process of RNA interference
occurs when SiRNA are made to destroy DNA translation/transcription a. ssRNA folds back to make dsRNA b. they get cut by enzyme to make siRNA c. siRNA binds to complementary sequence which blocks transcription and degrades
663
What sources do recombinant DNA use to incorporate into DNA
technology, transcformation, transduction, conjugation, etc.
664
What is a channel protein
provide passageway through membrane for hydrophilic substances (polar, charged)
665
What is a recognition protein
MHC complex on macrophage to distinguish between self and foreign
666
What is a ion channel
passage of ions across membrane. Gated channels in nerve and muscle cells. voltage-gated, ligand-gated (chemical), mechanically-gated (respond to pressure, vibration, temp)
667
What is a porin
allow passage of certain ions + small polar molecules (kidney and plant root cells)
668
What is a carrier protein
bind to specific molecules, protein changes shape, molecule passed across
669
What is a transport protein
can use ATP to transport materials across (not all transport use ATP)
670
What is an adhesion protein
attach cells to neighboring cells, provide anchors for internal filaments and tubules
671
What is a receptor protein
binding site for hormones + other trigger molecules
672
What is the function of cholesterol
adds rigidity to membrane of animal cells under normal conditions (but at low temps, it maintains its' fluidity) Sterols in plant cells
673
WHat part does plasmid and host DNA combine after using restriction enzyme to cut it
sticky ends
674
How does gel electrophoresis work? WHat is the main goal of it?
when you take different strands of DNA to separate fragment in gel. small fragements will move down gel faster than larger ones; main goal is to see how close certain species are to each other
675
What are RFLP
is a way to see the relationships of species' DNA that have restriction fragment of same species but have different lengths
676
What are short tandem repeats
sequences repeat in different individuals
677
WHy is DNA fingerprinting used
to check criminal cases because you compare DNA
678
WHat dont cDNA have
introns
679
Where do CDNA come from
reverse transcriptase
680
What is a polypeptide chain reaction
when you use fragments of DNA and copy ot multiple times via DNA polymerase and the RNA primers at nuc. bases
681
What is the function of glycocalyx
carbohydrate coat that covers outer face of cell wall of some bacteria. consists of glycolpids and glycoproteins (provides adhesive capabilities, barrier to infection, markers for cell-to-cell recognition)
682
What is the nucleus
chromatin in the general packaging structure of DNA around proteins in eukaryotes, chromosomes is tightly condensed chromatin when the cell is ready to divide, DNA coiled into bundles called nucleosomes.
683
What is the nucleolus
inside the nucleus--maker of ribosomes
684
What is the nucleoid
contains genetic material within cell of prokaryote
685
What is the cytoplasm
JUST AN AREA-- NOT A STRUCTURE. Doesn't include nucleus, just organelles and everything suspended in cytosol
686
What is a ribosome
Eukaryote- 60S+ 40S=80s, Prokaryote 50S+ 30S = 70S. Made of rRNA + protein
687
What is the ER (not emergency room lolol)
Rough- ribosomes are present | Smooth- synthesis of lipids and hormones, In liver cells- breakdown of toxins, drugs
688
What is the Golgi
modify and package proteins into vesicles (cis=incoming, trans= secretory vesicles) had flattened sacs known as cisternae
689
What is a lysosome
VESICLES not Organelle. Contains digestive enzymes (low pH) for break down of food, cellular debris, and foreign invaders, functions in apoptosis
690
What is a peroxisome
break down H2O2, fatty acids, and amino acids (common in liver and kidney cells) germinating seeds- break down stored fatty acids to help generate energy for growth
691
What is a mitochondria
carry out aerobic respiration (carbs--> energy) have their own circular DNA and ribosomes
692
What are microtubules, intermediate filaments, and microfilaments
Microtubule: protein tubulin, support and motility. Found in spindle apparatus which guide chromosomes during division, flagella and cilia (9+2 array) Intermediate filament: support for maintaining cell shape (keratin) Microfilament: made up actin and involved in cell motility ( skeletal muscle, amoeba, cleavage furrow)
693
What are MTOC's
centrioles and basal bodies 9*3 array. Plant cells lack centrioles but do have MTOC's
694
What is a chloroplast
carry out photosynthesis (energy from sunlight--> carb)
695
What is a transport vesicle
move materials between organelles or organelles and plasma membrane
696
What is a food vacuole
Temporary receptacles of food, merge with lysosomes for food break down
697
What is a storage vacuole
In plants- store starch, pigments, and toxic substances
698
What is a central vacuole
exert turgor (pressure) when fully filled, maintaining rigidity in the cell
699
What is a contractile vacuole
single-celled organisms- collect and pump excess water out of cells (hypotonic environment)
700
What is a cell wall
``` provide support for the cell. Plants- cellulose Fungi- chitin Bacteria- peptidoglycan Archaea- polysaccharides ```
701
What is an extracellular matrix
Found in animals, in area between adjacent cells. (collagen, integrin, fibronectin)
702
What is an anchoring junction
Desmosome- binds adjacent cells together (Tissues with mechanical stress- skin, epithelium, cervix/uterus)
703
What is a tight junction
seal that prevents passage of materials between cells (digestive tract-- pass through cells)
704
What is a gap junction
narrow tunnels between animal cells (connexins), prevent cytoplasms of each cell from mixing, but allow passage of ions and small molecules (heart to pass electric impulses)
705
What is a plasmodesmata
narrow channels between plant cells
706
What is a eukaryote
include all organisms except bacteria, cyanobacteria, and archaebacteria
707
What is a prokaryote
Only have plasma membrane, DNA, ribosomes, cytoplasm, and cell wall. No nucleus, single DNA (no chromatin), 50S=30S= 70s, flagella constructed from flagellin not microtubules
708
What is hypotonic, hypertonic, and isotonic
Hypotonic: lower concentration of solutes Hypertonic: higher concentration of solutes Isotonic: equal concentraion of solutes
709
What is bulk flow
collective movement of substances in the same direction in response to a force or pressure. (blood)
710
What is osmosis
diffusion of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane
711
What is dialysis
diffusion of solutes across a selectively permeable membrane
712
What is plasmolysis
movement out of a cell that results in the collapse of the cell
713
What is countercurrent exchange
substances are moving by bulk flow in opposite directions
714
What is exocytosis
vesicles fusing with plasma membrane and releasing contents to outside of cell
715
What is endocytosis
outside to inside of cell
716
What is phagocytosis
undissolved material enters cells and plasma membrane (wraps around)engulfs it. White blood cell engulfs
717
What is pinocytosis
dissolved substances enter cell and plasma membrane invaginates (folds inward)
718
What is receptor-mediated endocytosis
form of pinocytosis. Ligand molecules bind to receptors (proteins that transport cholesterol in blood (LDL) and hormones target specific cells
719
what is ethology
study of behavior
720
what is the term that describes in born quality
innate behavior
721
what is behavioral ecology
study of how behavior affects rep fitness`
722
give example for instinct behavior
mother caring for a offspring
723
describe and give example of foxed action pattern
when an animal develops behavior and through life has unvarying pattern of it. It is due to a prior stimulus. In this type of behavior you continue response because it expected thruought evolution. An example for this type of respons eis when a goose is moving egg in her nest and if the egg is gone she will continue to do it
724
what is critical period? What behavior is associated with it
period animals develop behavior via enviornment; imprinting
725
Describe Classical conditioning and Pavlovs experiment
when behavior is response delivered via a stimulus for instance a dog responds to food, but if the food is no longer there then dog gets used to it and salivates to the new conditioned stimulus. THe response or the bell is now normal
726
what is operant conditioning?Give example
is response to environment that is favoring and discontinuation of behavior is not favorable; an example is when rat pushes lever to get food which results in positive reinforcement but if rat pushes lever and there is a shock then its not favorable
727
what type of learning involves an animal getting familiar with the environment due to special cues
spatial learning
728
Define extinction
when behavior is no longer favorable due to response being negative and stopping
729
What kind of learning helps animal respond to unexpected events
associated learning
730
Define habituation
when animal learns to disregard meaningless stimuli and respond to meaningful ones; for example anemones get nonfood items if they touch tentacles
731
What behavior is responsive and a behavior without prior knowledge
insight; for example when monkey use boxes and try to reach bananas which couldnt be reached before
732
Distinguish between kinesis and taxis
kinesis is when animals portray undirected movement toward or away from stimulus taxis: is directed movement; for example when animals move in odor of food
733
Name two chemical pheromones and describe them
releaser pheromones are when they target behavior of animal; for example when female and male get called to mate and when ants leave tail for food primer pheromones are when it causes physical change (for example queen bees give out primer pheromones to worker bee to which reduce theur reproductive success
734
Give example of visual and auditory pheromones
visual: when aggressive animals show teethor their tail auditory: whales give sound to others
735
Define foraging behavior
behavior that includes using least energy and not getting killed by predators; involves being in herds
736
How can animals defend their young
being in herds/flocks
737
WHat is one method of animals targeting their prey
going in packs
738
How can animals keep on lookout and see if anything is coming to attack them
using search images
739
Match the following: Dominance hierarchy-includes protecting another animal by alerting them of predator territoriality-aggression amongst animals for food, land altruistic behavior-competition for territory portraying defense agonostic behavior-animals in higher status gets priority and power
dominance hierarchy- when animals in higher status gets priority and power territoriality-competition for territory portraying defense altruistic behavior-includes protecting another animal by alerting them of predator agonostic behavior- aggression amongst animals for food/land
740
WHat is inclusive fitness
fitness of itself and its relatives; when animal conducts this behavior it involves kin selection in which the lives of relatives, itself, and others increase
741
what happens to kin selection in altruistic behavior
increases
742
what is a reflex
sudden stimulated response to a stimulus causing behavior
743
which reflex involves only invertrebrates
simple reflex
744
where does complex reflex affect in the body? a simple reflex
the complex reflex in which danger comes to animal occurs in brain stem which the reticular activating system is startled; the simple reflex occurs when receptor goes thru sensory to interneuron, to motor neuron in the spinal cord
745
Describe the pathway on how simple reflex occurs
sensory neuron to interneuron to motor neuron in the spinal cord
746
what is circadian rhythm
daily behavior in which can be lost when away from time such as day/nightiime; an example of this is the cycle of eating where external fctors is through dinner bells, sleep, etc. and internal factors include body satiation
747
name some external factors that impact cycle of eating? Name internal factors
external fctors is through dinner bells, sleep, etc. and internal factors include body satiation
748
What are environmental factors
external stimulus that make us respond by having certain behaviors
749
in learning, what type of learning do animals have
lower animals have minor learning with innate behavior while higher animals have major learning because it deals with nerveous system
750
what two things does conditioning regulate
reflex and response with a neutral stimulus
751
what is pseudo conditioning
when neutral stimulus gives out response before conditioning so its not a neutral one anymore
752
in habit-family hierarchy, what will make animal behave certain way all the time
an animal getting rewarded with many responses to a stimulus
753
can extinction occur when reinforcement stops and no conditioning response is present
yes.
754
is there a relationship between unconditional stimulus and condition stimulus
no
755
what is spontaneous recovery
conditioned stimulus leads to conditioned response
756
Distinguish between stimuli discrimination and stimuli generalization
stimulus generalization: when conditioned organism responds to conditioned stimulus stimulus discrimination: when animal will not get reward for learning past a certain range
757
What is external respiration
entry of air into lungs and gas exchange between alveoli and blood
758
what is internal respiration
exchange of gas between blood and the cells and intracellular respiration processes
759
what is the equation for cellular respiration
C6H12O6 + 6O2 --> 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy
760
what is aerobic respiration
in the presence of O2 (glycolysis, pyruvate decarb, krebs cycle, oxidative phosphorylation); water is the final product
761
What is glycolysis
decomposition of glucose into 2 pyruvate in cytosol 2 ATP added, 2 NADH produced, 4 ATP produced, 2 pyruvate formed NET: 2 ATP 2 NADH (energy-rich molecule) 2 pyruvate
762
What is PFK (phospho-fructose kinase)
adds 2nd phosphate, makes fructose 1,6 bphosphate-- irreversible and commits to glycolysis (major regulatroy point)
763
What is pyruvate decarboxylation
in the mitochondrial matrix Pyruvate --> acetyl CoA, producing 1 NADH and 1 CO2 NET: 2 NADH + 2CO2
764
What is the Krebs Cycle (citric acid cycle, TCA cycle)
Occurs in mitochondrial matrix Acetyl CoA + oxaloacetate --> citrate (7 intermediate products) 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP, 2CO2 produced per turn x2 (2 pyruvate made from 1 glucose)= 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP, 4 CO2 CO2 produced here is the CO2 animals exhale when they breathe
765
Where does the ETC take place (electron transport chain)
Takes place at the inner membrane/cristae
766
What is oxidative phosphorylation
Occurs in cristae ADP--> ATP from NADH and FADH2 via passing of e- thru carrier proteins. Energy comes from the e- in the ETC establishing H+ gradient that supplies energy to ATP synthase Final e- acceptor= oxygen (forms H2O) Carries extract energy from NADH and FADH2 while pumping protons into the intermembrane space Cytochrome C common in many living organisms
767
What is the NET YIELD from the breakdown of 1 glucose molecule
glycolysis: 2 ATP, 2 NADH=4 ATP pyruvate to acetyl CoA: 2 NADH= 4 ATP Krebs Cycle: 2 ATP, 6 NADH= 18 ATP, 2 FADH2= 4 ATP = 36 ATP
768
How does cell respiration occur in prokaryotes?
38 ATP NET GAIN | don't transfer pyruvate into mitochondrial matrix
769
What is chemiosmosis
Mechanism of ATP generation that occurs when energy is stored in the form of a proton concentration gradient across a membrane (Krebs produces FASH2/NADH which lose e-, H+ transported from matrix to intermembrane space, ATP synthase uses this energy to create ATP by letting H+ flow thru channel (H+ concentration UP means pH DOWN)
770
What is anaerobic respiration (cytosol)
Includes fermentation + glycolysis Aerobic respiration regenerates NAD+ via O2, which is required for continuation of glycolysis ***WITHOUT O2, NO replenishing= NADH accumulates, cell dies without no new ATP so fermentation HAS to occurs**
771
What is alcohol fermentation
Occurs in plants, fungi, bacteria Pyruvate --> acetaldehyde + Co2 Acetaldehyde (final e- acceptor) --> ethanol (NADH --> NAD+)
772
What is lactic acid fermentation
Occurs in human muscle cells Pyruvate --> lactate (NADH--> NAD+) Lactate transported to liver for conversion back to glucose once surplus ATP is available
773
What are alternate energy sources
When glucose supply is low, body uses other energy sources in the order of : other carbs, fats, and proteins
774
What is gluconeogensis
production of glucose (occurs in liver and kidney) Muscle cells
775
What does insulin do
stores glucose and glycogen (polymer of glucose) | "lots of glucose lying around so let's chew it up"
776
What does glucagon do
turns on glycogen degradation "uh oh, not enough glucose around, don't chew it up-- we need it for the brain, other tissues can use other energy sources"
777
How do fats make energy
Glycerol--> PGAL, enters glycolysis Fatty acids in blood combine with albumin which carries them Produce FADH2 and NADH for every 2 carbons--> big yield in ATP (more energy in fats than sugars) Broken down via beta oxidation (mitochondrial matrix)
778
How do proteins make energy
Amino acids deanimated in liver--> pyruvate or acetyl coA Ammonia is toxic to vertebrates: fish excrete, insects and birds convert to uric acid, mammals convert to urea for excretion
779
WHere are sensory neuoron associated
muscles
780
WHich process can one look at genes in a cell type and see if they can be expressed or not
DNA microarray technology
781
WHich valve is located between si and li
pyloric valve
782
WHat is the compound that prevents mitosis from occuring and affect microtubule activity
colcholine
783
where are calcitionin located? what is its function? what compound can the thyroid hormones not be produced without
thyroid gland; to decrease clacium levels in blood; iodine
784
Does vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles cause increase filtration? How does blood flow become affected by this process
its causes decrease filtration and blood flow is decreased
785
WHat type of cleavage do identical twins form from
indeterminate cleavage
786
what causes jaundice
increased levels of bilirubin
787
WHat is the origin of platelets leukocytes and erythrocytes
a pluripotent stem cell
788
what is a hybridoma
when a lymphocyte binds with a myeloma cell
789
what is the spleen responsible for
blood cell storage restroration of old blood cells, filtration of blood cell, and production of lymphocytes
790
What is the overall reaction for photosynthesis
6CO2 + 6H20 --> C6H12O2 + 6O2
791
What is non cyclic phosphorylation
ADP + Pi + light --> ATP : light-dependent reaction
792
What are the steps in non cyclic phosphorylation
1. Starts in photosystem II: electrons trapped by P680 in PS11 are energized by light 2. Two excited e- passed to primary electron acceptor 3. E- transport chain: consists of plastiquinone complex (PSII) which contains proteins like cyctochrome and cofactor Fe2+; analogous to oxidative phosphorylation 4. 2 e- move to ETC --> lose energy (energy used to phosphorylate about 1.5 ATP) 5. Photosystem I: ETC terminates with PSI (P700); they are again energized by sunlight and passed on to another e- acceptor 6. NADPH: 2- pass down short ETC (w/proteins like ferrodoxin) to combine NADP+ + H+ + 2e- --> NADPH (coenzyme) 7. Splitting of water (photolysis): loss of 2e- from PSII is replaced when H2O splits into 2e-, 2H+, and 1/2O2 (H+ goes for NADPH formation and 1/2O2 that contributes to release as oxygen gas) Occurs at PSII.
793
Overall reaction for noncyclic phosphorylation
H2O + ADP + Pi + NADP+ + light --> ATP + NADPH + O2 + H+
794
What is cyclic phosphorylation
replenishes ATP when Calvin Cycle consumes it When excited 2e- from PSI join with protein carriers in the first electron transport chain and generate 1 ATP as they pass through; these 2e- are recycled into PS1 and can take either cyclic or noncylic path
795
What is the Calvin cycle (dark reaction-- C3 photosynthesis)
fixes CO2, repeats 6 times, uses 6CO2 to produce C6H12O6 (glucose) - occurs in mesophyll cells
796
Steps for the Calvin Cycle
1. Carboxylation: 6CO2 + 6RuBP --> 12PGA, RuBisCo (RuBP Carboxylase) catalyzes this reaction 2. Reduction: 12ATP + 12 NADPH converts 12PGA --> 12G3P or 12 PGAL; energy is incorporated; by-products (NADP+ and ADP) go into noncyclic phosphorylation 3. Regeneration: 6ATP convert 10G3P --> RuBP (allows cycle to repeat) 4. Carbohydrate synthesis: 2 remaining G3P used to build glucose 6CO2 + 18ATP + 12NADPH + H+ --> 18ADP + 18ADPi + 12NADP+ + 1 glucose (2G3P) 5. "dark reaction" but cannot occur without light because it is dependent on high energy molecules produced from the light reaction ( ATP and NADPH)
797
What happens in the chloroplast
light-dependent and light-independent reactions occurs (double membrane like mitochondria and nucleus)
798
What are the parts of the chlorplast
1. Outer-membrane: plasma membrane (phospholipid bilayer) 2. Intermembrane space 3. Inner membrane: phospholipid bilayer 4. Stroma: fluid material that fills area inside membrane; Calvin cycle occurs here (fixing CO2 --> G3P) 5. Thylakoids: suspended within stroma (stacks); individual membrane layers are thylakoids; entire stack is granum membrane (contain PS1 + PSII) 6. Thylakoid membrane: interior of the thylakoid; H+ accumulates here
799
What is chemiosmosis
uses H+ gradient to generate ATP
800
What are the steps in chemiosmosis
1. H+ ions accumulate inside thylakoids: H+ are released into lumen when H2O is split by PSII. H+ is also carried into lumen from stroma by cytochrome between PSII and PSI 2. pH and electrical gradient is created: about pH5 3. ATP synthase generates ATP: phosphorylate ADP + Pi --> ATP (3H+ required for 1 ATP) 4. Calvin Cycle produces 2G3P using NADPH & CO2 & ATP: end of electron transport chain following PS1, 2e- produces NADPH
801
What is photorespiration
fixation of oxygen by rubisco (can also fix CO2) --> produces no ATP or sugar. Rubisco will fix both CO2 and oxygen at the same time if both are present. Peroxisomes breakdown the products with Rubisco
802
What is C4 photosynthesis
evolved from C3 when CO2 enters leaf; absorbed by mesophyll cells (then moved to bundle sheath cells); instead of being fixed by rubisco into PGA, CO2 combines with PEP to form OAA (4 C) by PEP Carboxylase 1. OAA --> malate and then transported through plasmdodesmata into bundle sheath cell 2. Malate --> pyruvate + CO2 (CO2 used in Calvin Cycle or C3)) (Pyruvate moved back to mesophyll--> PEP)
803
What is the purpose of C4 photosynthesis
move CO2 from mesophyll to bundle sheath cell (little O2 presence reduces competition while rubisco is fixing) Minimize photorespiration and H2O loss from stomata (leaf pores) - Found in hot, dry climates (faster fixation speed and more efficient) - Corn, sugarcane - occurs in bundle-sheath cells
804
What is CAM photosynthesis
1. PEP Carboxylase fixes CO2 + PEP --> OAA --> malic acid 2Malic acid is shuttled into vacuole of cell 3. At NIGHT, stomata are open (opp of normal), PEP Carboxylase is active, malic acid accumulates in vacuole 4. During DAY, stomata are closed. Malic acid is out of vacuole and converted back to OAA (require 1 ATP), releasing CO2 (moved into Calvin Cycle with Rubisco) and PEP. * * reduce H2O loss - Cacti, crassulacea plants
805
Overall picture of photosynthesis
- As leaves age, chlorophyll breaks down to extract components like Mg2+. carotenoids are visible - Splitting of H2O provides 2e- for noncylic phosphorylation; incorporated into NADPH and Calvin Cycle - Calvin Cycle is light-independent, but it requires ATP and NADPH produced from light-dependent rxn.
806
Examples of light-abosorbing pigments
Chlorophyll a, b, and caretenoids
807
what are antenna pigments
chlorophyll b, carotenoids, phycoblins (red algae pigement), xanthophylls capture wavelengths that chlorophyll a does not, passes energy to chlorophyll a where direct light rxn occurs -- Chlorophyll a has porphyrin ring (alternating double and single bonds complexed with Mg atom inside)
808
What is a gene
genetic material on a chromosome for a trait
809
What is a locus
location on the chromosome where gene is located
810
What is an allele
variance of genes such as different color
811
What are homologous chromosomes
pair of chromosomes that contains same genetic material (gene for gene). Each parent contributed 1 of the chromosome in the pair and thus different alleles may exist for a gene (dominant and recessive or incomplete dominance (color blending/ co-dominant such as blood type)
812
What is the law of segregation
one member of each chromosome pair migrates to an opposite pole so that each gamete is haploid (each gamete has only one copy of each allele), occurs in anaphase 1
813
What is the law of independent assortment
migration of homologues within one pair of homologous chromosomes does not influence the migration of homologues of other homologous pairs (independent assortment of alleles
814
What is a test cross
Monohybrid: one gene Dihybrid: two gene on different chromosomes
815
What is complete dominance
traits expressed as if one allele is dominant to a second allele (both alleles show as dominant Capital A and B)
816
What is incomplete dominance
blending of expressions of alleles red + white--> pink
817
What is codominance
both inherited alleles are completely expressed (blood types) 3 possible alleles: A, B, O 4 possible geno/phenotypes: AO (A type), BO (B type), AB AB type0, OO (O type)
818
What is epistasis
one gene affects phenotypic expression of 2nd gene Ex: pigmentation (one gene controls production of pigment, 2nd gene controls color or amount) **If 1st gene codes for no pigment --> 2nd gene has no effect
819
What is pleiotropy
single gene has more than one phenotypic expression | Ex: sickle-cell disease
820
What is polygenic inheritance
interaction of many genes to shape a single phenotype with continuous variation (height, skin color)
821
What are linked genes
two or more genes that reside on the same chromosomes and thus cannot separate independently because they are physically connected (inherited genes) BbVv * bbvv can only get BV or bv NO recombination (Bv or bV)
822
Define sex-linked
``` single gene resides on (X) sex chromosome When females (XX) inherit the sex-linked gene, the receive two copies of the gene, one on each X chromosome (autosomal inheritance) Males (XY) inherits only one copy of the gene because only the X chromosome delivers the gene (allele on X chromosome is expressed regardless of whether domainant or recessive ``` *EX: hemophilia (moe common in males)
823
What is penetrance
probability an organism with a specific genotype will express a particular phenotype
824
What is expressivity
term describing the variation of phenotype for a specific genotype
825
What is X-inactivation
During embryonic development in female mammals, one of two X chromosomes does not uncoil into chromatin (Barr body) cannot be expressed EX: calico cats XHXh is normal carrier, but if XH inactivated Xh is expressed (hemophilia)
826
What is non-disjunction
failure of one/more chromosomes pairs or chromatids to separate during mitosis (results in trisomy or monosomy ex: down syndrome) Mosaicism: in cells that undergo nondisjunction in mitosis during embryonic development; fraction of body cells have extra or missing chromosome Polyploidy: all chromosomes undergo meiotic nondisjunction and produce games with twice the number of chromosomes. (common in PLANTS)
827
What is point mutation
single nucleotide changes causing substitution, insertion, deletion (insertion/deletion cause frameshift) Transition mutation: purine to purine or pyrimidine to purine Transversion mutation: purine to pyrimidine or vice-versa
828
What is aneuploidy
genome with extra/missing chromosome (can be caused by nondisjunction) - -Down syndrome= trisomy 21 (mental retardation, heart defects, respiratory problems, deformities in external features) - -Turner syndrome: non-disjunction in sex-chromosome (can be XX from one egg, XY from one sperm, O (no chromosome) XO= sterile) physically abnormal - -Kleinfelter Syndrome: XXY
829
What are chromosomal abberations
chromosomes segments are changed - -Duplications: chromosome segment is repeated on same chromosome - -Inversions: chromosome segments are rearranged in reverse orientation - -Translocation: segment is moved to another chromosome
830
What is chromosomal breakage
spontaneous or induced (mutagenic agents [colchicine- inhibits spindle formation causing polyploidy] , X rays) Deficiency = lost fragment Proto-oncogenes stimulate normal growth; if mutated become oncogenes --> cancer
831
What is PKU
(Autosomal recessive)inability to produce proper enzyme for phenylalanine breakdown; breakdown product phenylpyruvic acid accumulates
832
What is cystic fibrosis
(autosomal recessive) fluid build-up in tracts
833
What is Tay-sachs
(autosomal recessive) lysosome defect; can't breakdown lipids for normal brain function
834
What is sickle-cell
(autosomal recessive) defective hemoglobin due to substitution mutation
835
What is Huntingtons
(autosomal dominant) degenerate nervous system disease
836
Sex-linked recessive diseases
hemophilia: abnormal blood clotting color-blindness Duchenne (muscular dystrophy)
837
Chromosomal diseases
Down syndrome, turner (XO), Klinefelter (XXY), Cri Du Chat (deletion on chromosome 5) Forward mutation means already mutated organism mutates again even more and backward mutation is back to normal
838
What is extranuclear inheritance
extranuclear genes are found in mitochondria and chloroplasts Defects in mitochondrial DNA can reduce cell's ATP production (mother-related)
839
Define hemizygous
one single copy of gene instead of two (male has XY sex chromosome --> hemizygous)
840
What is autosomal recessive
skips generations
841
What is autosomal dominant
No skip
842
What is X-linked recessive
father doesn't have phenotype-- none of his daughters have it

dat-biology (2 decks)

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