biological

Question 1

what is cephalisation?

Answer 1

occurs in bilaterians where nervous tissue is concentrated toward one end of an organism
80% water

Question 2

what is the CNS?

Answer 2

brain and spinal cord

Question 3

what is the PNS?

Answer 3

NS other than brain and spinal cord

Question 4

what are the two main types of cells in the NS?

Answer 4

neurons and glia

Question 5

what are the functions of glia?

Answer 5

glia are essentially support cells
in the NS and have many vital roles:
1. provide structure, i.e., surround neurons and hold them in place (astrocytes)
2. insulate nerve cells with myelin sheaths
(oligodendrocytes in the CNS, schwann cells in the PNS)
3. supply nutrients and oxygen to neuron
(astrocytes)
4. removal of dead neuronal tissue & immune defence of the CNS (microglia: phagocytes)
5. during development, glial cells provide scaffolds for neurons to migrate to their final destinations (radial glia)
6. modulate neurotransmission in the synapses

Question 6

multiple sclerosis

Answer 6

common symptoms: vision problems, fatigue, difficulties with
walking
cause: demyelination of axons in the brain and spinal cord

Question 7

neuron structure: soma

Answer 7

contains the nucleus which contains the cell’s genetic material organised as DNA
contains mitochondria (metabolism), ribosomes (protein synthesis), ER (transports proteins to other locations)
also contains golgi and nissl bodies

Question 8

neuron structure: axon

Answer 8

thin fibre that transmits to other neurons
the distal end has many branches that swell and form a presyanptic terminal
some axons have boutons along their fibres

Question 9

neuron structure: dendrites

Answer 9

branching fibres reciving information from other neurons

Question 10

neuron structure: myelin sheath

Answer 10

insulating layer that speeds up electrical transmission

Question 11

how did myelin sheath form?

Answer 11

an ancient virus helped to form a myelin sheath around
nerve fibres

Question 12

afferent neurons

Answer 12

sensory neurons that carry information from receptors

Question 13

efferent neurons

Answer 13

carry signals away to the effectors (muscles/glands)

Question 14

interneurons

Answer 14

connect other neurons

Question 15

what is resting potential?

Answer 15

the membrane of a neuron maintains an
electrical gradient (the difference in
electrical charge) between the inside and
outside of the cell
the inside is slightly lower than outside (-70mV)

Question 16

what are the two stages of excitation of neurons?

Answer 16

1. transmission of information from
   the exterior through dendrites to the cell
   body
2. transmission from the cell body through the axon out of the neuron

Question 17

excitatory synapses

Answer 17

EPSP is a change in polarisation moving along dendrites toward the cell’s body
EPSP is positive -> provokes depolarisation

Question 18

inhibitory synapses

Answer 18

IPSP is a change in polarisation moving along dendrites toward the cell’s body
IPSP is negative -> provokes hyperpolarisation

Question 19

what is summation?

Answer 19

postsynaptic potentials sum up when meet
other postsynaptic potentials or if followed by others

Question 20

what are the two types of summation?

Answer 20

over space (spatial) – from different dendrites
over time (temporal) – from the same dendrites

Question 21

all or nothing principle

Answer 21

the amplitude of an action potential is independent of the
amount of current which produced it, i.e. larger currents do not
create larger action potentials (+30mV)
an action potential will occur fully or not at all

Question 22

propagation of action potentials

Answer 22

first action potential – on the axon hillock
action potentials move down an axon towards another cell using saltatory conduction
APs hop along the axon recurring at successive nodes of
ranvier = fast propagation
myelin prevents any charge leakage through the axon

Question 23

postmortem studies (19th and 20th century)

Answer 23

relationship between brain damage and loss of function
damage to broca’s area in the left frontal lobe found via PM

Question 24

microscopic analysis of neural tissue

Answer 24

brodmann areas
6 layers of brain cortex (neocortex)
4 layers of hypothalamus (archicortex)

Question 25

postmortem microscopic anaylsis of tissue

Answer 25

5 brains of people previously diagnosed with dyslexia- smaller neurons in magnocellular layers of LGN in thalamus

Question 26

structural imaging- in vivo examples

Answer 26

computerised tomography (CT) magentic resonance imaging (MRI)

Question 27

computerised tomography

Answer 27

narrow X-ray beam is rotated around the patient. CT captures multiple projections from many angles on opposite side of the patient, an array of X-ray detectors measures how much radiation passes through the body at each angle bone absorbs a lot → appears white air absorbs very little → appears black soft tissue → various shades of gray many slices are taken in quick succession to form a 3D model of the area being scanned

Question 28

contrasts and CT scans

Answer 28

contrast dye may be injected into the blood for better contrast (not compulsory) without contrast: a standard CT scan can show basic structures of the brain (the skull, brain tissue, and large blood vessels). it is useful for detecting issues like brain bleeding, fractures, or large tumors. with contrast: highlights blood vessels, tumors, and areas with abnormal tissue, facilitating identification of specific issues like tumors, infections, or vascular abnormalities

Question 29

CT evaluation

Answer 29

fast and cost effective x-ray exposure less detailed than other methods (MRI)

Question 30

CT scan example- hier (1978)

Answer 30

24 people with dyslexia atypical anatomical asymmetry in brains of some people with dyslexia

Question 31

magnetic resonance imaging

Answer 31

MRI uses a very strong magnet to align the spins of hydrogen nuclei (protons) along the direction of the magnetic field radiofrequency (RF) pulse is sent into the brain, which knocks the protons out of alignment when the RF pulse stops, the protons start to relax emit signals emitted signals are detected by receiver coils around the head a computer then reconstructs these into detailed cross-sectional images of the brain

Question 32

magnetic field of MRI

Answer 32

25000 times the magentic field of the earth

Question 33

MRI evaluation

Answer 33

no x-ray exposure great spatial resolution expensive time consuming

Question 34

MRI example- sun (2018)

Answer 34

170 children (ADHD and control) no overall difference between ADHD and controls in total bran volume or total grey/white matter volumes differences at left temporal lobe, bilateral occipital cortex and areas arounf the left central sulcus the mean classification accuracy with MRI studies classifiers to discriminate people with ADHD from control subjects=74%

Question 35

diffusion-tensor magnetic resonance imaging (DTI)

Answer 35

imaging method to study white matter tracts measuring the direction of diffusion of water molecules (water diffusion in the brain tends to track along bundles of white matter fibres)

Question 36

investigation of nervous system activity

Answer 36

bioelectric activity - EEG - evoked potentials energy consumption (indirectly) - fMRI - PET

Question 37

electroencephalography

Answer 37

electrical brain activity measure on the scalp in living people sensitive to postsynaptic dendritic currents generated by a population of neurons that are active in synchrony

Question 38

analysing brain waves

Answer 38

delta (0.5-4Hz)=sleep theta (4-7Hz)=sleep, meditation, excess theta for age is abnornmal and may be due to focal subcortical lesions alpha (8-12Hz)=relaxation beta(12-30Hz)=alertness, attention, REM sleep gamma (30-100Hz)

Question 39

abnormal discharge on an EEG

Answer 39

spike and wave pattern

Question 40

EEG example- santarone (2023)

Answer 40

292 routine EEG recordings of preschool children (age < 6 years) with ASD in 78.0% of cases the EEG recordings were found to be abnormal, particularly during sleep paroxysmal slowing and epileptiform abnormalities were found in the 28.4% of the subjects, confirming the high percentage of abnormal polysomnographic EEG recordings in children with ASD

Question 41

EEG evaluation

Answer 41

excellent temporal resolution ( <1ms) inexpensive, accessible poor spatial resolution (scalp signal is a sum of signals from different brain sources whose locations are difficult to infer)

Question 42

animal studies- single cell recordings

Answer 42

neurons behvaiour can be examined through microelectrodes but does not stimulate it

Question 43

event-related potentials

Answer 43

EEG activity time-locked to an external event (e.g. sound, visual signal, response etc) averaged across multiple occurrences of the same event to reduce noise EPR peak direction (positive, negative), amplitude and timing used to investigate brain processes in different cognitive domains

Question 44

single cell recording example- quiroga et al (2005)

Answer 44

single-cell recording of cells in the hippocampus that recognise sepcific people jennifer aniston neuron

Question 45

magentoencephalography (MEG)

Answer 45

recording of magnetic fields produced by electrical currents in the brain using arrays of SQUIDs (superconducting quantum interference devices)

Question 46

MEG evaluation

Answer 46

signal unaffected by skull, meninges more sensitive to activity at sulci millisecond temporal resolution potetntially good spatial resolution (2-3mm) expensive and limited availability

Question 47

functional magnetic resonance imaging

Answer 47

activated neurons requires more oxygen blood flow increases to the active brain region, and the oxygen level in the blood goes up. fMRI detects this change in oxygen levels in the blood using a method called BOLD (Blood Oxygenation Level Dependent) imaging oxygen-rich blood has slightly different magnetic properties compared to oxygen-poor blood computer creates detailed images of brain activity plotted against structural MRI pictures. active areas of the brain appear brighter on the fMRI scan.

Question 48

haemodynamic response function

Answer 48

the change in BOLD over time is known as the haemodynamic response function - makes it possible to localise active voxels - peaks in 6-8 seconds after the event and is extended over time which limits the temporal resolution of fMRI

Question 49

fMRI evalution

Answer 49

excellent spatial resolution poor temporal resolutiom very expensive discomfort susceptible to artifacts (head shape, movement)

Question 50

fMRI example- bierlich (2024)

Answer 50

▪ 33 persons with autism and 29 controls ▪ participants viewed short, silent videos of social interactions. ▪ a general difference in processing social interactions was found between observers with autism and controls (decreased neural activation in the right middle frontal gyrus, angular gyrus, and superior temporal areas). ▪ participants with autism showed similar neural activation patterns as control participants in areas responsible for perception of temporal dynamics of social interactions.

Question 51

positron emission tomography

Answer 51

measures brain activity, local blood flow, and metabolism injection of a tracer (a small amount of radioactive material) into bloodstream (usually glucose) emission of energy: as the tracer breaks down (radioactive decay), it emits positrons (antielectrons). when these positrons meet electrons, they cancel each other out, radiating energy (gamma rays). the PET scanner detects gamma rays and creates detailed images based on where the tracer has been used most (is accumulated).

Question 52

PET evaluation

Answer 52

can be used to study neurotransmitter systems (radioactive tracers can be designed to bind specifically to certain neurotransmitter receptors) sensitive to subtle changes radiation exposure low spatial/temporal resolution expensive limited availability discomfort

Question 53

PET example- volkow (1990)

Answer 53

10 persons addicted to cocaine in process of detoxification and 10 controls. after 1 week of detoxification postsynaptic dopamine receptors availability was decreased in people with addiction. after 1 month of drug-free interval – similar to normal levels.

Question 54

PET vs fMRI

Answer 54

PET- blood volume, fMRI- blood oxygen conc. radioactivity vs no radioactivity temp reso= 30 seconds vs 1-4 seconds spatial= 10mm vs 1mm in fMRI some brain regions are hard to image like near sinuses

Question 55

examining the effects of brain damage: informal tasks

Answer 55

drawings of different emotional states by a patient with amygdala dysfunction in limbic system

Question 56

examining the effects of the brain: observation

Answer 56

oberseration of phineas gage - intact speech, movement, intelligence – disinhibition of inappropriate behaviour – the injury changed his personality and behaviour the damage of ventral part of prefrontal cortex

Question 57

modern brain stimulation

Answer 57

in healthy participants (noninvasive): transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) neurons are excited/inhibited by externally applied time-varying electromagnetic fields generated by a coil located above the head

Question 58

split brain studies and epilepsy

Answer 58

large electrical discharge in focal area then spreads throughout the brain. generalized, grand mal drop seizures are potentially dangerous as they can lead to further injuries surgical intervention -> separation of the brain hemispheres

Question 59

spilt brain studies and the visual pathway

Answer 59

visual information proceeds to the contralateral (opposite) hemisphere hemispheric transfer necessary for each hemisphere to perceive ipsilateral space and for midline fusion lateral & medial pathways contralateral control of distal effectors ipsilateral control of proximal effectors only can therefore use unilateral inputs and unilateral response to measure hemispheric function

Question 60

neurotypical development

Answer 60

prevalence=15-20% - onset during infancy or children - impairment or delay in functions related to biological maturation of the CNS - steady course that does not involve remission or relapse - common family history (genetic factors) - possible change in pattern with age - heterogenity

Question 61

dated dyselxia definition (morgan 1896)

Answer 61

originally used to describe the loss of the ability to read as the result of brain damage

Question 62

ICD-11 definition of neurodiversity

Answer 62

learning difficulties result in significant impairment in the individual’s academic, occupational or other important areas of functioning. if functioning is maintained, it is only through significant additional effort

Question 63

medical model to neurodiversity paradigm

Answer 63

clincial classifications (categorical) to neurodiversity spectrum comorbidity of symptoms and syndromes is the rule rather than the exception

Question 64

prevalence of developmental language disorder

Answer 64

7%

Question 65

prevalence of ASD

Answer 65

2%

Question 66

prevalence of dyslexia

Answer 66

15%

Question 67

prevalence of dyscalculia

Answer 67

6%

Question 68

prevalence of dyspraxia

Answer 68

6%

Question 69

prevalence of ADHD

Answer 69

4%

Question 70

what is a single cognitive deficit model of developemental disorders?

Answer 70

looks for a specific cause of a syndrome and suggests a simple cause-effect relationship

Question 71

single cognitive deficit model of dyslexia

Answer 71

phonological deficit

Question 72

single cognitive deficit model of ADHD

Answer 72

inhibition deficit

Question 73

single cognitive deficit model of autism

Answer 73

theory of mind deficit

Question 74

prevalence of comorbid conditions and ADHD (kadesjö and gillberg, 2001)

Answer 74

87% of persons with ADHD have one or two other neurodevelopmental conditions

Question 75

prevalence of comorbid conditions and ADHD (andrewes et al., 2002)

Answer 75

21% of persons with ADHD have three or more other neurodevelopmental conditions

Question 76

comorbiditoy of developmental language disorder and dyslexia symptoms

Answer 76

25-90% (tomblin et al., 2000)

Question 77

comorbidity of underlying symptoms

Answer 77

unclear whether underlying symptoms are: - causally related to the core symptoms of the syndrome - the result of a common cause - outcomes of the syndrome

Question 78

examples of common additional symptoms in developmental disorders:

Answer 78

1. visual stress 2. auditory processing disorder 3. atypical executive functions

Question 79

what is visual stress?

Answer 79

visual stress in response to bright, contracting stimuli - common in ASD - cooccuring in dyslexia

Question 80

visual stress and the grid illusion

Answer 80

people with dyslexia perceive illusory effects more strongly than non-dyslexics this is because the lateral inhibition is stronger or they experience more glocal intergration of the contrast response

Question 81

coping strategies for visual stress

Answer 81

avoiding strong light reducing contrast

Question 82

auditory processing definition

Answer 82

central/auditory processing disorder (C/APD) normal hearing pure tone sensitivity but experience auditory processing difficulties in everyday life that are indexed by reduced performance in other more sophisticated audiometric tests such as speech audiometry in noise or complex non-speech sound perception difficulty processing brief, rapidly presented stimuli and/or making frequency discriminations

Question 83

auditory processing symptoms

Answer 83

* difficulty following verbal instructions * need instructions to be repeated * slow to process verbal information * easily overloaded with auditory information -> daydreaming, distracted * difficulty sustaining attention on speech

Question 84

APD and ASD (lau et al., 2023)

Answer 84

70% of children diagnosed with autism show CAPD

Question 85

APD and dyslexia (king et al., 2003)

Answer 85

50% of children with dyslexia show CAPD

Question 86

APD And language impairment (sharma et al., 2009)

Answer 86

76% of children with CAPD have language impairment

Question 87

APD and ADHD (ricco, 1994)

Answer 87

50% of children with ADHD have CAPD

Question 88

executive functions examples

Answer 88

planning, monitoring, correcting and executing associated with prefrontal cortex slow maturation

Question 89

what is dyschronia?

Answer 89

condition of cerebellar dysfunction in which an individual cannot accurately estimate the amount of time that has passed

Question 90

dyschronia and dyslexia

Answer 90

time management problems difficulties in visual/auditory processing of transient stimuli (llinas, 1993)

Question 91

problems with single deficit theories of developmental disorders

Answer 91

theory of mind deficit provides a good explanation of the problems in social interaction and communication in autism, but - does not explain the third autism core symptom: repetitive behaviours and restricted interests; - does not explain some of the cognitive strengths found in autism (e.g. in visual perception)

Question 92

multiple cognitive deficit model of developemental disorders

Answer 92

in multifactorial causation, more than one causal factor is required to yield a given outcome e.g phonological deficit theory in dyslexia and an inhibition deficit theory in ADHD - dyslexia is defined by cognitive tests whereas ADHD is defined by behaviour ratings (usually from teachers and parents), the comorbidity is not due to definitional overlap

Question 93

MCDM and atypicality

Answer 93

* traditional boundaries between typical and atypical are arbitrary (based on standard deviation) * neurodiversity paradigm and Multiple Cognitive Deficit Model suggests diffused boundaries between typical and atypical)

Question 94

cultural relativism and single deficit theories

Answer 94

single deficit theory of dyslexia may be restricted to the english language and thus lack generalizability phonological deficits is observed in only 15% of chinese readers with dyslexia (ho et al., 2002).

Question 95

risk and protective factors in multiple cognitive deficit models

Answer 95

etiology of complex behavioural disorders is multifactorial and involves the interaction of multiple risk and protective factors factors alter the development of cognitive functions necessary for typical development no single etiological factor is sufficient for a disorder comorbidity among complex behavioural disorders is to be expected because of shared etiologic and cognitive risk factors vulnerability is often continuous and quantitative, rather than being discrete and categorical

Question 96

benefits of MCDM

Answer 96

- helps explain changes of pattern (sub-types) with age - implicatiosn for treatment

Question 97

challenges of MCDM

Answer 97

- theory is diffcult to falsify - currect cross sectional studies cannot establish causality

Question 98

what does the neurodiversity paradigm reject?

Answer 98

rejects the assumption that typical brains function correctly while atypical brains function incorrectly since people with typical development are more numerous, the world is organised according to their needs

Question 99

what is an IPSP?

Answer 99

hyperpolarises a postsyanptic neuron so decreases the rate of action potentials

Question 100

what is an EPSP?

Answer 100

depolarises a neuron so increases firing rate of action potentials

Question 101

process of synaptic transmission

Answer 101

1. action potential in presynaptic neuron 2. vesicle fuse with neuron and releases neurotransmitters to syanptic cleft 3. neurotransmitters bind to receptors and opens channels in postsynaptic neurons membrane 4. movement of ions causes potential in postsyanptic

Question 102

when an action potential reaches the end of an axon, depolarisation opens...

Answer 102

voltage gated calcium ion channels in the presynaptic membrane

Question 103

how long does the transmission of information in the synapse take?

Answer 103

2ms (0.0000001cm/ms)

Question 104

what is the speed of conduction along an axon?

Answer 104

4cm/ms

Question 105

the quantity of neurotransmitters released impacts...

Answer 105

the robustness of changes in the postsynaptic membrane

Question 106

what is the role of a synapse?

Answer 106

send chemical information through the gap and opens ions' gates in the postsynaptic neuron

Question 107

how many neurotransmitters do humans have?

Answer 107

around 100

Question 108

excitatory synapse- Na+

Answer 108

sodium gates open and sodium ions enter the postsynaptic neuron = EPSP

Question 109

inhibitory synapse- Cl-

Answer 109

chloride gates open and enter the postsynaptic neuron = IPSP

Question 110

inhibitory synapse- K+

Answer 110

potassium gates open and potassium ions leave the postsynaptic neuron = IPSP

Question 111

examples of excitatory neurotransmitters

Answer 111

glutamate, epinephrine, norepinephyrne

Question 112

examples of inhibitory neurotransmitters

Answer 112

GABA and glycine

Question 113

examples of excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters

Answer 113

acetylcholine, dopamine and serotonin

Question 114

what are receptors?

Answer 114

chemicals specific to a given type of neurotransmitter

Question 115

what are the two types of receptors?

Answer 115

ionotropic (fast) and metabotropic (slow)

Question 116

example of an excitatory ionotropic receptor

Answer 116

glutamate

Question 117

example of an inhibitory ionotropic receptor

Answer 117

GABA

Question 118

ionotropic effects on postsynaptic membrane

Answer 118

as soon as the neurotransmitter binds to a receptor on the membrane, the ion gates open the process starts in 1ms and lasts for 20ms

Question 119

metabotropic effets on postsyanptic membrane

Answer 119

a sequence of metabolic changes in a larger area of the cell the process starts in 30ms and lasts for seconds, minutes or longer

Question 120

what senses use ionotropic synapses?

Answer 120

vision and hearing

Question 121

what senses use metabotropic synapses?

Answer 121

taste, hunger and fear

Question 122

what are neuromodulators?

Answer 122

is a chemical in the brain that changes (modulates) how neurons communicate with each other — but in a more general and long-lasting way than a normal neurotransmitter.

Question 123

what chemicals may activate metabotropic receptors?

Answer 123

dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, neuropeptides and sometimes glutamate and GABA

Question 124

what is synaptic strength?

Answer 124

the strength of a synapse is defined by the size of postsynaptic potential

Question 125

synaptic strength may very over time:

Answer 125

* short-term changes (seconds, minutes) * long-term changes (memory and learning effects, brain plasticity)

Question 126

what is long-term potentiation?

Answer 126

intensive use of a synapse may lead to its potentiation -> stronger effects on postsynaptic membrane this is a mechanism behind memory and learning

Question 127

what is synaptogenesis?

Answer 127

formation of synapses

Question 128

what is synaptic pruning?

Answer 128

very intensive in 2-16 years old humans elimination of unnecessary synapses is beneficial learning - > pruning

Question 129

how are used neurotransmitters terminated?

Answer 129

1. reuptake- brings neurotransmitters back to the presynaptic neuron (by chemicals called transporters) 2. broken down- e.g acetylcholine 3. diffusion- big neurotransmitters (peptide) do this

Question 130

wha does reuptake of neurotransmitters concern?

Answer 130

recycling process that concerns serotonin and the catecholamines (dopamine, nerepinephryne, epinephrine)

Question 131

what is acetylcholine broken down into?

Answer 131

acetylcholinesterase breaks down ach into acetate and choline via enzymatic degradation

Question 132

glial cells and reabsorption

Answer 132

astrocyte encloses the synapse where it absorbs the neurotransmitter glutamate from the cleft and recycles glutamate into its precursor glutamine glutamine returns to the presynaptic terminal for re-use this can influence synaptic activity by granting or witholding such absorption

Question 133

syanpses and medication

Answer 133

facilitation of transmission- agonist inhibition of transmission- anatagonist

Question 134

risks of amphetamines to synapses

Answer 134

block reuptake of dopamine and other transmitters

Question 135

risks of cocaine to syanspes

Answer 135

block reuptake of dopamine and other transmitters

Question 136

risks of methylphenidate (ritalin) to synapses

Answer 136

blocks reuptake of dopamine and others, but gradually

Question 137

risks of MDMA to synapses

Answer 137

releases dopamine, serotonin and norepinephrine

Question 138

risks of nicotine to synapses

Answer 138

stimulates nicotinic-type acetylcholine receptors which increase dopamine release

Question 139

risks of opiates (heroin, morphine) to synapses

Answer 139

stimulates endorphin receptors

Question 140

risks of cannabinoids to synapses

Answer 140

excites negative-feedback receptors on presynaptic cells

Question 141

risks of hallucinogens (LSD) to synapsess

Answer 141

stimulates serotonin type 2A receptors

Question 142

mood disorder treatment

Answer 142

SSRIs=reuptake of serotonin from the synaptic cleft is reduced

Question 143

alcoholism and dopamine

Answer 143

in healthy people alcohol increases dopamine release but in alcoholics there is reduced number of dopamine receptors leading to reduced dopamine release this leads to alcohol craving as dopamine leads to feelings of reward

Question 144

functions of the the nervous system

Answer 144

1. control of vital functions (breathing, heart rate and digestion) 2. control of movement 3. reaction to external events for survival 4. cognitive/emotional processes

Question 145

definition and types of nerves

Answer 145

set of axons (fibres) in the periphery 1. descending (efferent nerves) from CNS to effectors 2. ascending (afferent nerves) from receptors to the CNS

Question 146

what is the role of the somatic nervous system?

Answer 146

convey information from sense organs to CNS, and from CNS to muscles

Question 147

what is the role of the autonomic nervous system?

Answer 147

controls internal organs like heart, intestines, etc

Question 148

what is the dorsolateral (pyramidal tract) of the SNS?

Answer 148

primarily involved in fine, precise, voluntary movements, especially of the distal limbs (e.g., fingers, hands) = lateral corticospinal and rubrospinal control contralateral movement

Question 149

what is the ventromedial tract of the SNS?

Answer 149

esponsible for posture, balance, and gross motor control, especially involving the trunk and proximal muscles (e.g., shoulders, hips) = anterior corticospinal, reticulospinal, vestibulospinal and tectospinal bilateral and ipsilateral control

Question 150

what is the dorsal column medial lemniscal pathway?

Answer 150

carries information about touch, vibration and proprioception

Question 151

what is the spinothalamic tract?

Answer 151

carries information about pain and temperature

Question 152

what is the symapthetic divion of the ANS?

Answer 152

prepares the body for action during times of threat and prepares the body for muscular exertion or stressful activities ("fight or flight") uses norepinephrine

Question 153

what is the parasympathetic division of the ANS?

Answer 153

is active during times of relaxation and rest and dominates in controlling the body for metabolic "business as usual" uses acetylcholine

Question 154

what is homeostasis?

Answer 154

stability of biological processes inside the body: - body temperature - chemical characteristic (ph) of body fluids - osmotic solution of body fluids - blood volume - glucose concentration in blood

Question 155

what is negative feedback?

Answer 155

if discrepancy from the set point is detected, the remedial action is maintained until the homeostasis is regained this can be neurohormonal or behavioural

Question 156

where is the centre for homeostatic regulation?

Answer 156

hypothalamuc

Question 157

pratical uses of the nervous system

Answer 157

“lie detector” - deceptive answers produce physiological responses that can be differentiated from those associated with nondeceptive answers skin conductivity varies with its moisture level meditation- respiratory technic to calm the ANS

Question 158

examples of interhemispheric brain connections

Answer 158

corpus callosum and anterior commissure

Question 159

what do cortico-sucortical pathways connect?

Answer 159

cortex to subcortical areas, motor areas in brainstem and spinal cord (up-down)

Question 160

what do subcortical-cortical pathways connect?

Answer 160

from brainstem, sensory areas in thalamus to the cortex (down-up)

Question 161

what is the corpus callosum?

Answer 161

wide bundle of neural fibres, connecting right and left hemispheres

Question 162

nervous system development

Answer 162

a neural tube undergoes cephalisation to form initially three, then five vesicles phylogenesis - the sequence of events involved in the evolutionary development of a species. ontogenesis - the process of an individual organism grow

Question 163

what is included in the forebrain?

Answer 163

hemispheres limbic system thalamus hypothalamus

Question 164

what is included in the hindbrain?

Answer 164

cerebellum pons medulla

Question 165

weightings of the brain

Answer 165

hemispheres = 85% brainstem = 4.5 % cerebellum = 10.5%

Question 166

functions of the brainstem

Answer 166

transmits information from and to the brain responsible for simple reflexive behaviour physiological states

Question 167

functions of the medulla

Answer 167

controls vital reflexes (heart rate, circulation, respiration, salivation, coughing and sneezing)

Question 168

functions of the pons

Answer 168

axonal projections cross sides (contralateral) takes part in body balance, vision and auditory processing contains centres related to sleep and arousal

Question 169

functions of the cerebellum

Answer 169

controls fine motor skills, coordination and balance

Question 170

role of the superior colliculi

Answer 170

helps guide eye movements and fixation of gaze

Question 171

role of the inferior colliculi

Answer 171

helps sound localisation

Question 172

role of the substantia nigra

Answer 172

plays a role in reward, addiction projects to the basal ganglia to intergate movements (a dopamine-containing pathway implicated in parkinsons disease)

Question 173

role of the thalamus

Answer 173

relays and processes information from sensory organs (expect olfaction) and transmits it to the cortex

Question 174

role of the hypothalamus

Answer 174

regulates body temperature, hunger, thirst and sexual behaviour (autonomic NS)

Question 175

role of the mamillary bodies

Answer 175

a relay for impulses coming from the amygdala and hippocampus

Question 176

what is a gyrus?

Answer 176

a protuberance on a surface of the brain

Question 177

what is a sulcus?

Answer 177

a fold that separates one gyrus from another

Question 178

what is a fissure?

Answer 178

a long, deep sulcus

Question 179

what is the primary cortex?

Answer 179

area of the cortex responsible for the first stage of sensory processing receives inputs from lower structures (mainly thalamus) sends projections to higher level areas.

Question 180

brodmann's map of the cortex

Answer 180

distinguished 52 cortical areas via a cytoarchitectural analysis

Question 181

what are brodmann areas 1, 2 and 3?

Answer 181

primary somatosensory cortex

Question 182

what is brodmann area 17?

Answer 182

primary visual cortex

Question 183

what is brodmann area 41?

Answer 183

primary auditory cortex

Question 184

what is the secondary cortex?

Answer 184

area of the cortex responsible for the second stage of sensory processing receives inputs from primary cortex

Question 185

what is the associative cortex?

Answer 185

advanced stages of sensory information processing, multisensory integration, or sensorimotor integration

Question 186

what are the 3 functions of the cortex?

Answer 186

1. analysis of perceptual inputs 2. organisation of movements 3. higher cognitive functions

Question 187

main functions of the frontal lobe

Answer 187

- contains the primary motor cortex and broca's area for speech production - prefronal cortex for planning, decision making and impulse control - prefrontal cortex adjusts behaviours in response to rewards and punishments

Question 188

issues associated with prefrontal lobe dysfunction

Answer 188

impaired ability to learn from consequences and to control impulses often found in depression and schizophrenia

Question 189

prefrontal cortex damage: phineas gage

Answer 189

- gage was left with no speech, movement, intelligence or learning impairment - te injury changed his personality and behaviour

Question 190

main functions of the parietal lobe

Answer 190

- important for body sensations and spatial localisation - postcentral gyrus receives infor about the senses, body position and movement and maps these functions as a sensory homunculus

Question 191

what are the parietal association areas?

Answer 191

inferior and superior parietal lobules and precuneus

Question 192

functions of the parietal association areas

Answer 192

- combines information from body sense and vision - identifies objects by touch, determine the location of the limbs and locate objects in space - complex language processing

Question 193

functions of the occipital lobe

Answer 193

- hosts the primary visual cortex (V1) aka the striate cortex - destruction in the sitriate cortex causes cortical blindness in the related part of the visual field - other visual areas that process individua components of a scene, including colour, movement and form

Question 194

functions of the temporal lobe

Answer 194

the auditory cortex which receives information from the ear and contains the language and auditory and visual association areas

Question 195

function of wernicke's area

Answer 195

language comprehension and production damage results in meaningless speech and poor written and spoken comprehension

Question 196

function of the inferior temporal cortex

Answer 196

visual identification damage causes difficulty in recognises objects and familiar faces (prosopagnosia)

Question 197

what subcortical areas make up the basal ganglia?

Answer 197

the caudate nucleus, putamen and globus pallidus

Question 198

role of the basal ganglia

Answer 198

participates in planning behaviour and emotional expression, abundant connections with prefrontal cortex direct inentional movements

Question 199

what does an undersupply of dopamine in the basal ganglia lead to?

Answer 199

parkinsons disease

Question 200

role of the hippocampus

Answer 200

creation of new memories (learning) and intergration of new memories into stable knowledge

Question 201

role of the amygdala

Answer 201

emotional behvaiour and formation of emotional memories

Question 202

role of the cingulate cortex

Answer 202

linking behvaioural outcomes to motivation and learning (critical in depression and schizophrenia)

Question 203

what is locked-in syndrome?

Answer 203

condition in which patient is aware and awake but cannot make any voluntary movement

Question 204

what is the cause of locked-in syndrome?

Answer 204

brainstem lesions in which the anterior part of the pons is damaged

Question 205

what might result in locked-in syndrome?

Answer 205

traumatic brain injury neurodegenerative diseases strokes

Question 206

cause of encephalitis lethargica

Answer 206

provoked by injury of basal ganglia and midbrain structures due to an immune recation to bacterial infection

Question 207

what is akinetic mutism?

Answer 207

medical condition where patients tend neither to move (akinesia) nor speak (mutism)

Question 208

what is the hindbrain called?

Answer 208

rhombencephalon

Question 209

what is the midbrain called?

Answer 209

mesencephalon

Question 210

what is the forebrain called?

Answer 210

prosencephalon

Question 211

what are the 4 theories of emotion?

Answer 211

james-lange (1880s) cannon-bard (1920s) scahcter and singer (1960s) lazarus (1990s)

Question 212

what is an emotion?

Answer 212

an internal process that modifies the way an organism responds to certain kinds of external stimul (numan and woodside 2010)

Question 213

what area of the NS do emotional situations arouse?

Answer 213

autonomic nervous system

Question 214

what is the james-lange theory of emotion?

Answer 214

we feel emotion because we experience phsyiological reactions to stimuli predicts that: 1. people with weak autonomic or musculo-skeletal responses will feel less emotion 2. causing or increasing someone’s action/response should enhance an emotion

Question 215

what is pure autonomic failure?

Answer 215

failure of output from autonomic nervous system to the body – ANS no longer regulates heart rate and other organs.TF stressful situations do not lead to autonomic changes (raised blood pressure, sweating) patients have little difficulty identifying emotions others might experience but FEEL their emotions less intensively than before – this is consistent with the J-L Theory

Question 216

paralysis and the J-L theory

Answer 216

people with paralysis through damage to the spinal cord are unable to instigate fight or flight behaviours. HE most report experiencing emotion at the same level as before their injury (cobos et al., 2004).

Question 217

davis et al (2010)- botox and J-L

Answer 217

botox used to paralyze the whole face and people reported reduced emotional responses when watching short positive videos compared to those receiving a cosmetic filler that did not paralyze the facial muscles

Question 218

somatosensory cortex and J-L theory

Answer 218

people with somatosensory cortex damage had normal autonomic physiological response to emotional music but little subjective experience

Question 219

pre-frontal cortex and J-L theory

Answer 219

patients with damage to the PFC had weak autonomic (physiological) responses but normal subjective response (johnson et al., 2009)

Question 220

spotaneous rapid breathing and J-L theory

Answer 220

spontaneous rapid breathing leads to worry about suffocation and panic attacks (kein, 1993)

Question 221

smiling and J-L theory

Answer 221

A: holding pen in lips uses the frown muscles B: holding pen in the teeth uses the smile muscles subjects rated a comic strip as funnier when holding the pen in their teeth (strack et al., 1988)

Question 222

suggestion of the cannon-bard theory

Answer 222

emotional stimulus simultaneously triggers autonomic response AND emotional experience in the brain

Question 223

reasons for the cannon-bard theory

Answer 223

1. ANS responds too slowly for a rapid onsent of emotion, e.g blushing takes 15-30 seconds to occur 2. people have problems detecting changings in ANS activity (e,g HR) 3. if non-emotional stimuli (temp rise) cause the same pattern of the autonomic activitythrn why do we not feel afraid when we have a fever?

Question 224

bard (1934)

Answer 224

severed the connection between the visceral organs and the brain in animals and this did not abolish emotional behaviour meaning emotion can still occur even without physiological feedback

Question 225

what is sham rage and how can we induce it?

Answer 225

sham rage is an intense undirection aggressive behvaiour that occurs without an emotional trigger this can be caused by removing the cortex in cats

Question 226

shame rage in cats with no cortex

Answer 226

sensory information is relayed to the thalamus where it bifurcates - one route goes to the cortex - one route to the hypothalamus (controls bodily responses) sham rage suggests that the cortex has a role in inhibiting emotional responses and controlling rage response – top down theory of emotion (cog processes generate emotion)

Question 227

schacter and singer (1962) theory

Answer 227

J-L right to equate emotion with bodily states and C-B right to note there are not enough distsinct bodily reactions to account for the variety of emotions we experience TF two-factor theory of emotion suggests emotion arises from a combo of physiological arousal and cogntive interpretation of that arousal

Question 228

schacter and singer study

Answer 228

one group informed they were getting injected with adrenaline, other werent and there was a control saline group in informed adrenaline injection group they had a mild emotional response to pictures of happy/angry faces uninformed group had strong emotionnal responses

Question 229

findings of schacter and singer study

Answer 229

participants given an adrenaline shot but not informed of this “interpreted” their change in physiological state differently this theory increased the importance of brain processes in experienced emotion cognitive interpretation important with pereptual context!

Question 230

suggestions of lazarus' theory

Answer 230

it is the cognitive interpretation which mediates emotional experience (cognitive appraisal theory) thinking shapes feeling

Question 231

lazarus model and memory

Answer 231

to determine emotional response we have to interpret a frightening stimuli to arouse a general physiological state which is shaped by memory

Question 232

feldman-barrett suggestion

Answer 232

emotions are under our control to some extent they are also subject to our previous experience creating new experiences to events could change our emotional responses this is a basis for CBT

Question 233

the amygdala and fear

Answer 233

- recieves input from pain, vision and hearing centres (conditioned responses) - projects to hypothalamus (autonomic) and prefrontal cortex (behaviour) - also projects to pons (startle response)

Question 234

the moro reflex

Answer 234

a normal reflex for an infant when he or she is startled or feels like they are falling

Question 235

moro reflex and rats

Answer 235

animal is presented with a loud noise and a startle response recorded –usually within 5-8ms a light is then paired with a shock repeatedly finally light precedes the loud noise and increases the startle response in rats with amygdala damage there is still a startle reflex but no increase from the light stimulus

Question 236

does damage to the amygdala destroy fear?

Answer 236

no- suggestions that these animals may have difficulty interpreting signals with emotional consequences

Question 237

toxoplasma gondii and fear

Answer 237

TG is a parasite that lives and breeds in feline hosts the host cat excretes the parasite’s eggs and these are released into the ground which infects rats parasite attacks and damages the amygdala such that the rat shows no fear when approaching cats (perhaps because it fails to interpret the emotional significance of a cat)

Question 238

kluver-bucy syndrome

Answer 238

rare neurological disorder resulting from bilateral damage to the amygdala caused by HSV encephailitis, brain injury, neurosurgery etc leads to hypersexuality, docility, change to eating and psychic blindness

Question 239

what is psychic blindness?

Answer 239

aka visual agnosia is an inability to recognize "the emotional importance of events" so the can see an object but cant understand what it is or what is represents

Question 240

psychic blindness and animals

Answer 240

monkeys with amygdala damage attempt to pick up lighted matches and other objects they would normally avoid they are also less fearful of snakes and more dominant monkeys

Question 241

whalen et al (2001)

Answer 241

comparing fearful faces with neutral faces shows bi-lateral amgydala activation comparing angry with neutral faces also shows amygdala activation but so do happy and neutral faces (somerville et al 2004)

Question 242

whalen et al (2001) findings

Answer 242

argue that the pattern of activation found for the amygdala may not reflect the processing of negative emotion/threat per se, but more about detecting ambiguity in the face and how that relates to predictability of the other persons actions both fearful and angry faces convey perceived threat but ANGRY face conveys information about the source of the threat FEARFUL face conveys ambiguous threat

Question 243

gaze and ambiguity- adams et al (2003)

Answer 243

angry face with direct gaze and fearful face with averted gaze are unambiguous ambigious gazes create greater activation in the amygdala

Question 244

urbach-wiethe disease

Answer 244

individuals with this disease accumulate calcium in the amygdala and it atrophies mutation in the ECM1 gene

Question 245

patient SM- urbach wiethe

Answer 245

viewed 10 clips from scariest movies and only reports excitement stated she hates snakes but was happy to hold a snake in a haunted house instead of screaming at monsters she laughed was held at gun point, at knife point and was physically abused- expresses anger but not fear in these situations when a male confederate stood nose-to-nose with her she showed and reported no discomfort SM fails to recognise FEAR expressed by others she can draw most facial emotions with the exception of fear fails to look at eyes for interpretation

Question 246

whalen et al (2004)

Answer 246

amygdala responds more to fearful than happy eye whites so perhaps the amygdala is responsible for detecting the presence of emotional information and directing other brain areas to pay attention to it

Question 247

what is sound?

Answer 247

periodic compressions of air, water or another medium an object (e.g a tree) vibrates the air and sets up sound waves that hit the ear hearing is a mechanical sense

Question 248

lateral line in fish

Answer 248

- prey makes vibrations - lateral line transduces signal activating afferent nerve (glutamate) and brain detects prey - fish swims to prey creating vibrations and lateral line transduces mass of noise - brain fails to detect prey - brain of swimming fish silences lateral line to match own muscle movements using efferent nerves (ACh) which supress lateral line

Question 249

noisy environments and sound detection

Answer 249

sounds overlap in time so the brain needs to use incoming sensnory input and prior knowledge about sounds to understand them

Question 250

what is the outer ear called?

Answer 250

the pinna

Question 251

what is the role of the pinna?

Answer 251

captures sound and amplifies it by funneling it into the smaller auditory canal

Question 252

what is the role of the middle ear?

Answer 252

eardrum collects vibrations which transmits to the ossicles (hammer, anvil and stirrup) which sens vibration to cochlea

Question 253

wilska (1935) sound detection

Answer 253

we can detect sound when the eardrum vibrates as little as the diameter of the hydrogen atom

Question 254

what is the role of the inner ear?

Answer 254

cochlea translates pressure to bioelecttical activity and sends to upper structures in the nervous system

Question 255

what is balance controlled by?

Answer 255

vestibular system

Question 256

role of semicircular canals

Answer 256

detect rotation

Question 257

role of otolith organ

Answer 257

detects acceleration

Question 258

what are the otolith organs?

Answer 258

hair cells in the utricle and ear stones

Question 259

how do semiciricular canals detect rotation?

Answer 259

with each rotation, with the movement of endolymph, the hair cells undergo either depolarization or hyperpolarization, depending on whether the endolymph moves them toward or away

Question 260

role of the organ of corti

Answer 260

contains specialized sensory cells called hair cells, which are arranged in rows along the cochlear membrane these hair cells are embedded in the endolymph and their cilia extend into the overlying fluid

Question 261

auditory pathway: from cochlea to cortex

Answer 261

1. first relay- ipsilateral cochlear nuclei in the brain stem, which receive input from the auditory nerve; some decoding of the signal duration, intensity and frequency occurs here 2. second relay in the brain stem - in the superior olivary nucleus (pons). majority (but not all!) of the auditory fibres are contralateral 3. third relay takes place in the inferior colliculus of the midbrain 4. final relay, before the cortex, occurs in the medial geniculate body 5. projection from the thalamus to the auditory cortex

Question 262

what is heschl's gyrus?

Answer 262

located in the primary auditory cortex (superior temporal gyrus) and plays a critical role in processing sound brodmann's area 41 and 42

Question 263

sound physical property: intensity

Answer 263

how much air fluctuation (compression/rarefaction) the sound creates, i.e the energy in the sound loudness is a subjective value which correlates with the objective intensity this is measure in decibles above 90dB=sustained exposure resulting in hearing loss there is a non-linear correspondence between intensity and loudness

Question 264

how is sound intensity encoded by the brain?

Answer 264

encoded via neuron firing rate neurons fire more frequently as sound intensity grows the higher the neuron firing rate, the louder the sound

Question 265

sound physical property: frequency

Answer 265

number of air compression/rarefaction cycles per second that the object creates - 10 cycles per second = 10 Hz (can’t be heard by humans) – 100 cycles per second = 100 Hz (bass guitar) – 1000 cycles = 1kHz (speech)

Question 266

what is pitch?

Answer 266

perceptual correlate of frequency

Question 267

how is frequency encoded by the brain?

Answer 267

in basilar membrane: high frequencies cause vibrations near the base (narrow and stiff part) low frequencies cause vibrations near the apex (wider and more flexible end) this is the place code

Question 268

tonotopic organisation in the PAC

Answer 268

the more anterior the firing neuron, the lower the pitch

Question 269

most sounds (200-20000Hz)

Answer 269

– frequency is encoded in accordance with the Place code – intensity is encoded via the neurons’ firing rate

Question 270

special patten for encoding sounds <200 Hz

Answer 270

– frequency is encoded via the firing rate of individual neurons (aka temporal code) – intensity is encoded via the number of firing neurons

Question 271

determining sound location

Answer 271

listeners can identify where the sound source is: in front/behind, left/right 3 main binaural (involve the use of both ears) cues for sound localization: – difference in intensity between the ears – difference in time of arrival at two ears – phase difference between ears

Question 272

role of the inferior colliculus

Answer 272

integrates sound information from both ears, playing a critical role in processing spatial auditory information and coordinating reflexive responses to sound localisation

Question 273

wernicke's area

Answer 273

understanding spoken language superior temporal gyrus

Question 274

broca's area

Answer 274

speaking inferior frontal gyrus

Question 275

voice onset time

Answer 275

the release of a stop consonant (like /p/, /t/, /k/) the start of vocal cord vibration (voicing) it’s the main acoustic cue that helps us tell the difference between voiced and voiceless stop consonants e.g difference between b and p is 40ms

Question 276

brain lateralisation and audition

Answer 276

the cochlear nucleus receives input from the ipsilateral ear only all later stages have input from both ears

Question 277

dichotic listening tasks

Answer 277

different syllables presented simultaneously, each to a different ear the ear contralateral to brain hemisphere dominant for speech gives more responses

Question 278

lateralised processing and audition

Answer 278

right ear dominance for speech recognition – more connections to the left brain hemisphere speech = left hemisphere music = right hemisphere male participants show more asymmetry in performance of tasks related to language and speech processing than their female counterparts prosodic aspect of speech - intonation, expression, emotional aspect of speech (right) vocabulary and grammar (left)

Question 279

where is conductive hearing loss associated with?

Answer 279

outer/middle ear

Question 280

where is sensorineural hearing loss associated with?

Answer 280

inner ear (cochlea)

Question 281

what is conductive hearing loss?

Answer 281

results from damage to the eardrum or ossicles in the middle ear → failure to transmit sound waves to the (intact) cochlea therefore sounds are muffled or quieter, but not necessarily distorted corrected by medication, surgery or by sound amplification from hearing aids, or by using bone conduction

Question 282

bone conduction hearing aids

Answer 282

the sound is used to vibrate the mastoid bone → the cochlea receives the vibrations, turns them into the electric signals & passes to the auditory nerve

Question 283

what is sensorineural hearing loss?

Answer 283

damage to (part of) the cochlea/hair cells in the inner ear congenital, result of a disease or repeated exposure to loud noises sounds may be distorted or unclear, even if loud enough corrceted by cochlear implants

Question 284

cochlear implants

Answer 284

surgically implanted electronic device which receives a sound signal via a microphone and conducts s via thin wires to directly stimulate the auditory nerve

Question 285

main visual pathway

Answer 285

90% of axons in optic nerve connect the retina to the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus this region then connects with the primary visual cortex (V1)

Question 286

what are 3 neurons of the LGN?

Answer 286

magnocellular (layer 1 and 2) parvocellular (layer 3 and 6) koinocellular (thin layers between mago and parvo)

Question 287

what are magnocellular neurons?

Answer 287

large receptive fields that respond to motion, low contrast and temporal resoultion black and white

Question 288

what are parvocellular neurons?

Answer 288

small receptive fields that detect colour (red-green), fine detail and high spatial resolution

Question 289

what are koinocellular neurons?

Answer 289

mostly small fields but varies, blue-yellow colour processing

Question 290

secondary visual pathway

Answer 290

remaining 10% of axons connect to the pulvinae nucleus of the thalamus and the superior colliculus (SC) - more axons in this 10% than in all the auditory pathway connections SC important in visual attention and may have direct connection area V5/MT

Question 291

visual perception

Answer 291

posterior-anterior organisation cells respond stimuli of increasing complexity receptive fields become increasingly larger 2 pathways- ventral and dorsal

Question 292

what is V1 (striate cortex)?

Answer 292

- located in calcarine sulcus on medial occipital - process edges and lines, light/dark boundaries, basic colour processing and binocular disparity - lays the foundation of sight through edges, motion and depth

Question 293

what are simple cells?

Answer 293

layer 4 of V1 that respond best to a bar or edge of a specific orientation these combine input from centre-surround concentric cells

Question 294

what are complex cells?

Answer 294

layers 2/3 of area V1 large receptive fields respond to a bar edge anywhere in the receptive field and are often sensitive to motion or direction

Question 295

what is the best way to cell if a cell is simple or complex?

Answer 295

a cell that respons to a stimulus in only one location is a simple cell and one that responds equally throughout a large area is a complex cell

Question 296

what are end-stopped/hypercomplex cells?

Answer 296

sensitive to edges, corner or angles oriented lines of a specific length if a line extends a length then the cell stops responding

Question 297

V2 and V3

Answer 297

- V1 has reciprocal connections with V2 and V2 has reciprocal connections with V3 - in V2 and V3 many complex and hypercomplex cells, but also cells that respond to even more complicated patterns (e.g., circles, lines that meet at a right angle etc.) - from V2/3 visual information passed on to several additional regions across the occipital cortex - these regions analyse additional visual attributes such as colour, motion, shape, location (V4 & V5)

Question 298

what is a receptive field?

Answer 298

area of the visual field that when stimulated by light causes action potentials

Question 299

private W case study

Answer 299

fragment of shell entered in the middle line of the skull, and passed forwards and to the left, produced a considerable injury of the left visual area, and consequently right hemianopia (loss of vision in half the visual field)

Question 300

what does damage to the visual cortex cause?

Answer 300

blindsight- someone can perceive the location of an object despite being cortically blind

Question 301

patient DB case study (weiskrantz 1974)

Answer 301

right primary visual cortex (V1) removed by surgical ablation to remove tumour left visual hemifield “blind" patient had no awareness of any visual stimuli presented to the ”blind hemifield but could * point quite accurately to the location of the light source * report whether a stick was angled vertically or horizontally * discriminate between Xs and Os he reported sometimes having the feeling of ‘smoothness’ or ‘jaggedness’ but denied that these feelings were ssociated with any visual experience

Question 302

cowey (2010)

Answer 302

why can people detect motion stimuli? suggestion that SC (to pulvinar) or LGN (koniocellular) pathway to V5 intact and thus motion processing preserved

Question 303

aljina et al (2015)

Answer 303

DTI on patients with and without blindsight suggests that the presence of strong LGN-V5 (hMT) pathways better predicts blindsight than SC-V5 (hMT) pathway LGN-V5 (hMT) pathway also predicts other shape and location discrimination abilities

Question 304

extra striate visual pathways

Answer 304

areas V4= greyscale contrast hMT/V5= static contrast

Question 305

damage to area V4 (verrey 1888)

Answer 305

early case of cerebral achromatopsia patient suffered a left sided stroke and reported she had lost the ability to perceive colours in her right visual field. after her death verrey performed an autopsy and identified a region across the lingual and fusiform gyrus as being the “centre for chromatic sense”

Question 306

where are lesions in patients with cerebral achromatopsia?

Answer 306

V4A (anterior)

Question 307

extra issues of V4 damage

Answer 307

in addition to deficits in colour perception they also have some issues with form perception this may be due to the proximity of V4 with further processing areas in the ventro-temporal cortex or to the importance of colour in shape processing

Question 308

bouvier and engel (2005)

Answer 308

analysed the lesion locations of a 46 patients with cerebral achromatopsia and noted whether these patients had other visual processing deficits A. lesion overlap in patients with cerebral achromatopsia AND prosopagnosia B. lesion overlap in patients presenting only with cerebral achromatopsia. lesions more focal in the group with the unitary disorder

Question 309

damage to area V5/hMT (draganski et al 2004)

Answer 309

juggling induced changes in grey matter volume in area V5/hMT area involved in perception and spatial anticipation of moving objects

Question 310

what does damage to V5 result in?

Answer 310

cerebral akinetopsia

Question 311

stevens et al (2009)

Answer 311

TMS to V5 significantly impaired global motion direction detection

Question 312

what are the areas of the brain associated with memory?

Answer 312

medial temporal lobe structures

Question 313

case of HM

Answer 313

- removal of bilateral hippocampus and medial temporal lobes - anterograde amnesia - impairment independent of the sensory modality involved (unable to remember verbal and non-verbal material) - issue with declarative memory

Question 314

what is anterograde amnesia?

Answer 314

cannot form new memories

Question 315

what is retrograde amnesia?

Answer 315

unable to retrieve memories prior to damage (initially thought to be 1-3 years)

Question 316

HM and working memory

Answer 316

milner asked him to remember 584. he recalled it 15 minutes later. a moment later after his attention had been distracted, he had forgotten the number and his explanation of how he remembered it doesnt show any recency effect but show primacy effect

Question 317

what does the case of HM tell us about the medial temporal lobe?

Answer 317

1. important for long-term memory, but less so for working memory functions 2. more important for remembering recent life events than remote life events. 3. important for explicit memory regardless of the encoding or retrieval modality 4. important for transferring events and facts into long-term memory 5. NOT IMPORTANT for retaining information “online” (e.g., for working memory) 6. NOT IMPORTANT for memories linked to non-declartaive memory

Question 318

MTL damage and memory impairment is an example of a...

Answer 318

single dissociation- might only reflect differences in impact of brain lesion. they may not reflect unique brain-behavior associations.

Question 319

double dissociations in STM and LTM

Answer 319

KF – damage to Left temporo-parietal area. does not show a recency effect in memory. MH – damage to bilateral temporal lobe. KF: impaired STM and preserved LTM MH: preserved STM and impaired LTM evidence that medial temporal lobes and temporo-parietal cortex support different types of memory

Question 320

skaggs, mcnaughton, wilson and barnes (1996)

Answer 320

recordings from seven cells from a single electrode in the hippocampus of a rat as it moves several hundred times around a triangular maze. fifferent colours represent the firing of different cells. - hippocampus of the rat builds up a spatial representation of the maze.

Question 321

morris water maze

Answer 321

rat is placed in the maze and swims until it finds the submerged platform A) random swim-path after 5 trials. B) more efficient after 35 trials. C) after 71 perfect.

Question 322

clark, broadbent and squire (2007)

Answer 322

if the hippocampus is damaged in the rat that has learned the location of the platform it reverts to random patterns of searching – in fact it forgets that there is a platform at all right hippocampus appears more important in spatial memory

Question 323

maguire et al (2000)

Answer 323

a study of London taxi drivers trained to memorize a spatial map of the city streets. there was greater hippocampal activity when answering questions about routes through the city than when answering non-spatial questions. Ttxi drivers also had a larger than average posterior portion of the hippocampus - the size of which correlated with their experience as a driver

Question 324

cognitive map theory (o'keefe and nadel 1978)

Answer 324

in humans, similar hippocampal responses were evoked for photographs of buildings that were near one another suggesting a role in spatial memory. evidence from rodents and from humans suggests that the hippocampus mediates memory for spatial relations among objects in the environment.

Question 325

relational memory theory (eichenbaum et al 1999)

Answer 325

hippocampus supports the formation and retrieval of associations (or relations) among multiple items, events, or features in memory. its not just about remembering things — it’s about remembering how things are connected e.g the red coffee cup was on the table next to the book when you walked into the kitchen on sunday morning (instead of coffee cup)

Question 326

eichenbaum et al 1999 study

Answer 326

rats learn the relative rewards associated with pairs of odours placed into cups of sand. in reward terms: A>B B>C C>D D>E

Question 327

RMT and the fornix (eichenbaum)

Answer 327

rats with a lesion to the fornix disrupting hippocampal output can remember the outcomes of individual odour pairs. but they are impaired at relationships among different elements such as B-D whereas control rats are able to locate the reward in these trials. that’s is disruption of hippocampal function in lesioned rats leads to problems in memory for overlapping relations. particularly linked to left hippocampus

Question 328

episodic memory theory (tulving and moscovitch)

Answer 328

postulates that the hippocampus is critical for episodic but not semantic memory

Question 329

episodic memory theory- retrograde amnesia evidence

Answer 329

patient KC damaged a number of brain structures, including the hippocampus in a motorcycle accident. lifelong retrograde amnesia in episodic memory. preserved intellectual abilities. could still play chess at the same level as before the accident. in contrast, he was able to retrieve semantic memories acquired before the accident. for example, he could retrieve the meaning of technical terms from his work as a machinist but could not recall any events that happened in the factory. his factual knowledge and vocabulary are also equivalent to others with similar educational background

Question 330

epsiodic memory theory- evidence from anterograde amnesia

Answer 330

HM was able to learn a few new names (in his dense anterograde amnesic period). when given first names of people who became famous after his injury he was able to provide the correct surname on some occasions. e.g elvis presley fidel castro MLK lyndon johnson

Question 331

episodic memory theory- evidence from developmental amnesia

Answer 331

due to anoxic lesions in the hippocampal region following birth complications individuals perform poorly on tests of episodic but not working memory and learn normally in school (semantic)

Question 332

episodic memory theory- evidence from double dissociations

Answer 332

left lateralized damage to the anterior temporal lobe tends to affect semantic more than episodic memory – SEMANTIC DEMENTIA

Question 333

graham and hodges (2001)

Answer 333

patient AM had been referred to hospital with difficulty with naming things (anomia). episodic memory for holidays was good (preserved event detail). normal performance in copying and drawing from memory in the rey-ostereich test of non-verbal episodic memory severely impaired in semantic processing tests like the pyramids and palm trees test

Question 334

integrating theories of hippocampal memory function

Answer 334

1. spatial memory appears to be linked to right hippocampal processing whereas relational functions are associated with left hippocampal processes. 2. spatial memory appears to be linked to posterior hippocampal processing (taxi drivers) whereas relational functions are associated with anterior hippocampal processes 3. lesions in rat hippocampus have a significant effect on recollection (episodic memory) but not familiarity.

Question 335

mental time travel and the hippocampus

Answer 335

hassabis, kumaran, vann & maguire (2007) discovered that patients with hippocampal lesions not only had problems remembering the past but could not imagine new experiences in the future

Question 336

delayed response task and working memory

Answer 336

cells in prefrontal cortex continue to respond in the delay interval suggesting a role for PFC in the maintenance of information in working memory

Question 337

phonological loop (chein and fiez, 2001)

Answer 337

participants performed delayed serial recall tasks (remembering and repeating back sequences of words) phonological store was linked to activation in the left inferior parietal cortex (particularly the supramarginal gyrus)

Question 338

visuo-spatial working memory (sala et al 2003)

Answer 338

- faces or house presented - participants either had to remember the object or remember the locations presented - faces and houses activate the fusiform face area and parahippocampal place area respectively - faces and houses activate the left inferior frontal gyrus location more dorsal and caudal area - location seems to activate inferior and superior parietal lobe bilaterally also

Question 339

working memory- building blocks

Answer 339

for WM we need: selective attention, rehearsal, patterns, retrieval, updates, sustained attention and inhibition

Question 340

working memory- maintenance

Answer 340

various processes and representations interact during a task that requires maintenance of visual information, e.g., a delayedmatch-to-sample (DMS) task, and how the involvement of different processes change dynamically throughout task performance are exemplified

Question 341

working memory- manipulation

Answer 341

interactions and dynamics during performance of a manipulation task, e.g., multiplying forty-two by twelve, are exemplified. here, procedural long-term memory representations may also support solving the task, e.g., by recollecting procedures for how the multiplication of two-digit numbers can be done efficiently.

Question 342

summary of WM brain regions

Answer 342

1. regions of prefrontal cortex and parietal cortex are involved with executive/attentional functions in working memory 2. areas of association cortex appear important in the storage of specific material during working memory delay 3. temporal cortex more associated with visual working memory but less in spatial working memory. 4. parietal lesions likely to have greater effect on spatial working memory than visual working memory

Question 343

link between age and working memory

Answer 343

aged monkeys have fewer neurons and reduced input connections to PFC. older humans have impaired working memory abilities. decline in memory performance linked to reduced PFC activity in older adults. older people with intact working memory ability show even greater PFC activation than younger controls – PFC working harder to maintain performance levels and to compensate.

Question 344

drugs and memory

Answer 344

stimulant drugs linked to dopamine receptors improve memory performance in aged monkeys some evidence that these help in the case of ADHD also WM deficits also observed in Schizophrenia

Question 345

what are the two visual processing streams? (ungerleider and mishkin, 1982)

Answer 345

dorsal (pareital lobe) ventral (temporal lobe)

Question 346

what is the role of the dorsal pathway?

Answer 346

"where" stream - invovled in spatial vision, including judgements of spatial attributed of objects and the use of spatial information to guide movement V1-posterior parietal

Question 347

what is the role of the ventral pathway?

Answer 347

"what" stream - involved in processing the characteristics of objects V1-V2-V4-inferotemporal cortex

Question 348

milner and goodale (1992) refinement of visual pathways

Answer 348

dorsal="how stream" and how we use visually guided actions

Question 349

what input does the dorsal stream receive?

Answer 349

input only from magnocellular cells (therefore cannot see in colour)

Question 350

what input does the ventral stream receive?

Answer 350

input from magnocellular, parvocellular and koinocellular cells (can see in colour)

Question 351

what brodmann area is the primary visual cortex?

Answer 351

BA17

Question 352

what brodmann area is the secondary visual cortex?

Answer 352

BA18

Question 353

what brodmann area is V4?

Answer 353

BA18/19

Question 354

what brodmann are is V5/middle temporal?

Answer 354

BA18/19/39

Question 355

what gyrus is included in the inferior temporal cortex?

Answer 355

fusiform gyrus (supports visual recognition)

Question 356

what is the primary pathway of ventral information?

Answer 356

information from V1 through visual association areas V2 (involved in the processing of simple properties such as orientation), V4 (tuned for properties such as orientation, spatial frequency, colour, and simpler geometric shapes) as we get further out, responsive fields become larger and cells respond to different types of objects

Question 357

kelley et al (1998)- ventral stream

Answer 357

- people in fMRI and presented words, pictures of objects and faces - words activates left fusiform gyrus - objects ativates bilateral fusiform - faces cativate bilateral fusiform but more on the right

Question 358

kanwisher et al (1997)- ventral stream

Answer 358

- perfected facial study by ruling out differences in low level properties, stimuli and animation - localiser task - in faces>objects= activation of right fusiform gyrus - intact faces>scrambled,houses,hands=activation higher for intact face in right hemi of FG TF=fusiform face area

Question 359

why do you have bilateral activation of the fusiform when responding to objects?

Answer 359

can be processed in two different ways (language and visual)

Question 360

kalanit grill-spector (2003)- ventral stream

Answer 360

common areas of activation=parahippocampal place area for scenes and fusiform face area for faces lateral occipital and V4 respond to objects, faces and scenes (lower activation)- early in processing stream TF we have unique and common activation sites

Question 361

damage to the lateral occipital cortex

Answer 361

linked to apperceptive agnosia

Question 362

damage to anterior structures in inferior temporal cortex (right)

Answer 362

associative agnosia

Question 363

what is apperceptive agnosia?

Answer 363

struggle with the ability to perceive or form a clear mental image of objects, shapes, or scenes, making it hard for them to recognize objects by sight and copy images

Question 364

what is associative agnosia?

Answer 364

person can perceive and recognize objects and shapes in terms of their basic visual features, but they cannot link these perceptions to their meanings or function (semantic)

Question 365

what is intergrative agnosia?

Answer 365

can often recognize individual components of an object, but they struggle to perceive the object as a unified entity (e.g square, roof and door but cant say its a house) lateral occipital complex

Question 366

category specificty in visual agnosia

Answer 366

e.g living vs non-living (wallice and sharrington 1984) JBR- when shown pictures of common objects (scissors) his memory was much better (90% accurate) than when shown images of living things where he was accurate to on less than 10% of trials

Question 367

damasio (1990) criticism of category specific agnosia

Answer 367

inanimate objects like scissors also activate kinesthetic and motor representations that might be a clue to identity (remember the agnostic’s hands identifying the combination lock) when participants are presented graspable objects (i.e., tools, things with handles) additional motor affordance areas are indeed activated automatically (handy et al., 2005) and these may support identification

Question 368

damage to the fusiform gyrus

Answer 368

results in prosopagnosia (category specific)

Question 369

what is prosopagnosia?

Answer 369

impairement at recognising human faces vs other living things

Question 370

mcneill and warrington (1993)- prosopagnosia

Answer 370

report the case of WJ who was impaired at recognizing human faces (prosopagnosic) but had no difficulty recognizing and naming his sheep

Question 371

gauthier et al (2000)- is there a difference in face and object processing?

Answer 371

same person (subordinate) vs model vs species if you were a bird expert you would say the species of the bird not just 'its a bird' - recruited car experts and bird experts - showed faces, cards and birds - car experts shown faces=FG, shown cars=FG, shown birds= no FG (double dissociationed) results suggest that expert subordinate-level recognition for any category may be mediated in the same regions

Question 372

gauthier et al (1997) subordinate vs basic judgements

Answer 372

participants scanned while taking part in basiclevel (BIRD) versus subordinate-level (PELICAN) judgment about objects region of right and left FG more active for subordinate than basic level judgments greebles=novel face like after training can identify at subordinate e.g glorp-type greeble and this increase activation in FFA TF FFA tuned for expert-level visual categorisation

Question 373

turk et al (2005) person identification and categorical processing

Answer 373

john malkovich vs actor percept is same (same picture) but category differs FG responds to occupation and identity judgment but favours identity quicker to say name rather than that he is an actor not due to perceptual differences

Question 374

do faces activate other brain regions? (haxby et al 2001)

Answer 374

inferior occipital (eearly face processing to features) and fusiform gyrus (invariant for indentification) (ventral) posterior superior temporal sulcus processes dynamic features of facial gestures (dorsal)

Question 375

amgydala/insula/striatum and prosopagnosia

Answer 375

sweating increases when there is autonomic arousal following recognition of a face a prosopagnosic will sweat when they recognise someone but this is unconscious and will not help remember others (emotion but no recognition)

Question 376

what is capgras delusion?

Answer 376

individuals have damage to emotion system and you have an unconsious feeling that something is wrong with a family member/spouse/friend's face you therefore believe they have been replaced by an imposter the minute they talk (different modality) you can properly recognsie them (recognition but no emotion)

Question 377

what is optic ataxia?

Answer 377

affects a person's ability to visually guide their hand movements to reach or grasp object damage= posterior parietal cortex, typically in the dorsal stream

Question 378

patient WF (holmes and horrax 1919)

Answer 378

wounded by a machine gun bullet when he was asked to take hold of or point to, any object, he projected his hand out vaguely, generally in a wrong direction, and had obviously no accurate idea of its distance from him a pencil was held up at various distances from him; when it was 24 inches he estimated it at 12 inches, when 5 feet he said 18 inches, when at 2 feet he said it was about 7 feet away he underestimated or overestimated distances indiscriminately

Question 379

what damage causes optic ataxia?

Answer 379

damage to the inferior and superior parietal cortex

Question 380

double dissociations in toptic ataxia and visual agnosia

Answer 380

optic ataxic-recognise but no direction visual agnosic- mo recognition but direction

Question 381

what is hemispatial negelct?

Answer 381

person fails to be aware of or respond to stimuli on one side of their body or in their environment caused by stroke in middle cerebral artery causing damage to parietal lobe generally to left

Question 382

theories for hemispatial neglect: hemisphereic rivalry and communication

Answer 382

damage to one hemisphere leads to hyper-exitation of the intact hemisphere damage to the right hemisphere leads to hyper-exitation of the left hemisphere due to release of inhibition from the damaged, hypoactive right side of the brain subsequent damage to the left hemisphere can sometimes remove the neglect – due to rebalancing this leads to a focus on right hemispace

Question 383

problems with the theory of hemispheric rivalry

Answer 383

1. does not explain why neglect is almost always due to RH damage 2. damage to the corpus callosum, affecting the balance in communication between the hemispheres does not lead to neglect

Question 384

theories for hemispatial neglect: right hemisphere dominance theory

Answer 384

right hemisphere controls attention to both sides of space left hemisphere, however, mainly attends to the right side if the right hemisphere is damaged, the left side of space gets no attention at all (since the left hemisphere isn’t wired to cover it) if the left hemisphere is damaged, the right hemisphere can compensate — so right-side neglect is rare or mild

Question 385

what is non-declarative memory?

Answer 385

a collection of various forms of memory that operate automatically and accumulate information that is nont accessible to conscious recollection = skill learning and priming

Question 386

what is skill learning?

Answer 386

depends on extensive training (e.g playing an instrument) that takes place over a long period of time this ciuld include perceptual skill. motor skill or cognitive skull

Question 387

where is the basal ganglia and what are its interconnections?

Answer 387

situated at base of the forebrain - interconnected with cerebral cortex, thalamus and brainstem

Question 388

what diease has significant impacts on the basal nuclei?

Answer 388

parkinsons

Question 389

what is the weather task?

Answer 389

probabilistic learning - ppts given symbols and are required to predict the weather (sun/rain) and none of the images allow total accuracy - participants must build up a probabilistic model of dofferent combinations of information that best predict the weather

Question 390

the basal ganglia and the weather task

Answer 390

after 30 trials, both amnesics and parkinsons patients show impaired results in weather task compared to control but after 40 trials, the amnesic group show better performance than the parkinsons patients

Question 391

why are parkinsons patients bad at the weather task? (knowlton 1996)

Answer 391

normal ppts focus on one image- use declarative, episodic (hippocampal) memory after many repitions ppts approach 100% accuracy but appear unable to declare their strategy the basal ganglia lean these probabilistic relations implicitly so parkisnons patients continue to adopt the declaratie memory strategy so dont learn effectively

Question 392

patient JK- parkinsons

Answer 392

engineer who started to show signs of parkinsons agd 78 he began to show signs of memory distrubance for highly practiced procedural tasks recalled explicit events demonstrating to LTM deficit (declarative) shows double dissociation

Question 393

why can amnesics become good at the weather task?

Answer 393

unable to use their declarative memory strategy initially as they have damage to the hippocampus but if they continue they show gradual improvements through the use of the intact basal ganglia

Question 394

what is priming?

Answer 394

a change in the efficacy of stimulus processing arising from a previous encounter with the same or a related stimulus, in the absence of conscious awareness of the first encounter

Question 395

what are the two types of direct (repition) priming?

Answer 395

perceptual and conceptual

Question 396

what is an example of indirect priming?

Answer 396

semantic priming

Question 397

perceptual priming example

Answer 397

LIST A (read by ppts): element, corduroy, pleasant, techncial LIST B (not read): pendant, crocodile, pillow, terrain then give a stem completion task and they are more likey to complete the words they saw (e.g ter, pen, cor)

Question 398

neural activity and perceptual priming

Answer 398

brain acitivation reduces during repitition suppression (when a stimulus is repeated, neurons in sensory cortex (like visual cortex) show reduced activity — even though behavioral performance improves e.g in left lateral preforntal cortex and left occipito-temporal lobe

Question 399

what is neural sharpening? (henson and rugg 2003)

Answer 399

when a stimulus is repeated non-essential neurons respond less and less which leads to reduced hemodynamic response function sharepened representation is smaller (fewer and only critical neurons) and more selective we can therefore examine brain areas show this repitition suppression

Question 400

what happens to preceptual priming if the percept is different? (koutstaal et al 2001)

Answer 400

left fusiform gyrus shows a repitition suppression effect for same and different exemplars right fusiform gyrus shows a repitition suppression effect for same exemplars only

Question 401

why does the left fusiform gyrus respond to both same and different exemplars?

Answer 401

as it encodes verbally

Question 402

what happens to preceptual priming if the WORD percept is different? (dehane et al 2001)

Answer 402

primes are masked and targets are either the same or in a different font/case left fusiform cortex shoes a repition suppression effect for same adn different case right occipital cortex shows a repition suppression effect for case specific priming effects only

Question 403

what do priming studies show about the two hemispheres?

Answer 403

the left hemisphere is perhaps focusing on the language elements (known to be left lateralized in most humans) right hemisphere appears to be governed by more perceptual/visual aspects of the stimulus

Question 404

conceptual priming (wagner et al 2000)

Answer 404

task is to determine if word is concrete/abstract or upper/lowercase in left anterior inferior frontal gyrus (IPFC) there is suppression within task only (coneceputal priming) in the left posterior inferior frontal gyrus (IPFC) there is suppression within and across task (non-semantic)

Question 405

coneceptual priming exploration

Answer 405

reflects prior processing of conceptual aspects sensitive to conceptual manipulation conceptual processing is presernved in medial temporal lobe amnesia under implicit/unconscious testing

Question 406

perceptual vs conceptual priming and alzheimers

Answer 406

dissociation between P vs C priming and brain processing in AD AD characterised by deterioration in MTL but also lateral temporal lobe and pre-forntal cortex AD impaired in declarative memory (like amnesics due to MTL) AD spared in perceptual priming (like amnesics due to intact visual cortex) AD impaired at conceptual priming due to lateral temporal and pFC damage

Question 407

semantic priming (rossell et al 2003)

Answer 407

3 conditions, ppts have to decide if the item presented was a word or a pseduo word prime for 150ms and target for 150ms when there is a real word that is semantically related there is repitition suppression effects in the left anterior temporal lobe this links to semantic dementia

Question 408

summary of repitition suppression and perceptual priming

Answer 408

- posterior sensory regions important (visual cortex) for words: left lateral PFC, left occipito-temporal cortex shows repitition suppression pictures: left temporal love for same and different exemplars, right temporal lobe only for some expemplars

Question 409

summary of repitition suppression and conceptual priming

Answer 409

appears to be frontal lobe distinction anterior left inferior frontal gyrus = semantic processing posterior left inferior frontal gyrus = non-semantic aspects

Question 410

summary of repitition suppression and semantic priming

Answer 410

left anterior temporal lobe- consistent with semantic dementia

Question 411

not all repitition leads to suppression of neural responses...(henson et al 2000)

Answer 411

participants required to detect an inverted face target between repititions of familiar vs unfamiliar faces in the right fusiform gyrus you have a repitition suppression effect when there is a familiar face but enhancement for the unfamiliar faces

Question 412

explanation of repitition enhancement in the rigth fusiform gyrus

Answer 412

familiar faces can activate a representation in LTM and allows for a “sharper” representation on the second presentation for unfamiliar faces, we need to create a new representation leading to greater cortical activity in perceptual areas and the need to invoke episodic memory retrieval which is associated with greater levels of activation

Question 413

what are morals/ethics?

Answer 413

pertaining to the consensus of manners and customs within a social group, or to an inclination to behave in some ways but not in others these sets of customs and values therefore guide social conduct but this is without the need for an absoulte moral value

Question 414

what is morality to byproduct of?

Answer 414

evolutionary pressures that shape social behvaiour human morality can be observed in primates e.g caring for prres, striving for dominance and stability to social groups derived from a sense of justice

Question 415

what is deontology?

Answer 415

moral rules pertain to absoulte rights

Question 416

what is consequentialism?

Answer 416

the moral value of an action is in one way or another function of its consequence alone

Question 417

what is utilitarianism?

Answer 417

endorising harmful actions for the greater good

Question 418

kohlberg (1969) morality

Answer 418

morality is a by product of reason (cognitive evaluation)

Question 419

moral versus non-moral decisions (moll et al 2002)

Answer 419

fMRI (block design) make a judgement on whether a statement is right or wrong no response was made in scanner but subjects again viewed the statements outside the scanner and asked what they thought and the emotional impact of the statement asked to rate the degree of moral content e.g criminals should go to jail

Question 420

behavioural data of moral versus moral study (moll et al 2002)

Answer 420

moral statements rated as higher moral content than non-moral and neural statements moral sentences were also rated as having higher impact than non-moral sentences both were rated as more emotional than neutral

Question 421

neurological data of moral versus non-moral study (moll et al 2002)

Answer 421

moral>neutral= greater activation in left medial OFC, left STS and left temporal pole non-moral>neutral=greater activation in the lateral OFC, left amygdala and bilateral visual cortex moral>non-moral= greater activation in left medial OFC non-moral (emotional)>moral= greater activation in left lateral OFC and left amygdala

Question 422

conclusions of moll et al (2002)

Answer 422

- moral judgments associated with negative emotions activate a distinct region in medial OFC. - nonmoral (social) judgments associated with negative emotions activate lateral OFC. - these networks (and other areas) probably work in tandem on social judgments that combine moral, social and emotional demands. - suggestion: that one can separate out cognitive and emotional factors in moral judgments. also that there is a MORAL brain area.

Question 423

what does the dual-process theory of moral judgement criticise (greene)

Answer 423

greene explores philosophy there is a rationalist tradition in moral psychology emphasising the role of reason but is there really just a cognitive basis?

Question 424

suggestion of the dual-process theory of moral judgement

Answer 424

distinguish between personal and impersonal moral dilemmas both will ultimately lead to harm to another, but the harm is inflicted in different ways evolutionarily, up close and personal harm looms large in our past however, in order to survive it was necessary ro restrain primitaive urges ro violence thus we develop a negative emotional response to interpresonal violence impersonal harm fails to trigger alarming response TF answer in more cognitive (utilitarian way) when harmful actions are impersonal we can detach ourselves this distinction makes a prediction regarding diffeent neural activity for personal and impersonal moral dilemmas

Question 425

what reactions are involved in personal moral dilemmas?

Answer 425

driven by emotional reactions (fast, intuitive) linked to areas like the amygdala and vmPFC

Question 426

what reactions are involved in impersonal moral dilemmas?

Answer 426

driven by slower cognitive reactions linked to areas like the dlPFC and parietal cortex

Question 427

greene et al (2001) trolley vs footbridge dilemma

Answer 427

argues that the crucial difference in the tasks lies in the tendency for the footbridge task to engage peoples emotions (having to push someone off a bridge rather than pulling a lever)

Question 428

what are the predictions of the dual-process theory?

Answer 428

1. personal moral dilemmas lead to greater activity in brain regions associated with emotion 2. as these are automatic there would be a decrease in cognitive control brain areas 3. response time for yes in personal dilemmes is slower than no 4. impersonal scenarios would show no reaction time effect

Question 429

neural basis of trolley vs footbridge dilemma

Answer 429

personal>impersonal=activation increase in medial frontal gyrus, posterior cingulate and STST inferior parietal lobe impersonal>personal= greater activation in DLPFC and parietal lobe (BA 7/40)- 40=supramarginal gyrus for WM

Question 430

reaction times for personal and impersonal dilemmas

Answer 430

- for personal moral dilemmas it takes significantly longer to make “appropriate” judgments, than to make “inappropriate” judgments. - also there is less consensus of opinion between subjects for some personal moral judgments

Question 431

the crying baby and infanticide dilemma

Answer 431

baby crying in warmtime= if you remove your hand your baby cries and soldiers here and they will kill you, your baby and your fellow villagers if you dont remove your hand, your baby will suffocate infanticide= youre a 15 year old girl who doesnt want the baby and puts it in a bin

Question 432

greene explanation of crying baby vs infanticide dilemma

Answer 432

argue that in both cases there is a pre-potent (automatic) negative response to the dilemma. however, in the crying baby scenario a cost-benefit (utilitarian) analysis strongly favours smothering the baby (who would be killed by soldiers anyway). in this case the “cognitive” analysis wins – but this takes time – hence the longer response latency.

Question 433

hypothesis 1 for the crying baby and infanticide dilemma

Answer 433

in personal moral dilemmas where subjects take a long time to respond (e.g., crying baby) a strong pre-potent emotional response associated with the thought of killing one’s own child competes with a more abstract, “cognitive” utilitarian response (the baby will die anyway and killing it will save lives) - this conflict will be reflected in brain areas associated with cognitive conflict such as the anterior cingulate cortex (e.g., stroop test). - it was also predicted that brain regions associated with abstract reasoning and cognitive control would also exhibit increased activation on high-RT compared to low-RT trials

Question 434

hypothesis 2 for crying baby and infanticide dilemma

Answer 434

high-RT trials in which actions were deemed “appropriate” would be characterized by judgments based upon utilitarian “cognitive” processes and thus should show higher activity in cognitive brain areas (e.g. DLPFC) than high-RT trials in which actions were deemed inappropriate. that is that DLPFC activity would track with utilitarian decisions.

Question 435

neural explanation of crying baby dilemma

Answer 435

anterior cingulate (BA 32) and DLPFC (BA 10/46) more active for high-RT personal moral dilemmas than low-RT personal moral dilemmas also activation in parietal cortex (BA7) related to working memory. evidence for conflict monitoring and cognitive control processes.

Question 436

what brain region is activated when we make utilitarian responses?

Answer 436

DLPFC

Question 437

what can we conclude from the crying baby vs the infanticide dilemma?

Answer 437

- these results show that emotion may be a significant driving force in moral judgments – based perhaps on an automatic sense of what is right. - however, cognition also plays an important role in impersonal moral judgments, and in personal moral judgments where reason and emotion are in conflict (crying baby). - these same interactions between emotional and cognitive mechanisms also subserve aspects of social cognition (e.g. ToM). - there is no specifically moral part of the brain (opposite to moll et al earlier). - morality refers to a variety of more fine-grained and disparate processes, both “cognitive” and “affective”.

Question 438

damasio (1990) 'somatic marker hypothesis'

Answer 438

reflects the importance of emotional information to social moral judgements when we face a decision, we don’t just think logically — we also use “somatic markers”, which are emotional bodily responses (like a gut feeling, tight chest, or increased heart rate)

Question 439

brain damage and the somatic marker hypothesis

Answer 439

patients with damage to the ventromedial PFC can detect the implications of a social situation but are unable to make appropriate decisions in real life situations patients are unable to make such implications with advantageous actions the model explians why lesion patients can still reason about social problems but still fail in naturalistic settings e.g elliott lost job, savings and marriage folowing tumour in vmPFC, could artiuclate what the right thing to do was but could not act on it

Question 440

IOWA gambling task (damasio et al 1994)

Answer 440

each card has either win value for financial gain or loss value. the losses are unevenly distributed acorss the decks so that some decks would lead to a net gain and others to a net loss.

Question 441

how do normal individuals respond to the IOWA gambling task?

Answer 441

show anticipatory autonomic responses (GSR) when making risky choices (sweating) they also choose advantageously before being consciously aware of the best strategy

Question 442

how do vMPFC patients respond to the IOWA gambling task?s

Answer 442

show no anticipatory response so they behave as if unaware of the future consequences as they are guided by immediate prospects so take risky choices

Question 443

koenigs et al (2007), VMPFC damage and moral judgement

Answer 443

six patients with bilateral, adult onset damage to VMPFC patients responsed to 50 sceanrios (greene): non-moral, impersonal moral, personal moral subidivded into high and low conflict

Question 444

findings of VMPFC damage (koenigs et al 2007) (personal/impesonal)

Answer 444

non-moral judgemets and impersonal judgements are similar VMPFC patients are more likley to endorse personal judements

Question 445

findings of VMPFC damage (koenigs et al 2007) (low/high conflict)

Answer 445

LC- immediately say yes or no LC generally cog function and similar results between patients and controls HC patients with VMPFC are more likely to endorse them because they can do the maths= strategy for aggregation of welfare (utilitarian)

Question 446

conclusion from koenigs et al (2007) study

Answer 446

VMPFC data illustrate the dual roles that intuitive affective processing mechanisms (lacking in these patients) and evaluative (utilitarian) cognitive mechanisms play in making moral decisions

Question 447

deontology and emotion

Answer 447

result of moral behvaiour being driven by intuitive emotional responses to situations (moral alarm bells- greene)

Question 448

haidt (2001) and morality

Answer 448

talks about the relative importance of unconscious emotional processes in making moral judgments he argues that for the most part moral reasoning is a post-hoc affair that we decide what is right and wrong based upon emotionally driven intuitions, and then make up reasons for these responses

Question 449

deontology has a what basis of morality?

Answer 449

emotional

Question 450

consequentialism and utilitarinsim have a what basis?

Answer 450

cognitive

Question 451

consequentialism and cognition

Answer 451

cognitive in the way it uses CBA this can be seen in terms of lateral PFC