BIOL 125 Flashcards

(86 cards)

1
Q

What are the four lobes of the cerebral cortex called and what do they do?

A

Frontal lobe - higher cognitive functions (descision making, problem solving, some language and movement)

Parietal lobe - integgrates visual pathway information and coordinates motor movement and sensory information

Temporal lobe - speech, hearing, object recognition and emotion

Occipital lobe - primary visual information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the subcortical regions of the brain?

A

The regions under the cortex with many functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the midbrain?

A

The connection between brainstem and subcortical regions.
Consists of:
Colliculi - directs eye movemennt
Tegmentum - cooridnates movement and alertness/slee
Cerebral peduncle - ocular muscle control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the sections of the spinal chord?

A

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral and coccygeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the two main sections of the peripheral nervous system?

A

Somatic - voluntary

Autonomic - involuntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the subgroups of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Enteric - movment of water and solutes between gut and tissues
Sympathetic - speeds up
parasympathetic - slows down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are afferent and efferent pathways?

A

Afferent - carries sensory info from periphery to the brain (arriving)
Efferent - carries signals to the peripheral for mother output (exiting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two main cells of the CNS?

A

Neurons (nerve cells) and glia (support cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What types of glial cells are there?

A

microglia, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes and ependymal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are microglia and what is their function?

A

Immune cells of the CNS and have an idle (surveillant) form and an active larger form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are astrocytes and what is their function?

A

Star shaped cells that provide support for development and maintenence of nervous sustem and cerebral blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are oligodendrocytes and what is their function?

A

Also known as schwann cells (in the PNS) these cells form lipid rich myelin sheaths around certain neurons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is white and grey matter?

A

White matter is myelinated and grey is unmyelinated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does the brain stop blood from reaching it?

A

there are tight junction proteins in the endothelial cells of the brain creating a barrier between the blood and the brain (blood-brain barrier)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the cerebrospinal fluid?

A

It is the fluid contain in the ventricles and subarachnoid spaces of brain and spinal chord.

It provied buoyancy and cushioning to the brain

It is produced from filtered blood by the choroid plexus

It is shared between the spinal chord and brain and so can be used to provide a ‘snapshot’ of brain conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the differences to ionotropic receptors and metabolic receptors?

A

Ionotropic receptors - Transmitter binding triggers direct opening of ion channels
They are always stimulatory and are fast

Metabolic receptors - transmitter binding indirectly activates G-proteins.
Can also trigger opening and closing of ion channels and downstream signalling cascades
They are slow and take hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the structure of ionotropic receptors?

A

They are composed of 4/5 subunits around a central pore.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the structure of metabolic receptors?

A

A single protein with 7 membrane spanning regions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 4 major groups of neurotransmitters?

A

Acetylcholine

Biogenic amines

Amino acids

Peptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What enzymes break down and synthesise acetylcholine?

A

It is broken down by Acetylcholinesterase (in the synaptic cleft) and sythesised by Choline acetyl transferase (in the presynaptic cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two types of acetylcholine receptors and what are their agonists and antagonists?

A

Nicotinic (neuromuscular junction, brain and autonomic nerves) and muscarinic (smooth muscle, exocrine glands, brain)

Nicotinic agonist: nicotine
Antagonist: Curare

Muscarinic agonist: muscarine
antagonist: Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is alzheimers disease treated?

A

Using acetylcholinesterase inhibitors to try and maintian acetylcholine levels in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How are catecholamines synthesised?

A

Synthesised from tyrosine from the blood involving enzymes MAO and COMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What causes parkinsons disease?

A

Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta and loss of dopamine in the caudate-putamen with more than 50% dopamine depletion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How is parkinsons disease treated?
Using L-dopa to replenish dopamine levels in the brain alongside a peripherally active dopa decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent L-dopa converting outside of the brain. COMPT and MAO-B can also be administered to inhibit degredation of dopamine levels.
26
How is serotonin synthesised and broken down?
Synthesised from tryptophan by tryptophan hydroxylase and 5-hydroxytryptophan decarboxylase Broken down to 5-hydroxyindoleic acid by MAO and aldehyde dehydrogenase
27
How does serotonin signalling work?
5-HT cab bind to 14 receptors (13 of which are G-protein-coupled) and 5-HT3 which is a ligand-gated ion channel. Can be exitatory or inhibitory Action terminated by reuptakevia 5-HT transorted on presynaptic neuron
28
What are the 4 amino acids transmitters?
Glutamate, aspartate (exitatory) Glycine and GABA (inhibitory)
29
What can serotonin reuptake inhibitors treat?
Symptoms of depression, anxiety, OCD, PTSD and other mental conditions
30
How do GABA receptors act as an inbitor?
It is couples to Cl- channels and alters membrane potential to make it harder to generate an action potential.
31
What are the 3 glutamate receptors?
NMDA receptors Kainate and AMPA receptors mGluRs (G-protein coupled receptors)
32
How do astrocytes buffer glutamate and GABA concentrations?
Glutamate is removed from the synapse by astroycte vis exitatory animo acid transporters Gaba is taken up by GABA transporters Both are catabolysed to glutamine in the astrocyte for reuse.
33
What treatments target GABA and glutamate signalling?
Memantine blocks Mg2+ binding sites on glutamate NMDA receptor to treat Alzheimer's GABA receptor agonists are given for epilepsy seizure treatment
34
Where are peptide neurotransmitters found commonly?
In the hypothalamus.
35
What are other neutrotransmitters outside the 4 main groups?
Purines, Histamine and gases (Nitric oxide)
36
Name all the sphincters in the GI tract
upper and lower esophageal sphincter Pyloric sphincter ileocecal sphincter anal sphincters
37
What are the 4 layers for the general structure of the GI tract?
1) Mucosa 2) Submucosa 3) Muscularis 4) Serosa Also nerve plexus which spreads through the layers
38
What types of epithelial cells are in the mucous membrane?
absorptive cells, exocrine cells, goblet cells and endocrine cells
39
What functions does saliva have and where is it produced?
By salivary glands (parotid, sublingual and submandibular) Begins digestion (salivary aplha-amylase and lingual lipase) lubrication buffering and dilution antibiotic Helps taste Cleans teeth and aids tooth repair
40
What are the functions of the stomach?
Produced HCL from parietal cells and secretes pepsinogen from cheif cells Mucu and gastric lipase also secreted Rennin coagulates milk Can expand from 50ml to 1-2 litres
41
What are zymogens/pro-enzymes and why are they important?
They are inactive enzymes that require a biochemical change to activate This stops them from digesting the cells that produce them and therefore protects those cells.
42
How is pepsinogen activated?
It is activated when it encounters HCl in the stomach
43
What are the functions of the small intestine?
It is where most digestion and absorption takes place. Recieves chyme from stomach, enzymes from pancreas and bile from liver and gallbladder Contained crypts of lieberkuhn which secrete bicarbonate rich fluid to neutralise chyme
44
What are the functions of the colon?
Has crypts of lieberkuhn but no villi as only water and some fats are absorbed there. It is the principle location of commensal microflora
45
What are acinar cells in the pancreas?
They make digestive enzymes and bicarbonate (neutralises stomach acid)
46
What types of islets of langerhan are in the pancreas?
Aplha cells - make glucagon Beta cells - make insulin delta cells - make somatostatin (regulates digestion, absorption and other hormone release)
47
Where are monosaccarides, amino acids and fats absorbed and how?
Monosaccarides and amino acids are absorbed in small intestine then into the capillaries before being transported to the liver Fats are emulsified via bile salt and digested by pancreatic lipase. The long chain resulting fatty acids are converted to chylomicrons and absorbed into the lymphatic system some short-chain fatty acids are absorbed into blood directly
48
Why is the microbiota important?
The bacteria in our gut influence digestion and nutrient absorbtion.
49
Where does the thoracic duct in the lymph system drain?
It drains into the left subclavian vein
50
How do nutrients enter and exit the liver?
They travel through mesentric veins and enter through the hepatic portal vein they leave through the hepatic vein Bile stalts are recirculated
51
How many blood groups are there?
43 Most commonly ABO and Rhesus +/-
52
How do blood types affect inheritence?
A and B are codominant with each other O is recessive with either A or B
53
What is ABO incompatability in babies?
When mother and baby have incompatible blood types. This results in one of them breaking down the others RBCs with bilirubin levels increasing causing jaundice as it is yellow (and neurotoxic)
54
Where is the heart located specifically?
In the center of the mediastinum with the base (top) at the level of the second rib
55
What is the pericardium?
A protective "bag" that covers the heart that also lubricates it. It has 3 main layers: Fibrous pericardium Serous pericardium Epicardium Problems with the pericardium which impact function and movement of the heart is known as pericarditis.
56
What tissue is responsible for The heart valves preventing them from opening both ways?
Chordae tendinae (located on the inside of the valves)
57
What is the main difference between atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves?
Atrioventricular valves are bicuspid Semilunar valves are tricuspid
58
What are problems that can occur with heart valves?
Incompetent valves - valves don't close fully so there is regurgitant flow. Valvular stenosis - stiffened valves narrowing opening caused by repeated infection, congenital disease or calcium deposits
59
What are the 3 layers of blood vessels?
Tunica adventitia/externa (supportive outer layer of collagen fibres) Tunica media (thickest layer, muscular middle that resists blood pressure) Tunica intima (endothelial layer that creates a smooth surface for blood to flow)
60
What are the heart sounds that are loud enough to be heard (ausculation)?
The first heart sound is caused by the AV valves closing The second heart sound is caused by the semilunar valve closing less audible sounds are from ventricular filling and atrial systole If there is an ejection sound then that indicates a shunt or valve disease
61
Describe the cardiac cycle
1) Atrial systole 2) Isovolumetric contraction (begining of ventricular systole) 3) Rapid ejection 4) reduced ejection 5) Isovolumetric relaxation - valves close 6) Rapid filling of ventricle 7) Reduced filling of ventricles
62
What is cardiac output and what regulates it?
Stroke volume x heart rate = cardiac output Regulated by (para)sympathetic nerves and also by ion levels Low calcium cause weak contractions whereas too much causes long contractions Potassium is also neccessary in musle contraction and nerve conduction and is therefore important.
63
What is Frank-Starling's law?
Bigger stroke volume ejected if there is a larger degree of filling at the end of diastole.
64
What is blood pressure?
Cardiac output x Total peripheral resistance = blood pressure It describes the pressure of blood on the walls of blood vessels not changes in pressure in the heart.
65
What is peripheral resistance?
It is the degree of friction encountered by blood (flow resistance) Caused by constiriction, atherosclerosis, stiffening, increased blood volume and increased viscosity.
66
What are the equations for Pulse pressure and Mean arterial pressure?
Pulse pressure = systolic BP - Diastolic BP Mean arterial pressure = Diastolic BP + Pulse pressure/3
67
How is BP controlled and regulated?
Baroreceptors in arterial carotida and aortic arch Chemoreceptors in carotid artery and medulla
68
Why might our blood pressure need to increase?
Some reasons are: To counteract pressure changes from getting up too quickly. Haemorrhaging can cause secondary shock since after an injury blood is cut off but surrounding tissues try and dilate to get more oxygen. Stress or excersise can also raise BP
69
How can you decrease blood pressure?
Low salt diet Decrease stress and effects of SNS Therapeutically with ACE inhibitors
70
Why is high BP bad?
High BP can cause damage to the blood vessels, stress on the heart due to increased resistance and it can change the exchange capacity (lower it)
71
How does action potential stimulation differ in cardiac cells?
Cardiac cells have a different resting potential (-90mV instead of -70mV) They also have a longer refractory period with a plateau of maintained depolarisation which helps prevent tetany. It also allows relaxation and filling of ventricles between contractions letting it function effectively as a pump.
72
What causes spontaneously depolarization in the heart?
The funny channels in the SAN cause slow depolarisation which reaches a threshold and causes an action potential AVN also spontaneously depolarize but more slowly so usually triggered by SAN action potentials before they depolarize on their own.
73
What factors affect rate of SAN firing?
Increasing (sympathetic): Muscarinic receptor antagonist Beta adrenergic receptor agonist Circulating catecholamines Hyperkalaemia Hyperthyroidism (increased metabolism therefore more oxygen and higher bpm) Hyperthermia Decreasing (parasympathetic): Muscarinic receptor agonist Beta blockers Ischaemia/hypoxia Hypokalemia Sodium/calcium channel blockers Hypothermia Hyper/hypokalemia can cause cardiac failiure.
74
What are problems with heart rate?
Tachycardia - increased heart rate (>100bpm) Fibrillation - rapid, regulare unco-ordinated contraction Badycardia - low heart rate (<60bpm)
75
What does an ECG show you?
It shows you the electrical activity of the heart (specifically the depolarisation of atrial muscle and the de/repolarisation of ventriculat muscle) Does not show muscle contraction and that has to be inferred.
76
What is the structure of the lungs?
The treachea branches off into two lungs with 2 lobes in the left lung and 3 lobes in the right lung The bronchioles from the trachea terminate at alveoli where gas exchange takes place.
77
What is the difference between normal and forced breathing?
Forced breathing uses more (accessory) msucles which can cause pain as they are not normally used.
78
What are the 4 respiratory centres in your brain for breathing?
1) Pontine respiratory group Medulla group: 2) Pre-Bötzinger complex 3) Dorsal respiratory group 4) Ventral respiratory group
79
What is anatomical dead space?
The air that doesn't reach the alveoli for gas exchange is in anatomical dead space
80
What is surfactant and what is its role in the alveoli?
Type 2 alveolar epithelial cells release lipid rich surfactant which lowers the surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli. This allows for the surface area of the lungs to increase withotut increasing the surface tension (laplace's law) which would cause lung collapse.
81
What is respiratory distress syndrome?
in premature births babies do not produce surfactant (pre week-26) so are vunerable to lung collapse. Cortisol treatment for mother in labour can help and infants can be treated with oxygen to resolve RDS
82
What is ventilation, perfusion and V/P?
Ventilation: amount of air reaching the alevoli/min Perfusion: amount of blood reaching the alveoli/m The ratio between these is V/P and determines the blood O2 and CO2 concentration. If there is a mismatch respiratory failure takes place.
83
How does myoglobin in tissues interact with oxygen from red blood cells?
Due to its higher affinity (especially during exercise) it takes up the oxygen delivered by RBCs and delivers it to cells.
84
How is blood pH raised?
To raise pH besides buffers it is mostly removal of carbon dioxide to reduce carbonic acid levels. This is done mostly by ventilation but also by urination. Ventilation is regulated by chemoreceptors which measure H+ concentration and increases rate when pH increases.
85
What is the hering-bruer inflation reflex?
Activated by lung stretch, slowly adapting stretch receptors fire with increasing frequency and the high receptor activity inhibits inflation forcing you to exhale to avoid over-inflation.
85