Biochemistry Flashcards by Abi Peralta

A microorganism that grows well at 0°C and has an optinum growth temperature of 15°C or lower and a temperature maximum around 20°C.
A. mesophile
B. thermophiles
C. thermoacidophiles
D. psychrophiles

D. psychrophiles

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The microbial decomposition of organic matter, especially the anaerobic breakdown of proteins, with the production of foul smelling compound such as hydrogen sulfide and amines.
A. eutrophication
B. putrefaction
C. bioconversion
D. Inflection

B. putrefaction

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The deflection of a light ray from a straight path as it passes from one meduim to another.
A. reflection
B. refraction
C. diffraction
D. inflection

B. refraction

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The process in which an exact copy of parental DNA or RNA is made with the parental molecule serving as atemplate.
A. transcription
B. translation
C. replication
D. transformation

C. replication

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An energy-yeilding process in which an electron donor is oxidized using an inorganic electron electron acceptor. The aceeptor may be either oxygen or another inorganic acceptor.
A. aerobic respiration
B. anaerobic respiration
C. respiration
D. digestion

C. respiration

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A sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that directs the incorporation of an amino acid during protein synthesis or signals the start or stop of translation
A. codon
B. nucleotides
C. DNA
D. polymerase

A. codon

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It refers to a multinucleate cell or hypha formed by repeated nuclear divisions not accompanied by cell divisions.
A. allosteric
B. coenocytic
C. tissues
D. organelles

B. coenocytic

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A loosely bound cofactor that often dissociates from the enzyme active site after product has been formed.
A. coenzyme
B. apoenzyme
C. holoenzyme
D. exoenzymes

A. coenzyme

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A cluster or assemblage of microorganism growing on a solid surface such as the surface of an agar cultute medium; the assemblage is often ditectly visible, but may be seen only microscopically.
A. seed
B. strain
C. culture
D. colony

B. strain

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A large group of photosynthetic bacteria with oxygenic photosynthesis and a photosynthetic system like that present in eucaryotic photodynthetiv organism.
A. eubacteria
B. cyanobacteria
C. archeaebacteria
D. bacteria

B. cyanobacteria

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The phase of microbial growth in a batch culture when the viable microbial population declines.
A. lag phase
B. exponential phase
C. stationary phase
D. death phase

D. death phase

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The change in the shape of an enzyme that destroys its activity; the term is also applied to changes in nucleicacid shape.
A. denaturation
B. inhibition
C. metabolism
D. catalytic respression

A. denaturation

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The reduction of nirate to nitrogen gas during anaerobic respiration
A. nitrification
B. denitrification
C. nitration
D. denitration

B. denitrification

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The nucluic acid that constitutes the genitic material of all cellular organisms.
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. DNA

D. DNA

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A structure within or on a cell that perfirm specific functions is related to the cell that is simillar to that of an organ to a body.
A. nucleus
B. mitochondria
C. cytoplasm
D. organelles

D. organelles

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The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a dilute solution to a more concentratef solution.
A. diffusion
B. filtration
C. reverse osmosis
D. osmosis

C. reverse osmosis

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The process of heating milk and other liquids to destroy microorganisms that can cause spoilage or disease.
A. sterilization
B. disinfection
C. pasteurization
D. autoclaving

C. pasteurization

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Organism that use light as their energy source.
A. lithotrophs
B. chemotrophs
C. phototrophs
D. oligotrophs

C. phototrophs

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Which sequence shoes the “central dogma” of molecular biolgy?
A. DNA→protein→amino acid
B. RNA→DNA→protein
C. RNA→protein→DNA
D. DNA→ RNA→protein

D. DNA→ RNA→protein

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Which organ is especially sensitive to a victim deficiency?
A. skin
B. liver
C. heart
D. lungs

B. liver

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The primary function of albumin in the blood plasma is
A. leukocye transport
B. osmotic regulation
C. formation of antibodies
D. maintenance of pH level

C. formation of antibodies

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A lab technician may present a blood sample from clotting by adding a compound that prevents ______ from entering the clotting process.
A. potassium citrate
B. vitamin K
C. soduim ion
D. calcuim ion

C. soduim ion

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The transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide is carried out by the
A. thrombocytes
B. leukocytes
C. evythrocytes
D. plasma

C. evythrocytes

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The body digest nitrogen in the form of
A. N2
B. HNO3
C. ammonia
D. amino acids

D. amino acids

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Amino acids that are transformed into one of the intermediates of the citric acid cycle are generally A. glycogen B. ketogenic C. ketoglutaric D. acetic

A. glycogen

The main fate of amino acids is the synthesis of A. alkaloids B. coenzymes C. hormones D. protein

D. protein

In the Lineweaver-Burk double reciprocal plot the is equal to A. 1/[S] B.1/V C. Km/Vmax D. 1/Vmax

D. 1/Vmax

For an enzyme that display Michaelis-Menten kinetics, the reaction velocity ( as a fraction of Vmax) observed at [S] = 2 KM will be A. 0.09 B. 0.33 C. 0.66 D. 0.91

C. 0.66

I Michaelis-Menten enzyme mechanism, what substate concentrations (relative to Km) are needed for the reaction rate to be 0.25 times Vmax ? A. (1/9) Km B. (1/3) Km C. 1.0 Km D. 9.0 Km

B. (1/3) Km

The product obtained by the fermentation of wet cellulose is A. ethane B. ethyne C. methane D. ethane

C. methane

A gene is a segment of a molecule of A. DNA B. mRNA C. tRNA D. protein

D. protein

If a nucleic acid is completely hydrolyzed, which type of compound is not one of its products? A. a base B. a phosphoric acid C. an amino acid D. a sugar

C. an amino acid

Which set of bases does not usually form a base pair usually found in nucleic acid? A. adenine-thymine B. cytosine-guanine C. uracil-thymine D. adenine-uraci

C. uracil-thymine

Which contains the codon? A. DNA B. mRNA C. tRNA D. the protein molecule

C. tRNA

Which molecule carries the anticodon? A. mRNA B. tRNA C. the ribosome D. the protein molecule

A. mRNA

The gentic message is transcribed from DNA to A. mRNA B. tRNA C. DNA D. rRNA

A. mRNA

Base pairing is accompanied by A. covalent bonding B. hydrogen bonds C. ionic bond D. phosphate linkage

D. phosphate linkage

When active protein synthesis is taking place in the cell, which material is not required at the ribosomes? A. DNA B. mRNA C. tRNA D. growing protein chain

A. DNA

The largest carbohydrates are called A. polysaccharides B. oligosaccharides C. monosaccharides D. disaccharides

A. polysaccharides

A 3-carbon monosaccharide is A. triose B. tetrose C. hexose D. pentose

A. triose

The most abundant organic substance found in nature is A. starch B. glycogen C. cellulose D. dextran

C. cellulose

Sugar in which the aldehyde group can be oxidized to a carboxylic acid group are called A. glycosides B. glucosides C. reducing sugars D. phosphate esters

A. glycosides

An example of water soluble is A. vitamin C B. vitamin A C. vitamin E D. vitamin K

A. vitamin C

One mole of an alkane reacts with excess O2 to give 7 mole of H2O. The alkane could be A. isopentane B. isohexane C. pentane D. isoheptane

D. isoheptane

Also generated from the same alkane from isoheptane moles of CO2. A. 7.0 B. 6.0 C. 6.5 D. 7.5

A. 7.0

DNA consist of alternating links of; (D=deoxyribose, R=ribose, and P=phosphate) A. N bases and R B. N basses and D C. D and P D. R and P

C. D and P

The only base in the following that is not present is A. pyridine B. adenine C. guanine D. cytosine

A. pyridine

Information transfer from to genes to the ribosomes is the function of A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. DNA

B. tRNA

The DNA base order AAA GCC corresponds to the RNA base order of A. TTT CGG B. UUU CGG C. CCC GGG D. none of these

The dipeptide from the mRNA sequence UUU AGA is A. Phe-Arg B. Arg-Phe C. Lys-Ala D. Ala-Lys

Amino acids are brought to ribosome surface by A. mRNA B. rRNA C. DNA D. tRNA

D. tRNA

All of the following have carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen atoms except A. nucleotides B. sucrose C. nucleosides D. purines

B. sucrose

Which of the following is a pyramidine? A. cytosine B. cysteine C. adenine D. thymine

D. thymine

The amino acid Thr could correspond to which of the following DNA segments? A. TGC B. ATA C. TAG D. CGA

C. TAG

Which of the following reactions will not be driven by ATP? A. Peptide synthesis B. biosynthesis of maltose from glucose C. synthesis of AMP from Adenosine D. ATP will drive all the reactions

B. biosynthesis of maltose from glucose

What type of enzyme will catalyze the reaction: Galactose-6-P → Glucose-6-P A. transferase B. isomerase C. kinase D. hydrase

B. isomerase

An enzyme in snake venom is capable of causing the conversion of lecithins to lysolecithins. To which class does the enzyme belong? A. ligases B. isomerases C. hydroiase D. synthetase

D. synthetase

An enzyme is responsible for the conversion of an alcohol to a ketone. A possible coenzyme could be A. NADH B. CoA C. pyredoxasepyrophosphate D. NADP+

A. NADH

With which vitamin do you associate the disease Pellagra? A. niacin B. vitamin B12 C. vitamin K D. vitamin C

B. vitamin B12

Which type compound is prothrombin? A. enzyme B. holoenzyme C. zymogen D. vitamin

C. zymogen

When an enzyme is inactived by a change in pH, this is known as A. uncompetitive inhibition B. non-competitive C. competitive inhibition D. non-specific inhibition

B. non-competitive

An inhibitor which has a chemical structure similar to that of an enzymes' normal substrate is likely to act as a A. competitive inhibitor B. non-competitive imhibitor C. non-specific inbihitor D. uncompetitive inbihitor

C. non-specific inbihitor

If an enzyme is inhibited non-competitively by the product of a reaction sequence in which the enzyme participates, the enzyme is A. a zymogen B. allsteric C. competitively inhibited D. a modular

C. competitively inhibited

The starting material for the anabolic process gluconeogenesis is A. acetic acid B. glycogen C. glucose D. acetyl CoA

B. glycogen

The coenzye FAD, which is a hydrogen carrier in the electron-transport chain is a derivative of which vitamin? A. niacin B. B2 C. B12 D. folic acid

A. niacin

How many molecules of ATP are produced from one molecule of glucose due to the intervention of FAD as a hydrogen carrier during the TCA cycle? A. 2 B. 11 C. 4 D. 22

C. 4

What is the strongest oxidizing agent in the electron-transport chain? A. FADH B. NADH C. cytochroms C D. O2

B. NADH

What compound is at the "branch point" in the metabolism of all foodstuffs? A. acetyl B. pyruvic acid C. citric acid D. glucose

A. acetyl

Muscle cramps are frequently experienced by runners, due to buildup of lactic acid in the muscle fibers. This due to A. gluconeogenesis B. glycolysis C. glycogenesis D. aerobic respiration

D. aerobic respiration

Which enzyme would except to find in greater concentration in the stomach of a baby than in an aldult's stomach? A. rennin B. pepsin C. chymotroypsin D. tryspin

B. pepsin

What is the major structural unit of plants A. cellulose B. DNA C. RNA D. glycogen

A. cellulose

Myoglobin is an example of an A. fibrous protein B. globular protein C. DNA D. starch

B. globular protein

Which of the following form(s) a double helix A. DNA B. cellulose C. a protein D. glycogen

A. DNA

A nucleotide contains A. a nitrogen-containing organic base B. a phisphoric acid C. a sugar D. all of these

D. all of these

Starch is A. a form of cellulose B. a polysaccharide C. a monosaccharide D. an amino acid

B. a polysaccharide

Gluvose contain boyh A. alcohol and aldehyde forms B. a phosphoric acid C. ester and aldehyde groups D. ester and acid group

C. ester and aldehyde groups

The overall shape of a protein molecule is called its A. tertiary structure B. alpha-helix C. secondary structure D. primary structure

B. alpha-helix

A peptide bond is form via A. a substitution B. a combustion reaction C. a condensation D. none of the these

A. a substitution

All amino acids contain A. an amine group B. an ether group C. an aldehyde group D. an ester group

A. an amine group

The sequence of amino acids in a protein is the A. primary structure B. secondary structure C. tertiary structure D. quaternary structure

C. tertiary structure

What is the distinguishing characteristic of a carbohydrate? A. carbonly group B. two-C-OH groups C. Cx(H2O)y formula D. six carbon atoms

C. Cx(H2O)y formula

What is/are the difference(s) between RNA and DNA? (I) DNA contains thymine and RNA contains uracil (II) RNA contains five carbon sugar (III) RNA contains nitrogen-containing organic bases (IV) RNA is found in the cytoplasm, whereas DNA is found in the cell nucleus A. I only B. II only C. III only D. IV only

D. IV only

What is the difference between alpha-glucose and beta-glucose? A. there is no difference B. the number of oxygen protein C. the number carbon atoms D. the location of the hydroxyl group

D. the location of the hydroxyl group

The secondaty structure of a protein describes A. the sequence of amino acid B. the coiling or stretching of the protein C. the overall shape of the protein D. none of these

A. the sequence of amino acid

The site of protein synthesis is the A. chloroplast B. nucleus C. ribosome D. mitochondrion

C. ribosome

Inability ti digest amino acids may indicate a deficiency in A. vitamin B1 B. vitamin B6 C. vitamin B12 D. folic acid

D. folic acid

Which monosaccharide is a part of the structure of DNA's? A. 3-deoxyribose B. 4-deoxxyribose C. ribose D. 2-deoxyribose

C. ribose

Organism which require only CO2 to supply their carbon needs. A. autotrophs B. heterotrophs C. chemotrophs D. lithotrophs

B. heterotrophs

Organisms which requires organic compounds to supply their carbon needs. A. autotrophs B. heterotrophs C. chemotrophs D. lithotrophs

C. chemotrophs

Organisms which oxidize inorganic material for energy production. A. autotrophs B. heterotrophs C. chemotrophs D. lithotrophs

A. autotrophs

The destruction of an enzyme's catalytic power by changing its molecular structure is A. deactivation B. inhibition C. denaturation D. suppression

A. deactivation

The rate of microbial growth is temperatutre dependent. Bacteria which grow over the temperature range of 7 to 45°C are called A. thermophiles B. mesophiles C. psychrophiles D. endophile

A. thermophiles

Bacteria which can grow at an optimum temperature range of 30 to 45°C are called A. thermophiles B. mesophiles C. psychrophiles D. endophiles

B. mesophiles

Bacteria which can grow at an optimum temperature range of 55 to 85°C are called A. thermophiles B. mesophiles C. psychrophiles D. endophiles

A. thermophiles

Biological compound which soluble in nonpolar solvent but insoluble in water. A. carbohydrates B. lipids C. proteins D. vitamins

B. lipids

The fluid portion occupying the whole portion of the cell is called A. ribosomes B. cytoplasm C. vacuole D. lysosome

B. cytoplasm

Microorganisms made of small and simple cells are known as A. prokaryotes B. eukaryotes C. algae D. protozoa

A. prokaryotes

Which of the following enzymes give flavor to cheese? A. lactose B. invertase C. lipase D. amylase

A. lactose

The unpleasant taste and odor which develops in fats caused by the presence of free acids and oxidization of the double bonds which first forms peroxides. A. rancidity B. acidity C. foulness D. bitterness

A. rancidity

We reduce our chance of getting cancer by eating a lot of A. cabbage B. eggs C. peas D. potato chips

C. peas

This is the early stage of growth where the organism adjust its new environment. A. stationary phase B. logarithmic phase C. leg phase D. decline phas

A. stationary phase

Microorganisms which can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen are called A. aerobes B. anaerobes C. facultative anaerobes D. microaerophiles

C. facultative anaerobes

Which system shows the “central dogma” of molecular biology? A. DNA→protein→amino acids B. RNA→DNA→protein C. RNA→protein→DNA D. DNA→RNA→protein

B. RNA→DNA→protein

Which organ is especially sensitive to vitamin deficiency? A. skin B. liver C. heart D. lungs

B. liver

The primary function of albumin in the blood plasma is A. leukocyte transport B. osmotic regulation C. formation of antibodies D. maintenance of pH leve

C. formation of antibodies

Allergies, such as hay fever, result from A. an abnormal immunity to a common substance B. the absence of specific antibodies C. the delayed reaction of a specific antibody D. the absence of gamma globulins in the blood plasma

A. an abnormal immunity to a common substance

A lab technician may prevent a blood sample from clotting by adding a compound that prevents ____ from entering the clotting process. A. potassium citrate B. vitamin K C. sodium ion D. calcium ion

C. sodium ion

The transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide is carried out by A. thrombocytes B. leukocytes C. erythrocytes D. plasma

C. erythrocytes

The body digest nitrogen in the form of A. N2 B. HNO3 C. ammonia D. amino acids

D. amino acids

Amino acids that are transformed into one of the intermediates of the citric acid cycle are generally A. glycogenic B. ketogenic C. ketoglutaruc D. acetic

A. glycogenic

How many ATP molecules are needed for the urea cycle? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16

B. 4

The main fate of amino acids is the synthesis of A. alkaloids B. coenzymes C. hormones D. protein

B. coenzymes

A high energy molecule and serves as the cell’s major form of energy currency. A. NADH B. ADP C. ATP D. DNA

C. ATP

A unicellular fungus that has a single nucleus and reproduces either asexually by budding or fission, or asexually through spore formation. A. yeast B. molds C. bacteria D. algae

B. molds

The filtrate of malted grains used as the substrate for the production of beer and ale by fermentation. A. bagasse B. pulp C. wart D. wort

D. wort

An organism that grows in the presence of atmospheric oxygen. A. anaerobes B. facultative C. microaerophile D. aerobes

D. aerobes

An organic compound required by organisms in minute quantities of growth and reproduction because it cannot be synthesize by organism; it often serves as enzyme cofactors or part of cofactors. A. biological catalyst B. hormones C. vitamin D. lipids

C. vitamin

A virus that uses bacteria as its host A. bacteriophage B. exoenzymes C. eubacteria D. genome

A. bacteriophage

The movement of a piece of DNA around the chromosome A. transcription B. transposition C. translation D. transformation

B. transposition

An infectious agent having a simple acellular organization with a protein coat and a single type of nucleic acid, lacking independent metabolism, and reproducing only within living host cell. A. bacteria B. protozoa C. fungi D. virus

D. virus

An agent that kill bacteria A. fungicide B. insecticide C. bactericide D. germicide

C. bactericide

A metabolic process in which molecules, often organic, are oxidized with oxygen as the final electron acceptor. A. anaerobic digestion B. aerobic digestion C. anaerobic respiration D. aerobic respiration

D. aerobic respiration

The cycle that oxidizes acetyl coenzyme A to CO2 and generates NADH and FADH2 for oxidation in the electron transport chain; the cycle also supplies carbon skeletons for biosynthesis. A. tricarboxylic acid B. glyoxalate acid C. polumerase chain reaction D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

A. tricarboxylic acid

A complex sulfate polysaccharide, usually extracted from red algae,that is used as a solidifying agent in the preparation of culture media. A. agar B. carragnen C. nata D. alga

A. agar

A preparation of either killed microorganism: living, weekend (attenuated) microorganism: ot inactivated bacterial toxins (toxoids). It is administered to include development of the immune response and protect the individual against a pathogen or a toxin. A. vaccine B. disinfectant C. antibiotic D. analgesic

A. vaccine

A continuous culture system equipped with a photocell that adjust the flow of medium through the culture vessel so as to maintain a constant cell density or turbidity. A. chemotat B. turbidostat C. biostat D. fermentor

B. turbidostat

A bacterial infection transmitted by contaminated food, water, milk, or shellfish. The causative organism Salmonella typhi, which is present in human faces. A. yellow fever B. hay fever C. typhoid fever D. dengue fever

C. typhoid fever

An enzyme whose activity is altered by the of a small effector or modulator molecule at a regulatory site; effector binding causes a conformational change in the enzyme and its catalytic site, which leads to enzyme deactivation or inhibition. A. oxidase B. reductase C. hydrolase D. allosteric

D. allosteric

The phase of the microbial growth in a batch culture when population growth ceases and the growth curve levels off. A. lag phase B. growth phase C. stationary phase D. death phase

D. death phase

Protein synthesis; the process by which the genetic message carried by mRNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides with the aid of ribosomes and other cell constituents. A. transcription B. transition C. transposition D. transformation

B. transition

The process in which single-stranded RNA with a base sequence complementary to the template strand of DNA or RNA is synthesized. A. transcription B. translation C. transposition D. transformation

A. transcription

The synthesis of complex molecules from simpler molecules with the input energy. A. catabolism B. anabolism C. respiration D. digestion

C. respiration

The microbiological treatment of sewage wastes under anaerobic contains to produce methane. A. aerobic digestion B. anaerobic digestion C. aerobic respiration D. anaerobic respiration

A. aerobic digestion

An oxygen-yielding process in which the electron transport chain acceptor is an inorganic molecule other than oxygen. A. aerobic digestion B. anaerobic digestion C. aerobic respiration D. anaerobic respiratio

B. anaerobic digestion

A microbial product or its derivative that kills susceptible microorganism or inhibits their growth. A. antipyretic B. antibiotic C. pyretic D. antiseptic

B. antibiotic

A glycoprotein produced in response to the introduction of an antigen; it has the ability to combine with the antigen that stimulated its production. Also known as immunoglobulin. A. antibiotic B. antibody C. hormone D. steroid

B. antibody

An agent that kills microorganisms or inhibit their growth. A. antimicrobial agent B. antiseptic C. antigen D. antibiotic

A. antimicrobial agent

Chemical agent applied to tissues to prevent infection by killing or inhibiting pathogens. A. antitoxin B. antiseptic C. antimicrobial agent D. antibiotic

B. antiseptic

The process by which all living cells, viable spores, viruses and viriods are either destroyed or removed from an object or habitat. A. sterilization B. pasteurization C. disinfection D. immobilization

C. disinfection

The substance an enzyme acts upon. A. subtrate B. strain C. disinfection D.immobilization

A. subtrate

The science of biological classification; it consist of three parts: classification, nomenclature, and identification. A. flora B. fauna C. taxonomy D. anatomy

C. taxonomy

The removal from sewage of inorganic nutrients, heavy metals, viruses, etc., by chwmical and biological means after microorganisms have degraded dissolved organic matrial. A. preminary treatment B. primary treatment C. secondary treatment D. tertiary treatment

C. secondary treatment

A microbial product or component that can injure another cell or organism at low concentrations. Often the term refers to poisonous protein, but may be lipids or other substances. A. antigen B. toxin C. virus D. oxidants

B. toxin

The protein part of an enzyme that also has a nonprotein component. A. holoenzyme B. apoenzyme C. exoenzymes D. endoenzymes

B. apoenzyme

An apparatus for sterilizing objects by the use of steam under pressure. A. boiler B. heater C. autoclave D. sterilizer

C. autoclave

An organism that uses CO2 as its sole or principle source of carbon. A. autotrophy B. phototroph C. heterotroph D. litotroph

C. heterotroph

A mulated prototroph that lacks the ability to synthesized an essential nutrient and therefore must obtain it or a precusor from its surrounding. A. chemotroph B. auxotroph C. methylotroph D. prototroph

B. auxotroph

The organelle where protein synthesis occurs; the message encoded in mRNA is translated here. A. cytoplasm B. golgi complex C. ribosomes D. lysozymes

C. ribosomes

The clear, fluid portion of blood lacking both blood cells and fibrinogen. It is the fluid remaining after coagulation of plasma, the noncellular liquid fraction of blood. A. WBC B. RBC C. hemoglobin D. serum

D. serum

A basin used during water purification to chemically precipition out fine particles, microoganisms, and organic material by coagulation or flocculation. A. catch basin B. setting basin C. lagoon D. neutralization tank

B. setting basin

A genaral term for the precipitated solid matter produced during water and sewage treatment; solid particles composed of organic matter and microorganism that are involved in aerobic sewage treatment. A. residue B. ash C. sludge D. solid waste

C. sludge

A reproductive cell, usually unicellular, capable of developing into an adult without fusion with another cell or of acting as a gamete. It may produced asexually or sexually and are of many types. A. spore B. zygote C. bud D. titer

C. bud

Microbial growth in which all cellular constituents are synthesized at constant rates relative to active to each othet. A. unbalanced growth B. balance growth C. diauxic growth D. germination

B. balance growth

A culture of microoganisms produced by inoculating a closed culture vessel containing a single batch of meduim. A. batch culture B. continuous culture C. feed batch culture D. semi-continuous culture

A. batch culture

Asexual reproduction in which a cell or an organism separates into two cells. A. binary fission B. budding C. sporulation D. copulation

A. binary fission

A vegetative outgrowth of yeast and some bacteria as a means of sexual reproduction; the daughter cell is smaller than the parent A. binary fission B. budding C. sporulation D. copulation

B. budding

Sludges produced in sewage treatment that do not settle properly, usually due to the development of filamentous microorganisms. A. effluents B. sewage C. bulking sludge D. foam

D. foam

The part of metabolism in which larger, more complex molecules are broken down into smaller, simpler molecules with the release of energy. A. anabolism B. catabolism C. biodegradation D. disintegration

B. catabolism

The strong layer or structure that lies outside the plasma membrane; it supports and protects the membrane and gives the cell shape. A. plasmid B. cytoplasm C. cell wall D. nucleus

C. cell wall

A continuous culture apparatus that feeds medium into the culture vessel at the same rate as medium containing microorganisms is removed; the medium contains one essential nutrient in limiting quantities. A. turbidostat B. biostat C. reactor D. chemostat

D. chemostat

Organisms that obtain energy from the oxidization of chemical compounds. A. litotrophs B. chemotrophs C. autotrophes D. phototrophes

B. chemotrophs

The process in which water osmotically leaves a cell, which causes the cytoplasm to shrivel up and pull the plasma membrane away from the cell wall. A. phagocytosis B. cytosis C. Iyasis D. plasmolysis

A. phagocytosis

Cells lack a true, membrane enclosed nucleus; bacteria are prokaryotic and have their genetic material located in a nucleoid. A. prokaryotes B. eucaryotes C. eubacteria D. archeabacteria

A. prokaryotes

An enzyme that hydrolizes protein to their constituent amino acids. A. foliose B. diastease C. protease D. lipase

C. protease

A unicellular or acellular eukaryotic protists whose organilles have the functional role of organs and tissues in more complex form. A. fungi B. virus C. protozoa D. lipase

C. protozoa

A microorganism that grow at 0°C and has an optimum growth temperature of 15°C or lower and a temperature maximum around 20°C. A. mesophile B. thermophiles C. thermoacidophiles D. psychrophiles

D. psychrophiles

The microbial decomposition of organic matter, especially the anaerobic breakdown of proteins, with the production of foul-smelling compounds such as hydrogen sulfide and amines. A. eutrophication B. putrefaction C. bioconversion D. biodegradation

C. bioconversion

The process in which an exact copy of parental DNA or RNA is made with the parental molecule serving as a template. A. transcription B. translation C. replication D. transformation

C. replication

An energy-yielding process in which an electron donor is oxidized using an inorganic electron acceptor. The acceptor may be either oxygen or another inorganic compound. A. aerobic respiration B. anaerobic respiration C. respiration D. digestion

C. respiration

A sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that directs the incorporation of an amino acid during protein synthesis or signals the start or stop of translation. A. codon B. nucleotides C. DNA D. polymerase

A. codon

It refers to a multinucleate cell or hypha formed by repeated nuclear divisions not accompanied by cell divisions. A. allosteric B. coenocytic C. tissues D. organelles

B. coenocytic

A loosely bound cofactor that often dissociates from the enzyme active site after product has been formed. A. coenzymes B. apoenzyme C. holoenzyme D. exoenzymes

B. apoenzyme

A cluster or assemblage of microorganisms growing on a solid surface such as the surface of an agar culture medium; the assemblage is often directly visible, but may be seen only microscopically. A. seed B. strain C. culture D. colony

B. strain

A large group of photosynthetic bacteria with oxygenic photosynthesis and a photosynthesis system like that present in eukaryotic photosynthetic organisms. A. eubacteria B. cyanobacteria C. archeabacteria D. bacteria

B. cyanobacteria

The phase microbial growth in a batch culture when the viable microbial population declines. A. lag phase B. exponential phase C. stationary phase D. death phase

D. death phase

The change in the shape of an enzyme that destroys the activity; the term is also applied to changes in nucleic-acid-shape. A. denaturation B. metabolism C. inhibition D. catalytic repression

A. denaturation

The reduction of nitrate to nitrogen gas during anaerobic respiration. A. nitrification B. denitrification C. nitration D. denitration

A. nitrification

The nucleic acid that constitutes the genetic material of all cellular organisms. A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. DNA

D. DNA

A structure within or on a cell that performs specific functions and is related to the cell in a way similar to that of an organ to the body. A. nucleus B. mitochondria C. cytoplasm D. organelles

D. organelles

The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a dilute solution to a more concentrated solution. A. diffusion B. filtration C. reverse osmosis D. osmosis

C. reverse osmosis

The process of heating milk and other liquids to destroy microorganisms that can cause spoilage or disease. A. sterilization B. disinfection C. pasteurization D. autoclaving

A. sterilization

Organisms that use light as their energy source. A. litotrophes B. chemotrophes C. phototrophes D. oligotrophs

C. phototrophes

Glucose is metabolized by A. plants only B. plants and animals C. animals only D. monerans only

B. plants and animals

In a Michaelis-Menten enzyme mechanism, what substrate concentrations (relative to Km) are needed for the reaction rate to be 0.12 times Vmax? A. (1/9)Km B. (1/3)Km C. 1.0Km D. 9.0Km

In a Michaelis-Menten enzyme mechanism, what substrate concentrations (relative to Km) are needed for the reaction rate to be 0.5 times Vmax ? A. (1/9)Km B. (1/3)Km C. 1.0Km D. 9.0Km

C. 1.0Km

In a Michaelis-Menten enzyme mechanism, what substrate concentrations (relative to Km) are needed for the reaction rate to be 0.12 times Vmax? A.(1/9)Km B. (1/3)Km C. 1.0Km D. 9.0Km

D. 9.0Km

Given the following information, coupled: A → B Keq = 103 Uncoupled: ATP + A → B + ADO + Pi Keq = 200 By what approximate factor will the equilibrium ratio of B/A be increased in the coupled reaction when the phosphorylation potential in the cell ([ATP]/[ADP][Pi]) is 5000? A. 1E9 B. 1E8 C. 1E6 D. 2E5

A. 1E9

Ethanol is produced in a 100,000 L continuous stirred tank fermenter at a rate of 10,000 L/hr. The dilution rate will be A. 0.1hr B. 0.1/hr C. 10hr D. 10/h

B. 0.1/hr

A plant cell differs from an animal cell because it has: A. Nucleus B. cellulose cell wall C. definite shape D. vacuoles

B. cellulose cell wall

From the data in problem 8, what is Km (in μmol/min ) of the enzyme for the substrate? A. 4.0 B. 60 C. 100 D. 140

B. 60

A high energy molecule and serves as the cell’s major form of energy currency A. NADH B. ADP C. ATP D. DNA

C. ATP

A unicellular fungus that has a single nucleus and reproduces either asexually by budding or fission, or sexually through spore formation. A. Yeast B. molds C. bacteria D. algae

A. Yeast

The filtrate of malted grains used as the substrate for the production of beer and ale by fermentation. A. Bagasse B. pulp C. wart D. wort

D. wort

An organism that grows in the presence of atmospheric oxygen A. Anaerobes B. facultative C. microaerophites D. aerobes

D. aerobes

An organic compound required by organisms in minute quantities for growth and reproduction because it cannot be synthesized by the organism, it often serve as enzyme cofactors or part of cofactors A. Biological catalyst B. hormones C. vitamin D. lipids

C. vitamin

A virus that uses bacteria as its host A. Bacteriophage B. exoenzymes C. eubacteria D. genome

A. Bacteriophage

The movement of a piece of DNA around the chromosome A. Transcription B. transportation C. translation D. transformation

B. transportation

C. fungi

An agent that kills bacteria A. Fungicide B. insecticide C. bactericide D. germicide

C. bactericide

A metabolic process in which molecules, often organic, are oxidized with oxygen as the final electron acceptor A. Anaerobic digestion B. Anaerobic respiration C. Aerobic digestion D. Aerobic respiration

D. Aerobic respiration

The cycle that oxidizes acetyl coenzyme A to CO2 and generates NADH and FADH2 for oxidation in the electron transport chain; the cycle that also supplies carbon skeletons for biosynthesis. A. Tricarboxylic acid cycle B. Glyoxylate cycle C. Polymerase chain reaction D. Embden-Meyyerhof pathway

A complex sulfated polysaccharide, usually extracted from red algae, that is used as solidifying agent in the preparation of culture media. A. Agar B. carrageenan C. nata D. alga

A. Agar

A preparation of either killed microorganisms, living, weakened (attenuated) microorganisms; of inactivated bacterial toxins (toxoids). It is administered to induce development of the immune response and protect the individual against a pathogen or a toxin. A. Vaccine B. disinfectant C. antibiotic D. analgesic

A. Vaccine

A continuous culture system equipped with photocell that adjust the flow of medium through the culture vessel so as to maintain a constant density or turbidity. A. Chemostat B. turbidostat C. biostat D. fermentor

B. turbidostat

A bacterial infection transmitted by contaminated food, water, milk, or shellfish. The caussive organism is Salmonella typhi, which is present in human feces. A. Yellow fever B. hay fever C. typhoid fever D. dengue fever

C. typhoid fever

An enzyme whose activity is altered by the binding of a small effector or modulator molecule at a regulatory site separate from the catalytic site: effector binding causes a conformational change in the enzyme and its catalytic state, which lead to enzyme deactivation or inhibition. A. Oxidase B. reductase C. hydrolase D. allosteric

D. allosteric

The phase of microbial growth in batch culture when population growth ceases and the growth curve levels off. A. Lag phase B. growth phase C. stationary phase D. death phase

C. stationary phase

Protein synthesis; the process by which the genetic message carried by mRNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides with the aid of ribosome and other cell constituents. A. Transcription B. translation C. transportation D. transformation

B. translation

A process in which single-stranded RNA with a base sequence complementary to the template strand of DNA or RNA is synthesizes. A. Transcription B. translation C. transposition D. transformation

A. Transcription

The synthesis of complex molecules from simpler molecule with the input energy. A. Catabolism B. anabolism C. respiration D. digestion

B. anabolism

The microbiological treatment of sewage wastes under anaerobic conditions to produce methane. A. Aerobic digestion B. Aerobic respiration C. anaerobic digestion D. anaerobic respiration

C. anaerobic digestion

An energy-yielding process in which the electron transport chain acceptor is an inorganic molecule other than oxygen. A. Aerobic digestion B. Aerobic respiration C. anaerobic digestion D. anaerobic respiration

D. anaerobic respiration

A microbial product or its derivative that kills susceptible microorganisms or inhibits their growth. A. Antipyretic B. antibiotic C. pyretic D. antiseptic

B. antibiotic

B. antibody

An agent that kills microorganisms to inhibit their growth. A. Antimicrobial agent B. antiseptic C. antigen D. antibiotic

A. Antimicrobial agent

Chemical agents applied to tissue to prevent infection by killing or inhibiting pathogens. A. Antitoxin B. antiseptic C. antimicrobial agent D. antibiotic

B. antiseptic

The process which all living cells, viable spores, viruses and viroids are either destroyed or removed from an object or habitat. A. Sterilization B. pasteurization C. disinfection D. immobilization

A. Sterilization

The substance an enzyme acts upon. A. Substrate B. strain C. reactants D. proteins

A. Substrate

The science of biological classification; it consist of three parts: classification, nomenclature, and identification. A. Flora B. fauna C. taxonomy D. anatomy

C. taxonomy

The removal from sewage of inorganic nutrients, heavy metals, viruses, etc, by chemical and biological means after microorganisms have degraded dissolved organic material. A. Preliminary treatment B. Secondary treatment C. primary treatment D. tertiary treatment

D. tertiary treatment

A microbial product or component that can injure another cell or organism at low concentrations. Often the team refers to poisonous protein, but may be lipids or other substances. A. Antigen B. toxin C. virus D. oxidants

B. toxin

The protein part of an enzyme that also has a nonprotein component. A. Holoenzyme B. apoenzyme C. exoenzyme D. endoenzyme

B. apoenzyme

An apparatus for sterilizing objects by the use of steam under pressure. A. Boiler B. healer C. autoclave D. sterilizer

C. autoclave

An organism that uses CO2 as its sole principal source of carbon. A. Autotrophy B. phototroph C. heterotroph D. lithitroph

A. Autotrophy

A mutated prototroph that lacks the ability to synthesize the essential nutrient and therefore must obtain it or a precursor from its surrounding. A. Chemototroph B. auxotroph C. methylotroph D. prototroph

B. auxotroph

The organelle where protein synthesis occurs; the message encoded in mRNA is translated here. A. Cytoplasm B. golgi complex C. ribosomes D. lysozomes

C. ribosomes

D. serum

A basin used during water purification to chemically precipitate out fine particles, microorganisms, and organic materials by coagulation or flocculation. A. Catch basin B. Lagoon C. settling basin D. neutralization tank

C. settling basin

A general term for the precipitated solid matter produced during water and sewage treatment; solid particles composed of organic matter and microorganisms that are involved in aerobic sewage treatment. A. Residue B. ash C. sludge D. solid waste

C. sludge

A reproductive cell, usually unicellular, capable of developing into an adult without fusion with another cell or of acting as a gamete. It may be produced asexually or sexually and are of many types. A. Spore B. zygote C. bud D. titer

A. Spore

Microbial growth in which all cellular constituents are synthesized at constant rates relative to each other. A. Unbalanced growth B. balanced growth C. diauxic growth D. germination

B. balanced growth

A culture of microorganisms produced by inoculating a closed culture vessel containing a single batch of medium. A. Batch culture B. Feed batch culture C. continuous culture D. semi-continuous culture

A. Batch culture

Asexual reproduction in which a cell or an organism separates into two cells. A. Binary fission B. budding C. sporulation D. copulation

A. Binary fission

The amount of oxygen used by organisms in water under certain standard conditions; it provides an index of the amount of microbially oxidizable organic matter present. A. COD B. BOD C. TOC D. TDS

B. BOD

A vegetative outgrowth of yeast and some bacteria as a means of asexual reproduction; the daughter cell is smaller than the parent. A. Binary fission B. budding C. sporulation D. copulation

B. budding

Sludges produced in sewage treatment that do not settle properly, usually due to the development of filamentous microorganism. A. Effluents B. sewage C. bulking sludge D. foam

C. bulking sludge

The part of metabolism in which larger, more complex molecules are broken down into smaller, simpler molecules with release of energy. A. Anabolism B. catabolism C. biodegradation D. disintegration

B. catabolism

The strong layer or structure that lies outside the plasma membrane; it supports and protects the membrane and gives the cell shape. A. Plasmid B. cytoplasm C. cell wall D. nucleus

C. cell wall

The amount of chemical oxidation required to convert organic matter in water and wastewater to CO2. A. BOD B. DO C. COD D. TOC

C. COD

D. chemostat

Organisms that obtain energy from the oxidation of chemical compounds. A. Lithotrophs B. chemotrophs C. autotrophs D. phototrophs

B. chemotrophs

The process in which water osmotically leaves a cell, which causes the cytoplasm to shrivel up and pull the plasma membrane away from the cell wall. A. Phagocytosis B. cytosis C. lyasis D. plasmolysis

C. lyasis

The first step of sewage treatment, in which physical settling and screening are used to remove particulate materials. A. Primary treatment B. Tertiary treatment C. Secondary treatment D. Advanced treatment

A. Primary treatment

A cell that lack a true, membrane-enclosed nucleus; bacteria are prokaryotic and have their genetic material located in the nucleoid. A. Prokaryotes B. eucaryotes C. eubacteria D. archeabacteria

A. Prokaryotes

An enzyme that hydrolyzes proteins to their constituent amino acids. A. Foliose B. diastase C. protease D. lipase

C. protease

A unicellular or acellular eukaryotic protists whose organelles have the functional role of organs and tissues in more complex forms. A. Fungi B. Virus C. Protozoa D. Bacteria

C. Protozoa

The decomposition of an organic molecule through the action of acetic acid or acetic anhydride. A. Acetolysis B. acidolysis C. protolysis D. hetolysis

A. Acetolysis

A type of reaction of unsaturated hydrocarbons with hydrogen, halogens, halogen acids, and other reagents, so that no change in valency is observed and the organic compound forms a more complex one. A. Addition B. substitution C. decomposition D. displacement

A. Addition

A speculative chemical system having as its central aims the transmutation of base metals to gold and the discovery of the philosopher’s stone. A. Metallurgy B. alchemy C. stoichiometry D. radioactivity

B. alchemy

An enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of asparagine to asparginic acid and ammonia. A. Asparaginase B. aspartase C. amylase D. protease

A. Asparaginase

A bacterial enzyme that catalyzes the determination of aspartic acid to fumaric acid and ammonia. A. Asparaginase B. aspartase C. amylase D. protease

B. aspartase

An enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of amino compounds, removing the amino group. A. Aspartase B. amylase C. aminase D. deaminase

D. deaminase

An enzyme which removes hydrogen atoms from a substrate and transfers it to an acceptor other than oxygen. A. Hydrogenase B. asparaginase C. dehydrogenase D. deaminase

C. dehydrogenase

An enzyme which is located on the external surface of a cell. A. Apoenzyme B. holoenzyme C. coenzyme D. ectoenzyme

D. ectoenzyme

Chemical reactions usually take place on an organic compound at the site of (a) A. Double bond B. lone pair of electrons C. functional group D. any of the above

D. any of the above

A protein is a polymer formed from the linking of many A. Glucose units B. Amino acid molecules C. DNA molecules D. monosaccharides

B. Amino acid molecules

Which of the following is not converted to blood sugar by the human body? A. Lactose B. dextrose C. cellulose D. glycogen

C. cellulose

Fats from animals and oils from plants have the general structure of a/an A. Aldehyde B. ester C. amine D. ketone

B. ester

Liquid oils from plants can be converted to solid by adding what to the molecule? A. Metal ions B. carbon C. polyatomic ions D. hydrogen

D. hydrogen

The average microscope having a high power objective marked 43x, and an ocular marked 10x gives a magnification of A. 43x B. 53x C. 100x D. 430x

D. 430x

The nucleus contains all of the following except A. Mitochondria B. chromatin C. genes D. nucleolus

A. Mitochondria

The most abundant substance in protoplasm is A. Protein B. fat C. carbohydrates D. water

D. water

A cell obtains energy during the process of A. Ingestion B. respiration C. excretion D. secretion

B. respiration

Animal cells do not posses A. Cell membrane B. cell wall C. cytoplasm D. nucleus

B. cell wall

ATP is a chemical that is essential for A. Digestion B. absorption C. oxidation D. assimilation

C. oxidation

The life activity concerned with the taking of food in known as A. Ingestion B. digestion C. secretion D. excretion

A. Ingestion

The life activity concerned with the stability of the organism’s chemical make-up under its constantly changing environment is A. Respiration B. reproduction C. regulation D. photosynthesis

C. regulation

DNA is found in the cell’s A. Vacuole B. nucleolus C. nucleus D. ribosomes

C. nucleus

Stomates are largely found in a A. Leaf B. stem C. root D. root hair

A. Leaf

A by-product of photosynthesis is A. Carbon dioxide B. water C. carbon monoxide D. oxygen

D. oxygen

The substance produced as the direct result of photosynthesis is A. Glucose B. protein C. fat D. vitamin A

A. Glucose

The source of oxygen in photosynthesis is A. CO2 B. glucose C. ATP D. water

D. water

An autotroph makes food from A. Organic molecules B. inorganic molecules C. glucose D. proteins

B. inorganic molecules

The evaporation of water from a leaf is known as A. Conduction B. circulation C. transportation D. transformation

C. transportation

An inherited disease in which blood does not clot is A. Thrombosis B. hemophilia C. heparin D. anemia

B. hemophilia

Which one of the following correctly pairs amino acid with a valid chemical characteristic? A. Glutamine: contains a hydroxyl group in its side chain B. Serine: can form disulfide bonds C. Cysteine: contains the smallest side chain D. Isoleucine: is nearly always found buried in the center of proteins E. Glycine: contains an amide group in its side chain

D. Isoleucine: is nearly always found buried in the center of proteins

Which one of the following statements concerning glutamine is correct? A. Contains three titratable groups B. Is classified as an acidic amino acid C. Contains an amide group D. Has E as its one-letter symbol E. Migrates to the cathode (negative electrode) during electrophoresis at pH 7.0

A peptide bond A. Has a partial double-bond character B. Is ionized at physiological pH C. Is cleaved by agents that denature proteins such as organic solvents and high concentrations of urea D. Is stable to heating in strong acids E. Occurs most commonly in the cis configuration

A. Has a partial double-bond character

A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme A. Increases Km without affecting Vmax B. Increases Vmax without affecting Km C. Decreases both Vmax and Km D. decreases Km without affecting Vmax E. decreases Vmax without affecting Km

A. Increases Km without affecting Vmax

The Michaelis constant Km is: A. Numerically equal to 0.5 Vmax B. Dependent on the enzyme concentration C. Independent of pH D. Numerically equal to the substrate concentration that gives half-maximal velocity E. Increases in the presence of a noncompetitive inhibitor

D. Numerically equal to the substrate concentration that gives half-maximal velocity

Computer disks, video tapes, and audio tapes uses common a chemical which is A. Rust, Fe2O3 B. Teflon C. sand, SiO2 D. diamond, C

A. Rust, Fe2O3

The strongest acid below is A. HClO2 B. HSrO3 C. HClO3 D. H2SO3 E. H2SeO3

C. HClO3

Which of the following cannot be used to determine molar mass. A. Osmotic pressure B. percent composition C. vapor pressure D. gas density E. freezing point depression

B. percent composition

A substance labeled hygroscopic A. Reacts with atmospheric oxygen B. Absorbs water from the atmosphere C. Spontaneously combusts in contact with organic matter D. spontaneously combusts E. oxidizes readily

B. Absorbs water from the atmosphere

Very fine precipitates are most easily separated by A. Distillation B. filtration C. centrifugation D. evaporation E. vacuum filtration

C. centrifugation

The ion with the largest radius is A. K+ B. I- C. Cl- D. Na+ E. Ba2+

B. I-

The colored gas most associated with smog is A. An oxide of nitrogen B. an oxide of sulfur C. an oxide of hydrogen D. a chloride of sulfur E. a nitrate of nitrogen

A. An oxide of nitrogen

A protein is A. A polysaccharide B. deoxyribonucleic acid C. a polymer of amino acids D. soluble because of the carbonyl groups E. a polyester

C. a polymer of amino acids

The bonding in the benzene molecule, C6H6, in any of its resonance structures, contains A. 6 sigma bonds and 6 pi bonds B. 12 sigma bonds and 6 pi bonds C. 12 sigma bonds and 3 pi bonds D. 6 sigma bonds and 12 pi bonds E. only sigma bonds

C. 12 sigma bonds and 3 pi bonds

Which of the following is most likely to form hydrogen bonds? A. An alkyne B. an alcohol C. an aldehyde D. a ketone E. an ether

B. an alcohol

The following compounds have the same number of carbon atoms. Which is expected to have the lowest boiling point? A. An alkyne B. an alcohol C. an aldehyde D. a ketone E. an ether

A. An alkyne

Which of the following always have a constant percentage of carbon in all of their compounds? A. Alkenes B. alcohols C. aldehydes D. ketones E. esters

A. Alkenes

CH2O is the empirical formula for A. Amino acids B. proteins C. carbohydrates (sugar) D. aldehydes E. DNA and RNA

C. carbohydrates (sugar)

Modern automobiles use a catalytic converter to A. Increase horsepower by burning more gasoline B. Complete the combustion of unburned gasses C. Convert pollutants into water D. absorb pollutants from the exhaust E. cool the exhaust gasses

B. Complete the combustion of unburned gasses

A graph of the reciprocal of reactant concentration versus time will give a straight line for A. A zero-order reaction B. a first-order reaction C. a second-order reaction D. both A and C

C. a second-order reaction

A reaction in which the rate and the rate constant have the same units is A. A radioactive decay B. a second-order reaction C. a reaction with one-step mechanism D. a first-order reaction E. a zero-order reaction

E. a zero-order reaction

A student observed that a small amount of acetone sprayed on the back of the hand felt very cool compared to a similar amount of water. Your explanation of this phenomena be that A. All organic compound do this B. Acetone has a lower viscosity and transfers heat quanta better C. Water has a higher heat capacity than acetone, therefore retaining more heat D. The higher vapor pressure of acetone results in more rapid evaporation and heat loss E. The observed effect is not real and is only imagined

D. The higher vapor pressure of acetone results in more rapid evaporation and heat loss

When a pot of water bois on the stove, small bubbles form at the bottom of the pan and rise to the surface. What is inside these bubbles? A. Steam B. hydrogen gas C. oxygen gas D. a vacuum E. air

A. Steam

Diamond is classified ass A. A covalent crystal B. an ionic crystal C. an amorphous solid D. a metallic crystal E. a molecular crystal

A. A covalent crystal

A liquid compound that exhibits low intermolecular attraction is expected to have A. Low viscosity, low boiling point, and low heat of vaporization B. High viscosity, low boiling point, and low heat of vaporization C. Low viscosity, high boiling point D. Low viscosity, low boiling point, and high heat of vaporization E. high viscosity, high boiling point, and high heat of vaporization

A. Low viscosity, low boiling point, and low heat of vaporization

If gastric juice is tested with a pH meter, its pH would most likely be about A. 2 B. 6 C. 7 D.8

A. 2

The blood type known as the universal donor is A. A B. B C. AB D. O

D. O

A process in which fuel is mixed with the ore and burned on the grate. A. Sintering B. annealing C. cold working D. heat hardening

A. Sintering

Organisms which used only simple inorganic compounds as nutrients. A. Chemotroph B. phototroph C. heterotroph D. autotroph

D. autotroph

For any closed system formed initially from given masses of prescribed chemical species, the equilibrium state is completely determined by any two proteins of the system, provided only that these two properties are independently variable in the equilibrium state. A. Phase rule B. Lewis-Randall rule C. Duhem’s theorem D. Henry’s law

D. Henry’s law

It is a nonporous rock containing organic kerogen. A. Tar sands B. Natural gas C. oil shale D. coil-oil mixtures (COM)

C. oil shale

It is the nonagglomerated, nonfusible residue from the thermal treatment of solid carbonaceous material. A. Charcoal B. tanbank C. bagasse D. char

D. char

It is produced by the decay of vegetable matter, was early identified as combustible “swamp gas” A. Producer gas B. furnace gas C. hydrogen D. methane

D. methane

Calcium carbonate is also known as A. Chalk B. charcoal C. feldspar D. silica

A. Chalk

If the partial pressure of the vapor in a gas-vapor mixture is for any reason less than the equilibrium vapor pressure of the liquid at the same temperature, the gas mixture is A. Saturated B. unsaturated C. supersaturated D. none of these

B. unsaturated

Of the following elements the one that always has the oxidation number 1-in its compound is A. Hydrogen B. sodium C. fluorine D. oxygen

C. fluorine

If an element is at its lowest oxidation state, under appropriate circumstances, it can act as A. A reducing agent B. An oxidizing agent C. Either an oxidizing agent or a reducing agent depending upon whether its oxidizing number is negative or positive D. Neither an oxidizing agent nor a reducing agent

B. An oxidizing agent

The atom with high electronegativity value A. A small tendency to attract electrons B. No tendency to attract electrons C. A large tendency to attract electron D. The attraction for electron does not depend upon electronegativity but upon electron affinity

C. A large tendency to attract electron

A pressure cooker reduces cooking time because_________. A. The heat is more evenly distributed B. the higher pressure tenderizes the food C. The boiling point is elevated D. a large flame must be used

C. The boiling point is elevated

It is the science of flow and deformation of fluids A. Transportation phenomena B. rheology C. fluid dynamics D. fluid statics

C. fluid dynamics

Who determined that energy is radiated only when an electron falls from a higher energy level to a lower energy level? A. Einstein B. Rutherford C. Heisenberg D. Bohr

D. Bohr

Who determined the charge of an electron by means of the oil droplet experiment? A. Rutherford B. Heisenberg C. Millikan D. de Broglie

C. Millikan

Who showed that electrons can be considered to have both particle character and wave character? A. Thomson B. Moseley C. Heisenberg D. de Broglie

D. de Broglie

Who determined that no two electrons may have the same set of four quantum numbers? A. Planck B. Pauli C. Hund D. Rutherford

B. Pauli

Which of the following is a nonviscoelastic material? A. Plastic B. metal C. rubber D. glass

B. metal

In molecules of the same composition, what are the variations of atomic arrangements known as? A. Polymers B. monomers C. crystal systems D. isomers

D. isomers

The only common liquid on the earth is A. Mercury B. water C. petroleum D. oxygen

B. water

Because oil slick do not dissolve in water, one might expect oit to be composed of ____ molecules. A. Nonpolar B. polar C. subpolar D. arctic

A. Nonpolar

The main source of water pollution is A. Industry B. domestic sewage C. chemical plants D. fertilizer funof

B. domestic sewage

The most commonly used agent for killing bacteria in treated wastewater is A. Chlorine B. ozone C. gamma radiation D. phosphates

A. Chlorine

Which stage of wastewater treatment is most adversely affected by low temperature? A. Primary B. secondary C. advanced D. disinfection

B. secondary

Which substance has polar covalent bonds? A. CaF2 B. F2 C. HF D. H2

C. HF

The water molecule is A. Bent B. linear C. pyramidal D. tetrahedral

A. Bent

In nearly all molecules, carbon forms _____ bonds. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

C. 4

A chemical bond formed by the equal sharing of electrons is called A. Ionic B. nonpolar covalent C. polar covalent D. coordinate

B. nonpolar covalent

The weight percent of SiO3 in coal ash ranges from A. 20-60 B. 10-35 C. 5-35 D. 1-20

A. 20-60

A method used for landfilling dry areas when the terrain is unsuitable for the excavation of trenches in which to place the solid wastes. A. Trench method B. depression method C. area method D. topsoil method

C. area method

Biological catalyst which expedite reactions by lowering the amount of activation required. A. Enzymes B. positive catalyst C. inhibitor D. depressants

A. Enzymes

The rate equation for the decomposition of H2O2 in the presence of I- is rate = k [H2O2] [I-] what are the units of the rate constant, k? A. Mol/ L-time B. L-time/ mol C. L2/ mol2-time D. L/ mol-time

D. L/ mol-time

As the temperature of the reaction is increased, the rate of the reaction increases because the A. Reactant molecules collide less frequently B. Reactant molecules collide less frequently and with greater energy C. Activation energy is lowered D. Reactant molecules collide with greater energy

D. Reactant molecules collide with greater energy

Which of the following would have the lowest vapor pressure at 0o C? A. CH3OH B. CH4 C. H2O D. CH2Cl2

B. CH4

The reason that some insects can walk on water is due to A. Surface tension B. adhesive forces C. vaporization D. capillary action

A. Surface tension

Which would have the lowest freezing point? A. H2O B. N2 C. CO2 D. H2

D. H2

What is the significance of a line in a phase diagram? A. Only one phase is present B. Three phases are in equilibrium C. two phases are in equilibrium D. the distinction between two phases

C. two phases are in equilibrium

List the three states of matter in order of increasing molecular disorder. A. Gas < liquid < solid B. Solid < liquid < gas C. gas < solid < liquid D. solid < gas < liquid

B. Solid < liquid < gas

First ionization energy refers to A. Removal of an electron from a gas atom B. Trapping an ion in a lattice structure C. energy to form the most probable ion D. formation of a 1- anion

A. Removal of an electron from a gas atom

The tripe point of water is A. 0°, 1 atm B. 374.4°C, 217.7 atm C. 0.0098°C, 4.58 torr D. 56.4°C, 5.11 atm

C. 0.0098°C, 4.58 torr

It is a substance that exhibits one or more ordered phases at a temperature above the melting point of the solid. A. Thermoplastic B. plastics C. liquid crystal D. biomaterials

C. liquid crystal

Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin? A. vitamin A B. vitamin C C. vitamin D D. vitamin E

B. vitamin C

A substance that can accept a proton or a proton acceptor. A. Arrhenius acid B. Bronsted acid C. Arrhenius base D. Bronsted base

D. Bronsted base

A hydrocarbon derivative in which one or more hydrogen or a parent hydrocarbon have been replaced by a hydroxyl functional group, OH. A. Carboxylic acid B. esters C. alcohols D. ethers

C. alcohols

It is a product of the fermentation of carbohydrates such as sugar and starch. A. Methanol B. ethanol C. dimethyl ether D. ethanoic acid

B. ethanol

Compounds in which two hydrocarbon groups are bonded to one oxygen are called A. Ethers B. esters C. phenols D. amines

A. Ethers

Which of the following has no carbonyl group? A. Aldehydes B. ketones C. carboxylic acid D. ethers

D. ethers

It is the scattering of light by colloidal effect. A. Brownian movement B. Tyndall effect C. Coriolis effect D. Meissner effect

B. Tyndall effect

A type of colloid in which a liquid is dispersed in a liquid, example, milk. A. Foam B. emulsion C. sol D. aerosol

B. emulsion

A type of colloid in which a liquid/solid is dispersed in a gas, example, fog, smoke. A. Aerosol B. foam C. emulsion D. sol

A. Aerosol

A type of colloid in which a gas is dispersed in a liquid, example, whipped cream. A. Aerosol B. foam C. emulsion D. sol

B. foam

It refers to the adherence to a surface. A. Adsorption B. Absorption C. desorption D. osmosis

A. Adsorption

It consists of O-Si-O chains in which the remaining bonding positions on each silicon are occupied by organic groups as CH3. A. Boranes B. silicones C. sulfide D. nitrides

B. silicones

Which of the following is an aluminum ore? A. Sphalenite B. amalgam C. galena D. bauxite

D. bauxite

Which of the following radioisotopes is used in treating cancer? A. Cobalt-60 B. uranium-233 C. helium-4 D. uranium-238

A. Cobalt-60

Iodine, when heated, passes from the solid phase directly to the gaseous phase. This is an example of A. Charle’s law B. sublimation C. vapor pressure D. heat of fusion

B. sublimation

The study of chemistry does not include which one of the following? A. The composition of particles B. The mechanics of particle motion C. the structure of particles D. the properties of particle

B. The mechanics of particle motion

Aluminum hydroxide is an amphoteric compound. This means that aluminum hydroxide A. Is highly colored B. is used as a reducing agent C. insoluble I string base D. can act as a weak acid or weak base

D. can act as a weak acid or weak base

Acetic acid is classified as weak acid because it A. Does not ionize in water B. does not neutralize bases C. slightly ionize in water D. react rapidly with zinc to produce hydrogen

C. slightly ionize in water

According to Bronsted lowry theory, an acid is any substance that A. Donates a proton B. donates an electron pair B. C. donates an electron D. accepts an electron pair

A. Donates a proton

The hydronium ion is a complex ion composed of A. An electron B. a neutron C. a proton D. a positron

C. a proton

The chaotic zigzag motion of particle in solution is described by A. Electrical charge effect B. Tyndall effect C. Brownian movement D. osmosis

C. Brownian movement

The temperature at which the vapor pressure is equal to the prevailing atmospheric pressure is A. Boiling point B. melting point C. freezing point D. critical point

A. Boiling point

The indicator which turns to yellow in basic solution is A. Phenolphthalein B. blue litmus C. methyl orange D. red litmus

C. methyl orange

A base is an electron pair donor as defined by A. Arrhenius B. Lewis C. Democritus D. Bronsted Lowry

B. Lewis

Elements are composed of extremely small particles called atoms. All atoms of the same element are alike, and atoms of different elements are different. This is an expression of the A. Quantum theory B. kinetic theory C. Dalton’s theory D. Bohr theory

C. Dalton’s theory

The magnetic quantum number is related to the A. Direction of turning B. orientation in space C. shape of the electron cloud D. distance from the nucleus

B. orientation in space

The maximum numbers of electron that can stay in a d-orbital is A. 10 B. 8 C. 6 D. 2

A. 10

Deuterium or heavy hydrogen has an atomic number of 1 and a mass of A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. 4

B. 2

A chemical change in which a substance loses electrons and thus increases in oxidation number A. Oxidation B. reduction C. combination D. decomposition

A. Oxidation

A reaction in which the products that are formed react to form the original reactants A. Reversible B. irreversible C. redox D. chemical

A. Reversible

It states that if a stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the system will shift, if possible, in such a way as to reduce the stress. A. Law of mass action B. Le Chatelier’s principle B. C. rate law D. Pauli exclusion principle

B. Le Chatelier’s principle

In the reaction Na + Cl2 → NaCl, what is the ox idizing agent? A. NaCl B. Cl C. Na D. Cl2

D. Cl2

The rise of liquids up very narrow tube is called A. Surface tension B. capillarity action C. viscosity D. buoyant force

B. capillarity action

Sometimes as we remove heat from a liquid we can temporarily cool it below its freezing point without forming a solid. This phenomenon is called A. Fusion B. supercooling C. vaporization D. sublimation

B. supercooling

It is a particle that has the same mass as an electron but an opposite charge. A. Beta particle B. neutrino C. positron D. nucleon

C. positron

Which of the following indicators us yellow in acidic solution and blue in basic solution? A. HpH B. thymol blue C. bromothymol blue D. methyl orange

C. bromothymol blue

On heating glucose with Fehling’s solution we get a precipitate whose color is A. Yellow B. red C. black D. white

B. red

The action on nitrous acid on ethyl amine gives A. Ethane B. ammonia C. ethyl alcohol D. nitroethane

C. ethyl alcohol

If formaldehyde and KOH are heated we get A. Acetylene B. methane C. methanol D. ethyl acetate

C. methanol

Which of the following is formed when urea is heated? A. Ammonium cyanate B. ammonia C. carbon dioxide D. formic acid

B. ammonia

The migration of colloidal particles under the influence of electric field is called A. Electrodialysis B. electrodispersion C. electrophoresis D. electroosmosis

C. electrophoresis

Which fluid is involved in maintaining a heat balance in the body? A. Interstitial fluid B. lymph C. saliva D. sweat

D. sweat

The number of major amino acids found in protein is A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 40

C. 20

The special region of an enzyme where the substrate molecules fits is called the A. Activation energy B. substrate bond C. active site D. catalyst

C. active site

Enzymes which catalyze the breaking or making of double bonds are called A. Transferases B. ligases C. isomerases D. lyases

D. lyases

Bacteria which converts alcoholic solution to vinegar are A. Coli B. acetobacters C. bacilli D. proteins

B. acetobacters

Ethylene readily undergoes the following type of reaction A. Addition B. elimination C. substitution D. rearrangement

A. Addition

A functional group on the principal polymer chain A. Radical group B. peridant group C. aromatic group D. chain group

A. Radical group

Ring compounds consisting of carbon and other atoms. A. Aromatic B. heterocyclic C. terpolymer D. copolymer

A. Aromatic

If an atom has a diameter of 426 pm, what is the volume of 100 atoms? A. 4.11×10-29 m3 B. 3.28×10-7 m3 C. 4.11×10-27 m3 D. 4.11×10-8 m3

C. 4.11×10-27 m3

How many valence electrons are involved in writing the Lewis structure of AsF3? A. 5 B. 21 C. 26 D. 8

C. 26

1000 gal/min of water is cascading down a height of 50 feet from a reservoir. If half of the energy is converted to electrical energy, how many 100-watts bulb can be lighted in 30 seconds? A. 54 B. 56 C. 47 D. 60

C. 47

If the velocity of a reaction doubles every ten degree rise in temperature, how much faster would the reaction proceed at 100°C than 20°C? A. 64 times faster B. 256 times faster C. 120 times faster D. 512 times faster

B. 256 times faster

The accounting device of a “barrel of oil” is defined to hold how many US gallons of petroleum? A. 24 B. 42 C. 55 D. 100

B. 42

The specific heat of soil is 0.20 kcal/kg-°C and the specific heat of water is 1.00 kcal/kg-°C. This means that if 1 kg of soil and 1 kg of water each receive 1 kcal of energy ideally A. The water will be warmer than the soil by 0.8°C B. The soil will warm by 5°C C. The water will warm by 5°C D. The water will warm by 1°C, and the soil will warm by 0.2°C

B. The soil will warm by 5°C

What is the mass of aluminum produced in 1hr in the electrolysis of molten Al2(SO4)3 if the electrical current is 10 A. A. 3.36g B. 5.04g C. 1.00g D. 0.167g

A. 3.36g

The density of a gas mixture of O2 and N2 is 1.1705 g/L at 27°C and 750 mmHg. The % of N2 in the mixture is A. 70% B. 68% C. 30% D. 32%

A. 70%

How much oil at 200°C must be added to 50 grams of the same oil at 20o C to heat it to 70°C? A. 12.39 g B. 29.12 g C. 19.23 g D. 23.91 g

C. 19.23 g

A compound contains 54.45% carbon, 9.09% hydrogen and 36.36% oxygen. What is the empirical formula? A. C4H6O2 B. C2H4O C. CH2O+ D. C2H4O3

B. C2H4O

Calculate the pH of a solution prepared by mixing 10 mL of 0.1 N NaOH and 25 mL of 0.1 N HAc. A. 2.46 B. 12.96 C. 4.57 D. 8.72

C. 4.57

What is the pH of natural rain water? A. 5.6 - 6.2 B. 7.0 - 8.3 C. 4.2 – 4.4 D. 2.2 – 2.4

A. 5.6 - 6.2

The concentration of a chemical degrades in water according to first-order kinetics. The degradation constant is 0.2/day. If the initial concentration is 100 mg/ L, how many days are required for the concentration to reach 0.14 mg/L? A. 24.8 days B. 26.2 days C. 30.7 days D. 32.9 days

D. 32.9 days

What is the pH of water that contains 120 mg/L of bicarbonate ion and 15 mg/L of carbonate ion? A. 9.43 B. 8.76 C. 8.01 D. 7.65

A. 9.43

Of the following gasses, _____________ will have the greatest rate of effusion at a given temperature. A. NH3 B. CH4 C. Ar D. HBr

B. CH4

What weight of Epsom salts, MgSO4∙7H2O is required to prepare 300 mL of 2 M solution of magnesium sulfate? A. 148 g B. 120 g C. 87 g D. 75 g

A. 148 g

A sample of hydrogen occupies a volume of 2.50 liters at atmospheric pressure and a temperature of 25.0°C. if the gas is cooled at constant pressure to -200°C, what will the volume be? A. 0.512 L B. 0.548 L C. 0.613 L D. 0.670 L

C. 0.613 L

When an ester is hydrolyzed, the end products are A. Water and base B. An acid and an alcohol C. an acid and water D. an acid and a base

B. An acid and an alcohol

Which of the following are nonelectrolytes in water? I. HF II. ethanol III. CH3CH3 IV. KCIO3 V. Cu(NO3)2 A. II and III only B. I, II and II only C. I, IV and V only D. II only

A. II and III only

By referring only to the periodic table, arrange the following in order of increasing electronegativity: Ga, P, As, S, O, and F. A. Ga< P < As < S < O < F B. Ga < As < S < P < O < F C. Ga< As < P < O < S < F D. Ga < As < P < S < O < F

D. Ga < As < P < S < O < F

A solid metallic element burns in oxygen to produce an oxide which dissolves in water to give the hydroxide of the metal. The hydroxide obtained from 1 gram of metal neutralizes 111.2 ml of normal hydrochloric acid. The specific heat of the metal is 0.228 cal/g-°C. What is the equivalent weight of the metal? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

C. 3

B. 8.992

The following equilibrium was obtained when some NO gas was placed into a 2-L container until the pressure was 0.650 atm: 2NO (g) = N2 (g) + O2 (g) the equilibrium pressure of N2 was found to be 5.25 E-2 atm. What is the Kp for this reaction? A. 198 B. 153 C. 6.52E–3 D. 9.28 E–3

D. 9.28 E–3

What H+is needed to dissolve completely 0.0010 mole of AgCN in 1 liter solution? KHCN = 4E-10 and Ksp of AgCN = 1.6E-14 A. 0.00026 M B. 0.026 M C. 0.000026 M D. 0.26 M

B. 0.026 M

A 25 ml sample of 0.025 M HBr is mixed with 25.0 ml of 0.023 M KOH. What is the pH of the resulting mixture? A. 1.00 B. 3.00 C. 7.00 D. 11.00

B. 3.00

A student is titrating 50 ml of 0.2 N HCl solution with a solution of 0.2 N KOH. He accidentally adds one ml too much titrant. What is the pH of the resulting solution? A. 10.3 B. 11.3 C. 2.7 D. 7.3

B. 11.3

Biochemistry Flashcards

(419 cards)