Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Deck 1 > Biochemistry > Flashcards

Biochemistry Flashcards

1
Q

Buffer urine

A

Phosphate & ammonia (secondary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Buffer blood

A

Bicarbonate & hemoglobin (CO2 buffering)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Buffer bone

A

Calcium carbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Buffer interstitial fluid

A

Bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Buffer intracellular fluid

A

Protein & phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ABG normal values

A

PH 7.35-7.45
pCO2 4.5-6
PO2 10-14
BE -2-+2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Base excess meaning

A

> +2 = metabolic alkalosis or respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
<-2 = metabolic acidosis or respiratory alkalosis with respiratory compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is HCG detected

A

8 days post-fertilization in blood and 10 days post-fertilization in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mitochondria function

A

ATP production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Golgi Apparatus

A

Storing, packaging and modification of proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

Protein assembly, folding & quality control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

Folding of proteins and transport in vesicles
Synthesis of lipids & Role in gluconeogensis via G6DP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nucleus

A

Contains chromosomes and gene expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ribosome

A

Translation mRNA into protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DNA Bases

A

purine bases are adenine and guanine
pyrimidines are thymine and cytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

RNA bases

A

purine bases are adenine and guanine pyrimidines are uracil and cytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right:

A

Increased temperature
Increased H+ (i.e. acidosis)
Increased 2,3 DPG
Increased pCO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the left:

A

Increasing pCO shifts the curve to the left
Decreased temperature
Decreased [H+] (alkolosis)
Decreased 2,3 DPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Interphase?

A

G0 Resting Resting state
G1 Interphase Cells increase in size
S Interphase DNA replication
G2 Interphase Cells increase in size
M Mitosis Cells divide in subphases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Prophase

A

Chromatin condenses to chromosomes (paired as chromatids). Mitotic spindle forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Metaphase

A

Chromatids align at the equatorial plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Anaphase

A

Chromotids pulled apart into 2 constituent daughter chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Telophase

A

New nuclear envelopes form around each daughter chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cytokinesis

A

Cells divide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

major tumour suppressor?

A

P53 =
P53 is a protein that is encoded by the TP53 gene in humans. TP53 gene is located on the short arm of chromosome 17.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Glycolysis

A

Metabolic Pathway that converts Glucose into Pyruvate
Anaerobic - makes 2 ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

Metabolic Pathway that generates glucose
Occurs primarily in the Liver and Kidneys
Utilises several precursors such as Lactate, Glycerol and Pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Glycogenesis

A

Process of Glycogen synthesis
Glucose is added to glycogen chains for storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Glycogenolysis

A

Process of enzymatic breakdown of glycogen producing glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Vitamin K

A

Fat soluble vitamins ADEK
- Essential for clotting 10, 9, 7, 2
- Essential for proteins S, C, Z and osteocalcin GLA proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Extracellular cation/anion

A

Cation = sodium
Anion = chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Plasma cation/anion

A

Cation = sodium
Anion = chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Intracellular cation/anion

A

Cation = Potassium
Anion = Phospahte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In non-excitable cells, what happens

A

NA/K/ATP-ase pumps push potassium intracellularly in exchange for sodium, while they naturally flow extracellularly (permeability of cell membrane highest to potassium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Northern blotting

A

RNA sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Western blotting

A

Protein analysis/ELISA test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Southern Blotting

A

DNA sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Eastern Blotting

A

Protein modifications (e.g. carbohydrates/lipids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Southwestern Blotting

A

DNA binding proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cadherins

A

calcium ion dependent adhesion molecules.
Bind cells together via adherin junctions which are calcium dependent (

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Integrins

A

Play role in signal transduction between cell and extracellular matrix
Transmembrane receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Selectins

A

E-selectin (in endothelial cells)
L-selectin (in lymphocytes)
P-selectin (in platelets)

Glycoproteins
Bind to leucocytes with catch and slip weak bonds
Play a role in inflammation attracting leucocytes
Inflammatory processes via interleukins increase the amount of selectins present and hence, attract more leucocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What activates fibrinogen (common pathway)?

A

Thrombin
Accelerin (V) stimulates activation of prothrombin (II) to thrombin (II), which activates fibrinogen (I) to form fibrin clot. This is stabilised by cross linking with the aid of fibrin-stabilising factor (XIII). Remember heparin increases the rate of complex formation of antithrombin III, which inactivates thrombin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What increases prothrombin time?

A

Prothrombin time evaluates extrinsic pathway, as does INR
Factor V deficiency
Liver failure
DIC
Warfarin therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What ion holds DNA strands together?

A

Hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

PCR

A

Amplify very small amounts of DNA (although it can be used for RNA if converted to DNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A woman has just undergone a prolonged difficult hysteroscopic operation to resect a fibroid from within the uterine cavity. Three bags of distension medium were utilised during the surgery.

Which disturbance in serum biochemistry can occur in these circumstances?

A

Hyponatremia - TURP syndrome
Sodium levels below 120mEq/l cause cardiac depression. Level less than 115mEq/L is associated with bradycardia, widening of QRS complex and T inversion. Level below 105mEq/l is associated with respiratory and cardiac arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In a pregnant woman with diabetes mellitus, target levels of HbA1C should be below what level?

A

6.5 % (48)
Aim for ideal control of 6.1%
Above 10% pregnancy not advised.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A 14-year-old child presents to the adolescent gynaecology clinic. She has a history of virilisation after undergoing pubertal changes. The karyotype reveals 46XY. An ultrasound scan does not show the presence of a uterus and ovaries.

What condition can produce these clinical features?

A

5-alpha-reductase deficiency (prevents androgen from becoming estrogen).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which body fat has a major role in gene transcription?

A

Fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Eicosanoids

A

Hormone synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

contributes half the osmolarity of the extracellular fluid

A

Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Chronic renal failure can produce what effect on the parathyroid system?

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism (other causes small bowel disease and chronic pancreatitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which biochemical findings are most likely with paget’s disease of bone?

A

Normal calcium, normal phosphate, raised ALP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Glycated haemoglobin (HbA1C) is a marker of diabetic control over what time period?

A

8-12 weeks

56
Q

Which enzyme transcribes DNA to mRNA?

A

RNA polymerase

57
Q

What is the primary source of negatively charged ions in the blood?

A

Bicarbonate and chloride

58
Q

What is the average haemoglobin concentration in a newborn at term?

A

17 g/dl

59
Q

What coagulation factors are reduced in pregnancy?

A

platelets
protein s
clotting factor 11
clotting factor 13 (up or down)

60
Q

Where is the chloride shift phenomenon seen?

A

Red blood cells

61
Q

What is the major hydrogen ion buffer in blood?

A

Hemoglobin

62
Q

Clotting factors decreased in pregnancy

A

platelets
Factor 11 ( = or down)
Factor 13 (up or down)
protein S
t-PA

63
Q

Clotting factors increased in pregnancy

A

Fibrinogen
Von Willebrands
Factors 7, 8, 9, 10, 12
Factor 13 (up or down)
Protein C
Heparin co-factor 2
D-dimer/TAT/F1+F2
ELT/PAI/TAFI

64
Q

What is the major production mechanism of 2,3 DPG?

A

Glycolysis

65
Q

With regard to plasma calcium, what proportion is carried in an ionised form?

A

45%

66
Q

With regard to bound plasma calcium, what is the major carrier?

A

plasma proteins.

67
Q

Where in the body is the major production of 1,25 (OH) D3 (calcitriol)?

A

Kidneys (proximal tube of nephrons)

68
Q

With regard to oral iron absorption, reduction of Fe3+ to Fe2+ is inhibited by what substance?

A

Tea

69
Q

What is the action of cytochrome P450 enzymes?

A

catalyse hydroxylations.

70
Q

Which cells in the body are dependent upon anaerobic respiration?

A

Red blood cells

71
Q

Where in the body is ATP found?

A

Only intracellular

72
Q

With regard to Conns syndrome, what are the likely changes in pH, potassium and sodium concentration?

A

hypernatraemia, hypokalaemia, alkalosis.

73
Q

Ammonia is made from what amino acid in the kidney?

A

Glutamine

74
Q

With regard to transport in the red blood cells, what ion enters the cell to maintain electrical neutrality with the outward movement of bicarbonate?

A

Chloride

75
Q

RNA to DNA by

A

Reverse transcriptase

76
Q

Which molecule do hepatocytes use to produce primary bile acids?

A

Cholesterol
- two main types are cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid. 75% are conjugated with glycine

77
Q

Gonorrhea treatment in pregnancy:

A

Non-pregnant:
ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally as a single dose
When antimicrobial susceptibility is not known prior to treatment, prescribe ceftriaxone 1 g intramuscular (IM) injection as a single dose (also pen allergic).
Dual-therapy = Ceftriaxone + Azithrmycin

Pregnant:
For pregnant or breastfeeding women, prescribe ceftriaxone 1 g IM injection as a single dose.
Azithromycin 2 g as a single oral dose can be used.

78
Q

homocystinuria due to which vitamin deficiencies?

A

B12
Folate (B9)
B6

79
Q

Patient with a drain develops gram negative bacilli infection. Cause?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Classified as an opportunistic pathogen

80
Q

Which conditions can be caused by Robertsonian translocation?

A

Down’s and Patau

81
Q

Young female with menorrhagia - after FBC, what is the next test?

A

Clotting

82
Q

Post-menopausal bleeding with granulosa cell tumor. What is the effect on the endometrium?

A

Proliferative

83
Q

Lancefield grouping of streptococci is based on what?

A

Antigen on cell wall

84
Q

Maximum levels of progesterone are found at:

A

Term

85
Q

The main stimulus for aldosterone release:

A

Angiotensin 2

86
Q

Main precursor for nitrous oxide:

A

L-arginine

87
Q

Transcription requires which enzyme?

A

RNA polymerase

88
Q

If a male patient has congenital absence of the vas deferens, what is the chance that he has cystic fibrosis?

A

80%

89
Q

Patient has body aches and malaise and all investigations are normal other than ALP which is raised. Diagnosis?

A

Vitamin D deficiency

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is usually elevated in response to the effect of PTH on calcium absorption from bone

90
Q

ECG of patient complaining of numbness and body aches with little exposure to the sun.

A

Hypocalcaemia

91
Q

Pregnancy with history of DVT in precious pregnancy needs:

A

Antenatal LMWH

92
Q

What becomes caput medusa?

A

Umbilical vein

93
Q

What marks the beginning of gastrulation?

A

Primitive streak

94
Q

Amount of sperm production per day:

A

300 million

95
Q

Picture of tall man (Kleinfelter), what will be the lab results?

A

Low testosterone
High SHBG
High FSH
High LH

96
Q

37 weeks with obstetric cholestasis - management is:

A

Induction of labour

97
Q

Mismatch repair is associated with which tumor?

A

Clear cell carcinoma

98
Q

Most common endometrial sarcoma:

A

Uterine leiomyosarcoma

99
Q

What is the karotype of male Edward’s syndrome?

A

47XY

100
Q

Peptide transport is via what mode?

A

Active diffusion

101
Q

Demarcation of indirect and direct inguinal hernias:

A

Inferior epigastric vessels

102
Q

replication of HIV depends on which enzyme?

A

Reverse transcriptase

103
Q

The Kreb’s cycle occurs where?

A

Mitochondria

104
Q

Complement synthesis occurs where?

A

Liver

105
Q

Which study design to compare shoulder dystocia with neonatal birth weight?

A

Retrospective cohort

106
Q

Standard deviation =

A

Square root of variance

107
Q

Calculate interquartile range:

A

Order the data from least to greatest.
Find the median.
Calculate the median of both the lower and upper half of the data.
The IQR is the difference between the upper and lower medians.

108
Q

Closure of neural groove complete at which gestational age?

A

25 weeks

109
Q

Which hormone is responsible for epiphyseal fusion?

A

Estradiol

110
Q

Which cells have a role in phagocytosis and account for 2.5% of WBCs?

A

Mast cells

111
Q

Lymphocyte production occurs in:

A

Bone marrow

112
Q

Which cell type lyses cells that have been infected with virus:

A

CD8+T cells

113
Q

CD4 cells belong to which group of cells?

A

T cells

114
Q

Lower part of vagina is derived from:

A

Urogenital sinus

115
Q

Topical estrogen acts on which area of the bladder to treat incontinence?

A

Bladder trigone

116
Q

which cells are not effected by radiotherapy?

A

Cerebral cortex

117
Q

Transport of glucose to the fetus is by:

A

Facilitated diffusion

118
Q

What rate does atypical hyperplasia become malignant?

A

12% in 10 years + 28% in 20 years

119
Q

Which test has high negative predictive value to detect pre-term pre-labour rupture of membranes?

A

Fetal fibronectin

120
Q

The greater momentum is derived from which embryonic structure?

A

Dorsal mesogastrium

121
Q

Suxamethonium does not readily cross the placenta because of:

A

High degree of ionization

122
Q

What is the smallest human chromosome?

A

Chromosome 21

123
Q

What is the origin of the falciform ligament?

A

Ventral mesentery

124
Q

What are the biological markers of Kleinfelter’s syndrome?

A

Low testosterone
High FSH/LH
High SHBG

125
Q

What is alert line + action line on partogram?

A

Alert line = starts at 4 cm of cervical dilatation and it travels diagonally upwards to the point of expected full dilatation (10 cm) at the rate of 1 cm per hour

Action line = parallel to the Alert line, and 4 hours to the right of the Alert line.

126
Q

Vincristine MOA

A

Microtubule inhibition

127
Q

Most common mutation in high grade serous adenoca

A

p53

128
Q

What is the tubal factor infertility rate following a single episode of Pelvic Inflammatory disease?

A

Tubal infertility rate following 1 episode PID 12%
Tubal infertility rate following 3 episodes PID 50%

129
Q

The conditions associated with increased risk of pheochromocytoma are:

A

MEN type 2
Paraganglioma syndromes types 1,3 and 4
VHL
Neurofibromatosis type 1

130
Q

potent stimulator of Aldosterone

A

Hyperkalaemia is arguably the most potent stimulator of Aldosterone.

Juxtaglomerular cells will also secrete Renin (that will ultimately stimulate aldosterone production) in response to Hyponatreamia and hypotension.

131
Q

Cremasteric artery branch of:

A

Inferior hypogastric

132
Q

Artery to Vas Deferens branch of

A

Internal iliac

133
Q

According to the Green-top guidelines CVS should NOT be performed before what gestational age?

A

It should be performed from 11+0 weeks as it is technically difficult before then (and some suggest risk of limb and mandibular defects increased)
It should NOT be performed before 10+weeks

134
Q

You are asked to prescribe a course of antenatal steroids for a patient undergoing planned C-section at 37+0 weeks. Which of the following is the most appropriate regime according to RCOG guidelines?

A

Dexamethasone 6 mg given IM x 4 doses or Betamethasone 12 mg IM x 2 doses

135
Q

Normal semen analysis values:

A

pH: Greater than or equal to 7.2
Sperm morphology (percentage of normal forms): 4% or more
Vitality: 58% or more live spermatozoa
total motility (% of progressive motility and nonprogressive motility): 40% or more motile or 32% or more with progressive motility
Total sperm number: 39 million spermatozoa per ejaculate or more

136
Q

DNA Helicase

A

Unwinds DNA

137
Q

DNA polymerase

A

Catalyses the synthesis of DNA molecules from free nucleotides. After DNA helicase unwinds the DNA molecule, DNA polymerase reads the existing DNA strands and incorporates complementary nucleotides one by one to assemble a chain.

Deck 1 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions