BIOLOGY

Question 1

TROPIC HORMONES

Answer 1

Tropic Hormones: target other endocrine glands where 2ndary hormones are secreted to regulate bodily functions. i.e. Adrenocorticotropic hormones sim. adrenal cortex secretes steroids, & thyroid stimulating hormones sim thyroid gland produce/secrete triiodothyronine, thyroxine, & calcitonin via neg. feedback

Question 2

ADAPTIVE RADIATION

Answer 2

diversely adapted from common ancestor in same geographical isolation

Question 3

ECOLOGICAL SPECIATION

Answer 3

adaptation on basis of location & activity : evolving of a new species via genetic isolation from same location.

Question 4

ALLOPATRIC SPECIATION

Answer 4

Isolation via geographical barrier

Question 5

MORPHOLOGICAL SPECIATION

Answer 5

SEPARATION ON BASIS OF PHYSICAL MEASURES AND OUTWARD FEATURES

Question 6

COENOCYTIC HYPHA

Answer 6

multinucleate cytoplasm of fungi: ongoing division of nuclei without cytoplasmic division

Question 7

INDUCTION during embryology

Answer 7

influence of organizers targeting specific genes to turn on and differentiate into certain cell types.

Question 8

UREA

Answer 8

final waste product of deamination in liver prior to excretion

Question 9

ELONGATION SEQUENCE OF TRANSLATION

Answer 9

Codon Recognition -> peptide bond formation -> translocation

Question 10

MAXIMUM # CHROMOSOME COMBINATIONS AMONG GAMETES OF A DIPLOID ORGANISM (2n=10)

Answer 10

2n= 10 (diploid) , n=5 (haploid) 2^n = 2^5 = 32

Question 11

What physiologic event happens when both estrogen and progesterone levels remain high for prolonged 3 months?

Answer 11

Ovulation will be unlikely via NEGATIVE FEEDBACK INHIBITION on the release of luteinizing hormones by anterior pituitary. Estr.+Progestrn usually sustained by HCGs during 1st trimester of pregnancy. needed to maintain & strengthen uterine walls. Menstrual cycle ceases during this time.

Question 12

Which statement regarding kidney physiology is false? a) Decreased rate of filtration occurs with vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles b) Blood flow is decreased with afferent arteriole vasoconstriction c) An increased rate of filtration occurs with vasoconstriction of the efferent arterioles d) Sympathetic innervations primarilly affects afferent arterioles and decreases volume of urine flow e) all true

Answer 12

e) ALL TRUE blood enters glomerulus via AFFERENT arteriole and leaves via EFFERENT arteriole. if EFFERENT (leaving) arteriole constricted, blood can’t flow and increases glomerular pressure and filtration rate rises. if AFFERENT (entering) arteriole constricted, blood flow diminished, filtration decreases and reduced urine output.

Question 13

Which molecules exert action within target cell by only interacting with cell-surface receptors? a) estrogen b) testoterone c) progesterone d) insulin e) more than one

Answer 13

d) INSULIN Insulin binds to cell-surface receptor while steroid hormones like estrogen, testosterone and progesterone bind to nuclear receptors.

Question 14

Which is unique to angiosperms? a) secondary growth b) Double pollination c) double fertilization d) alternation of generations e) cross pollination

Answer 14

c) Double fertilization Angiosperms can double fertilize the egg nucleus AND the central nucleus.

Question 15

Which process is common to both aerobic and anaerobic organisms? a) Krebs cycle b) Fermentation C) Glycolysis d) Electron Transport Chain e) All

Answer 15

c) Glycolysis Glycolysis happens in ALL LIVING CELLS

Question 16

Identical twins made possible due to: a) Determine cleavage b) indeterminate cleavage c) mutations d) nondisjunction e) spiral cleavage

Answer 16

b) indeterminate cleavage

Question 17

Which vessel carries blood away from liver and toward heart? a) Hepatic artery b) Hepatic vein c) Aorta d) Inferior vena cava e) none

Answer 17

b

Question 18

PT is examined for liver disease and has jaundice, yellowing of skin color. What may be the cause? a) excess bilease b) excess bilirubin c) excess glucagon d) excess trypsin e) Deficiency in albumin

Answer 18

b

Question 19

Which is FALSE? a) six turns of Calvin cycle produce glucose in photosynthesis b)The stoma of chloroplast contains Calvin cycle enzymes c) products of light reaction of photosynthesis: ATP, O2, NADPH d) chlorophylls & carotenoids are 2 pigments used in photosynthesis e) autotrophs are unable to make their own food (i.e. plants)

Answer 19

e

Question 20

Which is/are TRUE? a) erythropoietin is a hormone released primarily from kidneys and stimulate red blood cell formation in bone marrow b) platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes develop from a common source (pluripotent stem cell) c) stroke is death of nervous tissue in brain d) thrombus is a blood clot that forms abnormally in a vessel e) all TRUE

Answer 20

ALL TRUE! a) erythropoietin is a hormone released primarily from kidneys and stimulate red blood cell formation in bone marrow b) platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes develop from a common source (pluripotent stem cell) c) stroke is death of nervous tissue in brain d) thrombus is a blood clot that forms abnormally in a vessel

Question 21

Which is FALSE? a) In terms of cellular abundance: erythrocytes>leukocytes>platelets b) insured cell may release histamine to cause white blood cells to migrate out of blood capillaries c) cancerous cell MYELOMA may be cultured indefinitely d) lymphocyte may be fused with a MYELOMA cell to produce HYBRIDOMA e) all true

Answer 21

ALL TRUE! a) In terms of cellular abundance: erythrocytes>leukocytes>platelets b) insured cell may release histamine to cause white blood cells to migrate out of blood capillaries c) cancerous cell MYELOMA may be cultured indefinitely d) lymphocyte may be fused with a MYELOMA cell to produce HYBRIDOMA

Question 22

Each gamete that is generated during meiosis a) Is diploid b) Are genetically identical c) Is haploid d) Has a full set of chromosomes

Answer 22

C Each gamete that is generated during meiosis is haploid. Meiosis creates sex cells, which contain half of the genetic material as the parent cell that they are derived from, which is the definition of haploid.

Question 23

Plant cells contain centrosomes that are very similar to the ones found in animal cells, with the exception of -They lack chromosomes -They lack centrioles -They lack chromatin -They lack cytokinesis

Answer 23

THEY LACK CENTRIOLES Plant cells contain centrosomes that are very similar to the ones found in animal cells, with the exception of they lack centrioles. Plant cells have a similar region in them in comparison to centrioles which is referred to as the microtubule organizing region.

Question 24

What is the name of the locations where crossing over occurs at:

Metaphase Plates
Tetrads
Bivalents
Kinetochores
Chiasmata

Answer 24

CHIASMATA

The name of the locations where crossing over occurs at are called Chiasmata. This is the location where genetic material is exchanged between chromatids.

Question 25

The action of the fusing together of an egg and a sperm is referred to as: Zygote Fertilization SyngamY Two of the above All of the above

Answer 25

**2 of the above** The action of the fusing together of an egg and a sperm is referred to as fertilization, which is another word for syngamy. A zygote is the product of this action.

Question 26

In which phase or period of the cell cycle is there rapid cell growth and preparation of the genetic material for cellular division G2 G1 Meiosis S Mitosis

Answer 26

**G2** ## Footnote The phase or period of the cell cycle that has rapid cell growth and preparation of the genetic material for cellular division is the G2 phase. There are three different phases of Interphase during the cell cycle: G1, S, and the G2 phase. All three of these phases involve cell growth and are different, but the key words “preparation of the genetic material for cellular division” are referencing the period just before mitosis, which is the G2 phase.

Question 27

Another name for Microtubule Organizing Centers in animals is Chromatin Centrosomes Centrioles Chromatids Chromosomes

Answer 27

Another name for Microtubule Organizing Centers in animals is centrosomes. Microtubules are produced within the centrosomes. \*Note, the centrosome contains a pair of centrioles, but the MTOC refers to the centrosome system, not the centrioles. Individual centrioles may be isolated in the cytoplasm, in which case they are not referred to as a 'centrosome' until they organize into a pair of centrioles surrounded by a mass of protein (PCM). The MTOC (=centrosome) refers to a pair of centrioles + PCM.

Question 28

A cell will seek division because Its S/V ratio is high Genome/Volume ratio is high Its S/V ration is low Genome/Volume ratio is low More than one of the above

Answer 28

**2 of them** ## Footnote A cell will divide because its S/V ratio is low and also because it’s genome to volume ratio is low, thus the answer is more than one of the above. When the S/V ratio is low, then it becomes difficult for a cell to have efficient cellular exchange because of the large requirements of the volume. In a much similar fashion, when the genome to volume ratio is too low, there is not enough genetic material to keep up with the high demands of regulation in the cell. These are two common reasons as to why cells divide.

Question 29

Looking at genetic material, you notice that there are 23 homologous pairs of chromosomes, how many chromatids are present? 92 46 2 4 23

Answer 29

Looking at genetic material, if you notice that there are 23 homologous pairs of chromosomes, then there would be **92 chromatids** present. If there are 23 homologous pairs of chromosomes, then there would be 46 chromosomes present and thus a total of 92 chromatids. When you have homologous pairs of chromosomes, this means that one is from the mother while the other is from the father for each pair.

Question 30

Which of the following structures produce spores in plant meiosis Sporangia Gametophytes Spores Zygotes

Answer 30

**Sporangia** produce spores in plants after undergoing meiosis. They are simply the site where meiosis takes place in plants and many different fungi, giving rise to haploid spores that are distinct from each other.

Question 31

During which phase of meiosis does crossing over occur in Metaphase I Metaphase II Prophase I Anaphase II Prophase II

Answer 31

During **Prophase I** crossing over occurs in meiosis. One way of remembering where this occurs it, is that crossing over occurs in the first phase of Meiotic division. The second phase of meiotic division is very similar to mitosis.

Question 32

When does the cell begin its determined cycle of growth When mitosis is finished During the G1 growth phase None of the above All of the above When Interphase begins

Answer 32

**all of them!!** The cell begin its determined cycle of growth when mitosis is finished. When mitosis is finished, interphase begins, and the first period of interphase is the G1 growth phase. All of the above is the answer because all three events are synonymous with each other.

Question 33

A cleavage furrow begins to develop during which of the following mitotic phases Metaphase Prophase Anaphase Telophase

Answer 33

The cleavage furrow is a groove that appears in the cell memrane due to the formation and tightening of the contractile ring - a ring of myosin II and actin filaments which forms during **anaphase**, just after the sister chromatids begin to separate. This is the beginning of cytokinesis, which continues into telophase.

Question 34

How many different phases of growth occur in a cell that undergoes mitosis 2 5 3 4 1

Answer 34

There are **three** different phases of growth that occur in cells which undergoes mitosis. The G1, G2, and S phases all have growth occurring in the cells.

Question 35

The production of gametes occur in: The ovaries The kidneys The testes The testes and ovaries The liver

Answer 35

The production of gametes occurs in the **testes and ovaries.** For males, sperm are produced in the testes, whereas with females, eggs are produced in the ovaries.

Question 36

A mitotic inhibitor specifically limits the functioning of which of the following Microtubules Metaphase plate Cytokinesis Microfilaments

Answer 36

A mitotic inhibitor specifically limits the functioning of **microtubules**. By limiting the functioning of microtubules or inhibiting them, mitotic inhibitors such as cancer drugs are able to stop the cell from replicating continuously. In metaphase the microtubules begin to tug on the chromosomes that are lined up, and pull them apart causing division. If microtubules are inhibited, then replication will stop and cancer can be limited.

Question 37

What structures are made of microfibrils Actin/myosin centriole microtubule flagellum cellulose

Answer 37

Cellulose

Question 38

Rapid cell divisions of a zygote is associated with a process called: gasttrulation neurolation cleavage sex determination uinduction

Answer 38

Cleavage

Question 39

Chemoautotrophs

Answer 39

Need Co2 as carbon source cleave electrons from H₂S to initiate redox reactions

Question 40

What structure blocks food bolus from entering the trachea? larynx esophageal sphincter pharynx epiglottis tongue

Answer 40

**epiglottis** is a flap that instanty triggerd by act of swallowing to fully close up the top of the trachea, until air needs to be inhaled again.

Question 41

adenosine triphosphate (ATP) powers cellular work by coupling \_\_\_rxn to ___ rxn

Answer 41

couples EXERGONIC rxn to ENDERGONIC rxn

Question 42

When blood sugar is low, what hormones are increased/decreased

Answer 42

Glucagon is increased and Insulin is decreased

Question 43

Blastopore develops into the _________ for protostomes. Blastopore develop into the ________ for deuterostomes.

Answer 43

Blastopore develops into the **MOUTH** for protostomes. Blastopore develop into the **ANUS** for deuterostomes.

Question 44

Thymosins secreted by the ____ stimulate growth of T Lymphocytes.

Answer 44

Thymosins secreted by the **THYMUS** stimulate growth of T Lymphocytes.

Question 45

Which phylum/classes/bertebrates were first to develop backbones? echinoderms amphibians reptiles birds fishes

Answer 45

Fishes were the first to develop backbones

Question 46

Which hormone controls cellular metabolism? calcitonin melatonin parathyroid hormone thryoxine thymosine

Answer 46

**Thyroxine** and triiodothyronine control cellular metabolism. Exessive amounts of these hormones result in **hyperthyroidism** and inadequate amonts lead to **hypOthyroidism**.

Question 47

what happens to acetylcholines at the end of their neural signal transmission?

Answer 47

Acetylcholine is immediately broken down by acetylcholinesterases at the synaptic cleft, to make ways for next NTs to signal.

Question 48

Which hydrogen spectral series is visible to humans? lyman balmer paschen brackett all of them

Answer 48

Lights emitted in the **Balmer** series fall within the human visible range (~400-700)

Question 49

The average distance traveled by a gas molecule between two collisions is called the :

Answer 49

Mean Free Path

Question 50

of or relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment

Answer 50

**IATROGENIC**

Question 52

hummingbirds and songbirds are physically similar but live in diff. places. This is due to _______ evolution

Answer 52

CONVERGENT EVOLUTION

Question 53

ECHINODERMS like Starfish, sea urchin, sea cucumbers

Answer 53

are invertebrates, no segmentation, adults display radial symmetry

Question 54

RETINA: RODS & CONES CILIARY MUSCLE: ADJUSTS LENS SHAPE PAPILLARY MUSCLE: MUSCLE ASSOCIATED W. HEART PAPILLAE: PRROJECTIONS ON TONGUE SURFACE

Question 55

6 TURNS CALVIN CYCLE PRODUCES GLUCOSE IN PHOTOSYNTHESIS

Answer 55

STROMA OF CHLOROPLAST CONTAINS CALVIN CYCLE ENZYMES

Question 56

PRODUCTS OF LIGHT REACTION OF PHOTOSYNTHESIS:

Answer 56

ATP, OXYGEN, NADPH

Question 57

HORMONE RELEASED FROM KIDNEYS TO STIMULATE RED BLOOD CELL FORMATION IN BONE MARROW:

Answer 57

ERYTHROPOIETIN

Question 58

THROMBUS

Answer 58

BLOOD CLOT THAT ABNORMALLY FORMS IN A VESSEL

Question 59

PROSTAGLANDINS ARE MODIFIED FATTY ACIDS WHICH HELP:

Answer 59

INDUCE FEVER, PAIN SENSATION, AND INFLAMMATION. ASPIRIN CAN INHIBIT PROSTOGLANDIN ACTIVITY.

Question 60

AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT:

Answer 60

AA NORMAL: Aa, or aa

Question 61

main organs are formed during which trimester (1st, 2nd, 3rd)?

Answer 61

FIRST TRIMESTER! durinh this time, rapid organ development occurs and embryo is MOST sensitive to drugs and radiation (causing birth defects)

Question 62

Which of the following is another name for the Krebs Cycle TCA Cycle All of the above are names for the Krebs Cycle Citric Acid Cycle Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle

Answer 62

All of the above are names for the Krebs Cycle

Question 63

Which of the following molecules yields the most energy in the electron transport chain? ADP NADH AMP ATP FADH2

Answer 63

NADH From highest energy to lowest energy the order is: NADH, FADH2, ATP, ADP, AMP. NADH produced 2.5 ATP (3 in older texts) per molecule, while FADH2 produces\*1.5 ATP (2 in older texts) per molecule. To properly understand the energy production of Respiration along with the energy production of each step, it is important to understand how energetic each product itself is.

Question 64

For the 2 FADH2 molecules that enter oxidative phosphorylation, how many ATP are produced total? 2 1 3 6 5

Answer 64

For the 2 FADH2 molecules that enter oxidative phosphorylation, **3 ATP** are produced total. For each FADH2 molecule, 1.5 ATP are produced. Using the more historical number of 2ATP per FADH2 would have led to an answer of 4ATP which was omitted from the answer choices to avoid confusion.

Question 66

What is the chief purpose of the anaerobic pathways To Replenish NAD+ To Produce CO2 To produce Alcohol To Produce ATP To Replenish ATP

Answer 66

The chief purpose of the anaerobic pathways is to **replenish NAD+**. The problem that occurs when oxygen is not present, is that there is no electron acceptor to accept electrons at the end of the electron transport chain in oxidative phosphorylation. With no NAD+ readily available, the cell can potentially die because glycolysis ceases and there is no production of ATP. The solution is that NAD+ is replenished in the anaerobic pathways which gives the cell the ability to still produce energy and accept electrons without resulting in death. \*Note, though replenishing ATP is also an outcome of anaerobic respiration, NAD+ is the molecule which is required in order to keep glycolysis going.

Question 67

Glycolysis occurs in the Mitochondria Cellular Membrane Rough ER Cytoplasm Chloroplast

Answer 67

While most steps of respiration occur in the mitochondria, Glycolysis occurs in the **cytoplasm**. One way of remembering this is that the NADH produced in Glycolysis only produce 2 ATP instead of the standard 3, this is due to the fact that 1 ATP is required for each NADH to be transported from the cytoplasm into the mitochondria.

Question 68

What is the correct order of oxygen flow for the respiratory system in humans? i. Nasal Cavity ii. Voice box iii. Trachea iv. Pharynx 2,1,3,4 1,2,4,3 1,4,3,2 1,2,3,4 1,4,2,3

Answer 68

1,4,2,3 The correct order of the respiratory system in humans is through the nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx (which houses the vocal cords and is oftentimes referred to as the voice box, and the trachea. There are obviously other members involved in gas exchange, but for this question this is their respective order.

Question 69

Which of the following structures control ventilation in humans Posterior Pituitary Medulla Oblongata Parathyroid Pancreas Anterior Pituitary

Answer 69

The **medulla oblongata i**s the structure that controls ventilation in humans. The medulla oblongata plays a major role in the contraction/relaxation of the diaphragm along with the stimulation of the intercostal muscles thus controlling ventilation.

Question 70

When a person is running, which of the following is/are correct H+ concentration decrease pH levels increase positive feedback regulates pH levels All of the above None of the above

Answer 70

none When a person is running, H+ concentration increases thus pH levels decrease (higher acidity), and this is all regulated by negative feedback and not positive feedback. Remember when the respiratory system has to work hard it produces increased levels of carbon dioxide, which in turn is converted bicarbonate ions (which have H+ ions), and the pH level is decreased (higher level of H+ concentration in the blood stream.

Question 71

If a person has respiratory alkalosis, which of the following would be rushed out continually from their body? Oxygen Blood Water Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide

Answer 71

If a person has respiratory alkalosis, carbon dioxide would be rushed out continually from their body. Being that this person has respiratory alkalosis, their blood is too basic, which simply means that it is not acidic enough (not enough hydrogen ions). Since the hydrogen ions come from the bicarbonate ions that transport carbon dioxide, we know that there would be low levels of carbon dioxide in the blood due to the person continually pushing too much out of their body.

Question 72

Which of the following allows for the safe passageway of water through the digestive system rather than the respiratory system Larynx Bronchi Trachea Epiglottis Spiracles

Answer 72

The epiglottis allows for the safe passageway of water through the digestive system rather than the respiratory system. The epiglottis is a flap located at the base of the throat that opens when swallowing occurs. When someone chokes on water, it is simply because water is entering the respiratory system rather than its proper digestive system. The epiglottis is the flap that covers the trachea and helps prevent this from occurring.

Question 73

When the diaphragm is contracted A&C Air moves out of the lungs The intercostal muscles relax The volume of the lungs decrease Air moves into the lungs

Answer 73

When the diaphragm is contracted, air moves into the lungs. Air moves out of the lungs conversely when the diaphragm is relaxed and the intercostal muscles relax thus lowering or decreasing the volume of the lungs.