biology 101 review Flashcards
(182 cards)
1
Q
During the process of phosphorylation, ___________.
A
A molecule gains a phosphate group
2
Q
In order to work best, enzymes ___________.
A
Need set environmental conditions, specific for each enzyme
3
Q
The active site of an enzyme ___________.
A
Is a groove or crevice in the structure of the enzyme complementary to the substrate
4
Q
A “high-energy bond” in ATP ___________.
A
Forms as part of an endergonic reaction
5
Q
Which of the following is a form of active transport?
A
Sodium-potassium pump
6
Q
CO2 and H2O will not form glucose on their own because ___________.
A
The bonds of CO2 and H2O are too stable to be broken without an input of energy
7
Q
The second law of thermodynamics states that ___________.
A
Energy tends to flow from concentrated to less concentrated forms
8
Q
Which of the following will occur when a plant is placed into a hypotonic solution?
A
Turgor prevents more water from entering the cells
9
Q
What affects the rate of diffusion of solutes?
A
Concentration gradient, temperature, and molecular size
10
Q
What statement is an application of the first law of thermodynamics?
A
The quantity of energy does not increase or decrease in the universe
11
Q
What is a key characteristic of exergonic reactions?
A
They release energy that can be used by cells
12
Q
What type of energy is the energy in chemical bonds?
A
Potential energy
13
Q
During receptor-mediated endocytosis, ___________.
A
A vesicle forms
14
Q
Which one of the statements regarding facilitated diffusion is false?
A
It requires ATP
15
Q
Endergonic reactions ___________.
A
Require a net input of energy
16
Q
The proteins associated with the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis are located ___________.
A
On the thylakoid membrane
17
Q
What product of the light-dependent reactions is released directly into the environment?
A
O2
18
Q
The process in which carbon from an inorganic source, such as carbon dioxide, gets incorporated into an organic molecule is called ___________.
A
Carbon fixation
19
Q
The oxygen released in photosynthesis comes from ___________.
A
Water
20
Q
Which of the following organisms makes its own food using energy from the environment and carbon from inorganic molecules such as CO2?
A
Autotrophs
21
Q
The first stable compound produced from CO2 in the light-independent reaction is ___________.
A
Phosphoglycerate (PGA)
22
Q
The light-independent reactions of photosynthesis ___________.
A
Fix carbon dioxide
23
Q
What is present in both the light-dependent and light-independent reactions?
A
ATP
24
Q
In the electromagnetic spectrum, ___________.
A
Visible light provides the energy for photosynthesis
25
A pigment absorbs a photon if the energy of the photon is ___________.
Exactly enough to boost an electron of the pigment to a higher energy level
26
A high concentration of H+ in the thylakoid compartment provides potential energy for the ___________ by ___________.
Production of ATP; ATP synthases
27
Plant cells release hydrogen ions and oxygen from H2O molecules in ___________.
Photosystem 2
28
Actual assembly of sugars during photosynthesis ___________.
Requires NADPH
29
Sugars are formed in the chloroplasts ___________.
In the stroma
30
The CAM pathway ___________.
Needs day and night for completion
31
For animals, the final hydrogen acceptor in cellular respiration is ___________.
Oxygen
32
The final step of the citric acid cycle regenerates ___________.
Oxaloacetate
33
Electron transfer phosphorylation yields ___________ ATPs.
32
34
How many ATP are spent before a glucose molecule can be broken down to release energy?
Two
35
Glycolysis depends upon a continuous supply of ___________.
NAD+
36
What process requires oxygen to function?
Aerobic respiration
37
Which of the following is true regarding lactate fermentation in muscle cells?
It causes muscle soreness
38
What is the ultimate fate of the carbon atoms in a glucose molecule that goes through aerobic respiration?
It is recycled as carbon dioxide
39
When molecules are broken apart is respiration, ___________.
The energy released is channeled into molecules of ATP
40
The breakdown of ___________ yields acetyl-CoA and carbon dioxide.
Pyruvate
41
During the citric acid cycle, ___________.
Four CO2 molecules are produced
42
The electron transfer chain is located ___________.
On the inner membrane of the mitochondria
43
___________ is the first stage of aerobic respiration and fermentation.
Glycolysis
44
About how many net molecules of ATP are produced at the end of the three stages of aerobic respiration?
36
45
Which of the following is an anaerobic sugar breakdown pathway that produces ATP, CO2, and ethanol?
Alcoholic fermentation
46
When glucose is used as the energy source, the largest amount of ATP is produced in ___________.
Electron transfer phosphorylation
47
For glycolysis to begin, ___________.
There must be an input of energy from ATP
48
Aerobic respiration and fermentation ___________.
Start with glycolysis
49
What are the cellular mechanisms that must fail before a DNA replication error becomes a mutation?
Proofreading and repair
50
How many pairs of autosomes are in a typical human karyotype?
22
51
Which technique did Rosalind Franklin use to determine many aspects of DNA's structure?
X-ray crystallography
52
Name the structure in which proteins associated with DNA and pack it very tightly by organizing the molecules.
Histones
53
___________ discovered the basis for the ___________ rule, which states that the amounts of adenine and thymine are identical, as are the amounts of cytosine and guanine.
Chargaff; base-pair
54
Crossing over is facilitated by a ____ orientation between homologous chromosomes.
Tight, parallel
55
DNA polymerase assembles new strands in a ___________.
5' to 3' direction building one strand and a 3' to 5' direction building to the other strand
56
Fertilization of gametes produces a _____.
Zygote
57
Sexual reproduction in animals starts with diploid _____ cells that form haploid_____.
Germ; gametes
58
All of the micro tubules are the same length, and homologous chromosomes are aligned midway between the spindle poles at ____.
Metaphase 1
59
The essence of meiosis is that ________.
Haploid gametes are formed
60
A ___________ is an image of an individual cell's chromosomes arranged by size, length, shape, and centromere location.
Karyotype
61
The experiments that clearly distinguished DNA and not protein as the hereditary material was conducted by ___________.
Hershey and Chase
62
Which of the following is not a mechanism that contributes to diversity among the offspring form two parents?
Cytokinesis
63
DNA polymerases ___________.
Add new nucleotides to a strand
64
Chromatids are ____
Identical until crossing over occurs
65
After medios, what process restores the chromosomes number in diploid individuals?
Fertilization
66
Sexual reproduction ____
Results in new combinations of genetic traits
67
Which statement correctly describes human chromosomes after medios 1?
Each of the 23 chromosomes contains two sister chromatids
68
Watson and Crick were the first to ___________.
Build the first DNA model
69
During medios II,
Sister chromatids of each chromosome are separated from each other
70
Which action is unable to produce variation?
Asexual reproduction
71
An enzyme that seals gaps or breaks in double stranded DNA is called ___________.
DNA ligase
72
Chromosome segregation in anaphase I is consistent which statement?
Either partner of a homologous pair of chromosomes may end up at either spindle pole.
73
Chromosome segregation in anaphase I is consistent which statement?
Either partner of a homologous pair of chromosomes may end up at either spindle pole.
74
Which of the following is true at the end of telophase I in corn (2n = 20)
Centimeters connect sister chromatids
75
What statement is true of DNA's structure?
The hydrogen bonding of cytosine to guanine is an example of complementary base pairing
76
Hydrogen bonding is strongest between ___________.
Cytosine and guanine
77
Rosalind Franklin created the first ___________.
Clear x-ray diffraction image of DNA as it occurs in cells
78
Meiosis typically results in the production of _____
Four haploid cells
79
DNA replication is ___________.
Semiconservative
80
Crossing over is one of the most important events in meiosis because ____
It produces new combinations of alleles on chromosomes
81
In which of the following processes do homologous chromosomes we change corresponding pieces of DNA and when does it occur?
Crossing over; prophase I
82
Each DNA double helix has a backbone that consists of alternating ___________.
Sugar and phosphate molecules
83
During prophase II
A new spindle forms
84
In a 3-D double helix model of DNA, the center consists of _________.
Nucleotide base pairs
85
Which statement is false with regard to mutations?
They are always dangerous
86
Which process results in gametes having too few or too many chromosomes and occurs during anaphase I or anaphase II
Nondisjunction
87
Which process results in gametes having too few or too many chromosomes and occurs during anaphase I or anaphase II
Nondisjunction
88
What type of virus particle is illustrated in the figure?
Bacteriophage
89
In sexual reproducers, medidos gives rises to ____
Haploid gametes
90
Molecules that carry out transcription bind to this region of the DNA.
Promoter
91
During gene expression, information flows in the following order.
DNA to translation to RNA
92
Sally’s mother has brown, strait hair, and her father has black curly hair. Sally has brown curly hair. Which process is responsible for the variation in Sally’s hair?
Recombination of genes during meiosis
93
The relationship between strands of RNA and DNA during transcription is _________.
Complementary
94
Which of the following genetic disorders is caused by a nondisjunction
Trisomy 21
95
Which of the following genetic disorders is caused by a nondisjunction
Trisomy 21
96
Gamete formation results in
Offspring that are genetically distinct from each other
97
Of all the different codons that exist, three of them _________.
Do not specify a particular amino acid and are signals to terminate translation
98
Which of the following diagrams is used lot predict the genotyping and phenotypic outcome of a cross
Punnet square
99
The form of RNA that carries the code from DNA to the site of protein assembly is called _________.
Messenger RNA
100
The genetic code is made up of codons consisting of how many nucleotides?
Three
101
The most accurate description of an organism with genotype AaBb is
Heterozygous
102
A segment of DNA that specifies a sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is called a __________.
Gene
103
A frameshift mutation results in __________.
A change in all mRNA codons downstream from the mutation
104
Medleys dihybrid crosses, but not his mono hybrid crosses, show that
Allele for different traits are inherited independently
105
Medleys dihybrid crosses, but not his mono hybrid crosses, show that
Allele for different traits are inherited independently
106
Which event occurs during the elongation stage?
rRNA catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds
107
For mendels law of segregation requires that
Two allele at any locus are distributed into separate gametes during meiosis
108
During transcription, uracil pairs with ________.
Adenine
109
Anticodons pair with _________.
Codons on mRNA
110
Various forms that a single gene can take at a given locus called
Alleles
111
DNA and RNA are alike in that they _________.
Both contain nucleotides
112
During the termination stage __________.
A stop codon enters the ribosome
113
A gene mutation ____________.
May be caused by environmental agents
114
Mutation in globin genes cause a condition called _________, which is marked by the decreased ability of a person’s blood to carry oxygen.
Anemia
115
Hemophilia is an example of a _____ pattern
X-linked recessive
116
If the DNA sequence is ATG-CGT, the mRNA codons are ________.
UAC-GCA
117
Transcription starts at a region of DNA called a __________.
Promoter
118
In___, a pair of nonidentical alleles affecting the phenotypes of a given trait are both expressed at the same time in heterozygous
Codominance
119
What process copies a gene into RNA form?
Transcription
120
Height, weight, and eye color are examples of phenotypes that illustrate
Continuous variation
121
Height, weight, and eye color are examples of phenotypes that illustrate
Continuous variation
122
Which of the following delivers amino acids to ribosomes, one by one, in the order specified by a messenger RNA?
Transfer RNA
123
The portion of the DNA molecule that is translated is composed of ________.
Exons
124
The gene for human ABO blood type, for which three or more allele persist in a population at a relatively high frequency, is an example of ____
Multiple allele system
125
The gene for human ABO blood type, for which three or more allele persist in a population at a relatively high frequency, is an example of ____
Multiple allele system
126
In correct order, the three stages of translation are _________.
Initiation, chain elongation, and termination
127
Which group of organisms does not depend directly on sunlight for energy?
Animal consumers and decomposers
128
In an experiment, the control group is ________.
Treated exactly the same as the experimental group, except for one variable
129
The process by which the first cell of a new individual gives rise to a multicell adult is called ________.
Development
130
Which group includes all of the other groups?
Domain (includes order, family, genus, and species)
131
What is a hypothesis?
A testable explanation of a natural phenomenon
132
Which term refers to judging information before accepting it as fact?
Critical thinking
133
Members of which prokaryotic domain are most closely related to eukaryotes evolutionarily?
Archaea
134
A community ________.
Includes all populations of all species in a given area
135
Four of the following are key characteristics for the survival of a species. Which one is the exception?
Inability to change
136
At what level of organization does life begin?
Cell
137
Which of the following is a domain of life?
Eukaryotes
138
Which group is made up of almost exclusively decomposers?
Fungi
139
The most inclusive level of organization is exemplified by which of the following?
Zebra
140
Four of the following characteristics are required for the life of an individual organism to continue. Which is the exception?
To evolve
141
A single atom of carbon may form up to ________ covalent bonds with other atoms.
Four
142
A compound that consists mainly of carbon and hydrogen is known as ________.
Organic
143
Which of the following is found in every nucleotide?
Nitrogen
144
The interaction of two or more polypeptide chains in a hemoglobin molecule is its ________ structure.
Quaternary
145
Which lipid type does not have fatty acid tails?
Steroids
146
Polyunsaturated fats ________.
Have fewer hydrogen atoms than do saturated fats
147
Which of the following is also known as a dehydration reaction?
Condensation
148
The order of amino acids is the ________ structure of proteins.
Primary
149
An -OH group is a ________ group.
Hydroxyl
150
Lipids ________.
Include fats consisting of three fatty-acid molecules and one glycerol molecule
151
Which of the following stores the most energy in chemical bonds?
Glycogen
152
Which molecule is incorrectly matched with its monomer?
Starch; fructose
153
Polysaccharides ________.
May be insoluble and difficult to break down
154
What may be a result of the denaturation of proteins?
Loss of three-dimensional structure
155
What kind of bonds link amino acids to form the basic sequence of a protein?
Peptide
156
Which of the following is true about phospholipid bilayers?
The polar heads face the cell interior and exterior
157
A ________ is a strong mutual attraction between ions of opposite charge.
Ionic bond
158
The bond in table salt (NaCl) is ________.
Ionic
159
How does the energy of an electron relate with the distance from the nucleus?
The farther an electron is from the nucleus, the greater its energy
160
The mass number of an atom is determined by the combined masses of its ________.
Neutrons and protons
161
Isotopes of an element are differentiated by their ________.
Mass number
162
The most likely reason that glucose dissolves in water is that it is ________.
Polar and forms many hydrogen bonds with the water molecules
163
The column of water extending in tubes from plant roots to leaves is maintained by ________.
Cohesion between water molecules
164
In ________ bonds, both atoms exert the same pull on shared electrons.
Nonpolar covalent
165
What is a buffer?
A set of chemicals that keep the pH of a solution stable
166
Atoms with a(n) ________ are more likely to form chemical bonds.
Unfilled outer orbital shell
167
All isotopes of an element have a different number of ________.
Neutrons
168
Blood pH is kept near a value of 7.3-7.5 because of ________.
Buffers
169
What type of cellular junction prevents stomach acid from leaking into the abdomen and digesting internal organs?
Tight junctions
170
What chemical property of phospholipids is key to the formation of the cell membrane?
The hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails
171
What is the correct way to write the scientific name for humans?
Homo sapiens (in italics)
172
Evolution through natural selection will occur most rapidly for populations of plants that ________.
Reproduce sexually and live in an unstable environment
173
A pattern of inheritance in which the form of a single trait is collectively determined by alleles of several genes is called ____
Polygenic inheritance
174
In horses, black coat color is influenced by the dominant allele (B), and chestnut coat color is influenced by the recessive allele (b). Trotting gait is due to a dominant gene (T), pacing gait to the recessive allele (t). If a homozygous black trotter is crossed to a chestnut pacer, which phenotype will be the most common in the F 2 generation?
Black trotter
175
Genes at one locus that affect the expression of genes at a different locus are said to be
Epistatic
176
If black fur color is controlled by a dominant allele (B) and brown by it recessive allele (b), give the genotypes of the parents if a black male crossed with a brown female and produces 1/2 black offspring and a 1/2 brown offspring
Bb male and bb female
177
Which of the following is an example of incomplete dominance?
Pink snapdragon flowers
178
In Labrador retrievers, coat color is governed by two different genes - TYRP1 controls the amount of brown pigment, while MC1R alleles control the color. This type of inheritance is called
Epistasis
179
Individuals with sickle cell anemia are affected in many ways that are all a result of a single faulty gene. This is an example of
Pleiotrophy
180
An individual who is heterozygous for type A blood has offspring with an individual who is heterozygous for type B blood. Their offspring could have which blood types?
A, B, AB, or O
181
Which of the following genotypes illustrates Turner syndrome?
X
182
What occurs when a piece of a chromosome is moved from one chromosome to a nonhomologous chromosome?
Translocation
