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MCAT > Biology > Flashcards

Biology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between inter determinant and determinant cleavage

A

Determinant Cleavage-cells fates are already determined interdeterminant: cells can develop into any organism

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2
Q

What are the various stages of development and what day do they occur?

A
  1. Fertilization: forms zygote (Day 0) 2. Cleavage : forms 2-4-8-16 embryo (Day 1-3) 3. Morula (Day 3-4) 4. blastula (blastocyst)- first differentiated cells choose a path of development - Free ( day 5-7) - implanted ( week 2) 5. gastrula ( week 3)
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3
Q

During which stage of development does implantation occur?

A

during the blastula, week 2

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4
Q

What are the primary germ layers

A

endoderm, mesoderms, ectoderms,

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5
Q

which organs are formed from endoderm?

A

“archaentron” digestive tract (stomach and intestines), liver, pancreas, lungs, bladder, thymus, taste buds

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6
Q

what organs are formed from mesoderm?

A

“the means to move” kidneys, lymphatic, circulatory, musculoskeletal, grands

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7
Q

what organs are formed from ectoderms?

A

“attractoderm” skin, hair, teeth, eyes, nervous ( brain and PNS) and sensory structures.

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8
Q

what do neural crest cells develop into?

A

peripheral nervous system ( including sensory and autonomic ganglia, adrenal medulla, and Schwans cells), and other cell types in other tissues (thyroid and melanocytes in the skin and other

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9
Q

What is induction?

A

process of when nearby cells influence the differentiation of adjacent cells. This ensures proper spatial location and orientation of cells that share function or have complementary functions.

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10
Q

What is the difference between Determination and Differentiation?

A

Determination commits cells to have a particular function in the future. Differentiation changes structure, function, and biochemistry to match the cell type.

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11
Q

What are the three types of potency

A

totipotent, pluripotent, multipotent

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12
Q

What is the lineage of totipotent can a cell differentiate into?

A

any cells type in the developing embryo ( mainly germ layers) or extra embryonic tissues ( amnion, chorions, placenta)

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13
Q

what is the lineage of pluripotent can a cell differentiate into?

A

any cell type in the developing embryo ( mainly germ layers)

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14
Q

what is the lineage of multipotent can a cell differentiate into?

A

any cell type within a particular lineage ( ex: hematopoietic cells)

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15
Q

what are the four types of cell-communication?

A
  1. Autocrine: signal acts on the same cell it secreted from. 2. paracrine: signaling acts on local cells ( neighbors) 3. Endocrine: the signal travels via blood stream to distant sites. 4. juxtacrine: cells triggers adjacent cells through direct receptor stimulation
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16
Q

what is the difference between neurosis and apoptosis?

A

Apoptosis is programmed cell death and results in contained blebs of the dead cells that can be picked up and digested by other cells. Necrosis: cell death due to injury and results in spilling of cytoplasmic content.

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17
Q

What is the umbilical arteries?

A

carries deoxygenated blood away from the fetus towards the placenta.

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18
Q

What is the umbilical vein?

A

carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus

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19
Q

What are the three fetal shunts?

A

ductus arterioles and venous, and foramen ovale?

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20
Q

Ductus Arterioles?

A

blood from the pulmonary artery goes to the aorta

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21
Q

Foramen ovale?

A

one way valve that connects the right atrium to the left atrium

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22
Q

Ductus venous?

A

blood from placenta via the umbilical vein goes directly to the inferior vena cava.

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23
Q

What are some key developmental features of the first trimester?

A

organs develop (eyes, gonads, limbs, and livers)

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24
Q

What are some key developmental features of the second trimester?

A

fetus growth

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25
Q

What are some key developmental features of the third trimester?

A

rapid growth and further brain development

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26
Q

What occurs in the three phases of birth?

A
  1. cervix thin, and the amniotic sac breaks ( water breaks) 2. Strong uterine contraction results in the birth of the fetus 3. placenta and umbilical chord are expelled.
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27
Q

Nucleus

A

stores genetic information, and site of transcription.

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28
Q

mitochondria

A

ATP production and apoptosis.

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29
Q

Lysosome

A

breaks down molecules ingested through endocytosis and cellular waste products, help with apoptosis

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30
Q

Rough ER

A

contains ribosomes, synthesized proteins designed for secretion.

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31
Q

Smooth ER

A

lipid synthesis and detoxification

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32
Q

Golgi Apparatus

A

pack, modifies and ship cellular products into vesicles

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33
Q

Peroxisomes

A

contains H2O2 peroxide and break down fatty acids

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34
Q

Microfilament proteins and function

A

actin. function: protect cells and form cleavage furrows

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35
Q

Microtubules proteins and function

A

tubulin function: help with cell migration.

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36
Q

Intermediate Filaments proteins and function

A

different cell types, but include keratin, designs, vimentim and laminin function: mechanical strength

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37
Q

What tissue does endothelial cells belong to?

A

epithelial cells

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38
Q

what tissue does fibroblast, osteoblast and chondroblast belong to?

A

connective tissues

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39
Q

Transformation

A

the acquisition of genetic material

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40
Q

Conjugation

A

transfer of genetic materials from one bacterium to another across a conjugation bridge

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41
Q

Transduction

A

the transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another using a bacteriophage (virus) as a vector

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42
Q

how does prions cause diseases?

A

triggers a change in protein conformation ( from alpha to beta)

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43
Q

lytic cycle

A

swollen, and burst infecting other cells

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44
Q

lysogenic cycle

A

virus will be replicated as the bacterium reproduce because its part of the host genome

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45
Q

Go phase

A

cells performed normal function but do not divided

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46
Q

G1 phase

A

cells create organelles for energy and protein production, while increasing size.

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47
Q

S phase

A

genetic material is replicated so that each daughter cell will have identical copies.

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48
Q

G2 phase

A

continue growth and replication

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49
Q

M phase

A

mitosis + cytokinesis

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50
Q

Prophase

A

chromatin are condensed into chromatins.

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51
Q

Metaphase

A

chromosomes line up on the metaphase plate and spindles attach to it

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52
Q

Anaphase

A

spindles pulls sister chromatids away from each other

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53
Q

Telophase

A

Cleavage furrow starts to form,

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54
Q

cytokinesis

A

two identical cells

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55
Q

Homologous chromosomes vs. Sister chromatids

A

related chromosomes of opposite parental chromosomes.

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56
Q

Meiosis I

A

two haploid daughter cells

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57
Q

Meiosis II

A

four haploid gametes

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58
Q

How is Prophase I difference from mitosis prophase

A

homologous chromosomes come together and synapsis occurs.

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59
Q

How is Metaphase I difference from mitosis metaphase

A

homologous chromosomes line up on opposite plates

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60
Q

Anaphase I

A

homologous chromosomes separate from each other but centromere does not break

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61
Q

Telophase I

A

chromatin may or may not condense

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62
Q

Leydig cells

A

secrete testosterone

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63
Q

Serotoli cells

A

nourishes the sperm

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64
Q

Seminal vesicles

A

use fructose to clean and maintain the sperm.

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65
Q

prostate glands

A

gives fluid alkaline properties

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66
Q

bulbourethral glands

A

(cowper gland) - products clear viscous fluids that clean out any remnant of urine.

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67
Q

what stage is the primary oocyte arrested?

A

prophase I

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68
Q

what stage is the secondary oocyte arrested

A

metaphase II

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69
Q

acrosomes

A

found in sperm and necessary to penetrate the egg

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70
Q

Follicular phase

A

begins when the uterus lining sheds–> GnrH are secreted in response to low FSH and LH–> high GnRH causes FSH and LH to be secreted. FSH and LH produce follicles. follicles produce estrogen. estrogen inhibits genre, LH and FSH

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71
Q

ovulation

A

(late follicular phase) high conc. of estrogen causes an LH surge stimulating ovulation.

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72
Q

luteal phase

A

LH causes the rupture follicle to form corpus lutem that secretes progesterone. high levels of GnRH, FSH, and LH prevent ovulation of multiple eggs.

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73
Q

Menses

A

assuming implantation does not occur, the corpus lutem looses its stimulation, and progesterone levels decline and cycle repeats

74
Q

Axons

A

carry signals away from the (soma) body

75
Q

Dendrites

A

carry signals towards the (soma) body

76
Q

Axon hillock

A

integrates incoming signals and planning

77
Q

myelin sheath

A

maintains electric signal within one neuron

78
Q

synaptic bouton

A

nerve terminal at the end of the axon

79
Q

What is the collection of cell body called in CNS?

A

nucleus

80
Q

What is the collection of cell body called in PNS?

A

ganglion

81
Q

astrocyte

A

nourish neurons

82
Q

ependymal cells

A

produce spinal fluids which supports the brain and serve as a shock absorber

83
Q

oligodendrocytes

A

produce myelin in the CNS

84
Q

schwans cells

A

produce myelin in the PNS

85
Q

what neural structure initiates the action potential?

A

axon hillock

86
Q

what maintains the resting membrane potential?

A

Na+/K+ ATPase

87
Q

what is the approximate voltage of the resting membrane potential?

A

-70mV

88
Q

temporal summation

A

integration of multiple signals close together in time

89
Q

spatial summation

A

integration of multiple signals close together in space.

90
Q

during action potential what channel opens first?

A

sodium channel open at -70mV

91
Q

how is sodium channel regulated?

A

by inactivation around +35mV

92
Q

What is sodium channel effect on polarization?

A

depolarization (raising membrane potential)

93
Q

during action potential what channel opens second?

A

Potassium opens at +35mV

94
Q

how is potassium channel regulated?

A

by closing at low potential ( slightly below -70mV)

95
Q

What is potassium channel effect on polarization?

A

depolarization and eventually polarization

96
Q

absolute refractory period

A

stimulation cannot cause another action potential to occur

97
Q

relative refractory period

A

must be a greater normal stimulation to cause an action potential to occur.

98
Q

what ion is responsible for the fusion of neurotransmitters containing vesicles with the nerve terminal?

A

calcium

99
Q

name three main methods by which neurotransmitters can be stopped?

A
  1. breakdown of enzymatic reaction: ex: ACh 2.using reuptake carriers 3. diffuse out of the synaptic cleft
100
Q

What part of the nervous system are in CNS?

A

brain and spinal chord

101
Q

What part of the nervous system are in PNS?

A

somatic and autonomic

102
Q

what do afferent neurons do?

A

sensory

103
Q

what do efferent neurons do?

A

motor

104
Q

Somatic nervous system function

A

consist of sensory and motor neurons

105
Q

autonomic nervous sytem function

A

regulate digestion, heartbeat, respiration and glandular secretions.

106
Q

sympathetic nervous system

A

activated by stress -increase heart rate -redistributes blood to muscles of locomotion -increase blood to glucose concentration -relax the bronchi -decrease digestion and peristalsis -dilates eyes to maximize light intake -release epinephrine in the blood stream

107
Q

parasympathetic nervous system

A

conserve energy (resting and sleep state) -reduce heart rate -constricts bronchi -stimulates saliva -slow heart beat - stimulation and peristalsis and secretion -stimulate bile release -contracts bladder

108
Q

what is the pathway of neural impulses in monosynaptic reflex?

A

neurons fire directly onto a motor neuron.

109
Q

what is the pathway of neural impulses in polysynaptic reflex?

A

sensory neuron may fire directly onto a motor neuron but interneurons as well.

110
Q

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

A

carries the information specifying the amino acid sequence

111
Q

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

A

responsible for converting nucleic acid language to language of amino acids. - found in the cytoplasm

112
Q

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

A
  • synthesized in the nucleolus - used during protein assembly in the cytoplasm -help catalyze the formation of peptide bonds
113
Q

AUG

A
  • represents methionine -start codon
114
Q

what are the three stop codons.

A

UAA, UGA, UAG

115
Q

degenerate

A

-mutation in the wobble position - also called silent because there is no effect on the expression of the amino acid.

116
Q

point mutation

A

mutation on one nucleotide

117
Q

missense mutation

A

a mutation where one amino acid substitutes for another

118
Q

nonsense mutation

A

a mutation where three codons now incodes for a pre-mature stop codon

119
Q

frameshift mutation

A

a mutation where some nucleotides are added, or removed.

120
Q

RNA polymerase I

A

located in nucleolus and synthesize rRNA

121
Q

RNA Polymerase II

A

located in nucleus and synthesize pre-processed mRNA and some nuclear RNA (snRNA)

122
Q

RNA polymerase III

A

located in nucleus and synthesize tRNA and some rRNA

123
Q

introns

A
  • non coding sequences -stay in nucleus - important for cellular gene expression level regulation
124
Q

5’ cap

A

7- methylguanylate triphosphate is added at the 5’ end - protects mRNA from degradation

125
Q

3’ poly A tail

A

polyadenosyl (polyA) tail is added to the 3’ end of the mRNA transcript and protect the message against rapid degradation

126
Q

exons

A

coding sequences

127
Q

prokaryotic ribosome subunits

A

30, 50, 70

128
Q

eukaryotic ribosome subunits

A

40, 60, 80

129
Q

Peptide Hormones

A

-made up of amino acids ranging from small to large -they do not cross the cell membrane since they are usually charged so they bind to receptors that initiates a signal called secondary messengers

130
Q

Steroid Hormones

A

-derived from cholesterol and produced gonads and adrenal cortex. -nonpolar so they can easily cross the membrane -can bind to DNA and alter transcription

131
Q

amino acid derivatives

A

less common but important in epinephrine, noepinephrine, triodothyronine, and thyroxine (ETNT)

132
Q

ADH (vasopressin)

A

-peptide hormones -produced by hypothalamus, released by posterior pituitary -released in response to: plasma osmolarity -immediate effect: water re absorption in collecting duct -decreases plasma osmolarity

133
Q

Aldosterone

A

-steroid hormones released by: adrenal glands released in response to: decrease blood volume immediate effect: increase Na+/K+ pump in nephron effect: increase blood volume

134
Q

Two major hormones

A

Insulin and glucagon

135
Q

Insulin

A

-Beta cells when blood sugar increases in the body, insulin is released allowing tissues to take up glucose to decrease blood sugar

136
Q

Glucagon

A

-alpha cells when blood sugar decreases, glucagon is released initiating gluconeogenesis ( glycogen to glucose), increasing blood sugar.

137
Q

what hormones does anterior pituitary release?

A

FLAT PEG FSH, LH, ACTH, tSH, Prolactin, Endorphins, GH

138
Q

PFK

A
  • rate limiting step in glycolysis - adds another phosphate to fructose-6-p which commits it to glycolysis -inhibited by citrate and ATP
139
Q

The Electric Conduction of the Heart

A

SA node —> AV node —> the bundle of His and its branches—-> purkinje fibers

140
Q

Explain the electric conduction heart process

A
  1. impulse initiation occurs at the SA node 2. depolarization wave spreads from the SA node causing two arias to contract 3. Signal reaches AV node and its delayed to allow ventricles to fill completely before they contract 4. signal travels down punkinje fibers allowing ventricles to contract
141
Q

Systole

A

ventricular contraction and closure of the AV nodes

142
Q

Diastole

A

heart is related and the semiluminar valves are closed and blood from the atria fills up the ventricle

143
Q

Arteries

A

carries blood away from the heart

144
Q

Veins

A

transport blood back to the heart

145
Q

Capillaries

A

allows diffusion of gases, nutrients, and waste

146
Q

what are the three portal systems

A

hepatic portal system, hypophyseal portal system, real portal system

147
Q

Hepatic Portal System

A

blood leaving capillary beds in the wall of guts pass through hepatic portal veins before eating the capillary bed in the liver.

148
Q

hypophyseal portal system

A

blood leaving the capillary beds in the hypothalamus travels to the capillary bed in the anterior pituitary to allow paracrine secretion of releasing hormones.

149
Q

renal portal system

A

blood leaving the glomerulus travels through an efferent arterioles before surrounding the nephron in the capillary network called the vasa recta.

150
Q

erythrocytes

A

-designed for oxygen transport - bioconcave and have two purposes: 1. shape allows them to travel through capillaries 2. increases cell surface area which allows for greatest gas exchange.

151
Q

leukocytes

A

white blood cells and increases when theres an infection

152
Q

thrombocytes

A

-platelets - assist in blood clotting and are present in high concentration -produced by hematopoiesis

153
Q

Founder effect

A

certain areas of the world show a higher frequency compated to other areas around the world.

154
Q

BottleNeck

A

random culling of a gene pool due to natural diasters.

155
Q

Genetic Drift

A

likelihood that a certain gene pool will be altered.

156
Q

two type of digestions

A
  1. Intracellular digestion: part of metabolism and involves the oxidation of glucose and fatty acids for energy 2. extracellular digestion: process by which nutrients is extracted from our food. - occurs in the lumen of the alimentary canal.
157
Q

alimentary canal

A

runs from the mouth to the anus and is sectioned off by splinters

158
Q

Mechanical digestions

A

breakdown of food by mouth

159
Q

chemical digestions

A

enzymatic cleavage of certain bonds.

160
Q

Digestive Tract order

A

oral cavity—> pharynx–> esophagus—> small intestine–> large intestine–> rectum

161
Q

enteric nervous system

A

stimulates peristalsis which are rhythmic contractions in order to move materials

162
Q

Oral cavity

A

-mechanical digestion occurs here -salivary glands: have salivary amylase that produces salvia and break down carbohydrates -zymogen is also introduced here but is inactive -bolus also starts to form

163
Q

Pharynx

A

divided into 3 compartments - naso pharynx -oropharynx -lasopharynx - food and air mix here so when we swallow the epiglottis closes the flap to the trachea

164
Q

Esophagus

A

moves food through cardiac spinchters so the bolus can enter the stomach - does this using peristalsis

165
Q

Stomach

A

-bulk mechanical digestion occurs here -bolus is liquified into chyme that is highly acidic -carbohydrate enzymes are inactive here and zymogen is activated here by entrokinases

166
Q

why is chyme acidity important

A
  1. denatures proteins 2. controls infections
167
Q

three type of cells

A

1.mucous cells: bicarbonate coating 2. pariental cells: HCl, intrinsic factors 3. chief cells: pepsinogen ( activated by HCl), which produces pepsin

168
Q

what cells does gastrin produce

A

parental and chief cells

169
Q

Doudenum

A

-chyme passes through pyloric spincters -pancreatic juice neutralize

170
Q

some important enzymes produced in the duodenum?

A

enteropeptidase- tryposogen–? trypsin secretin- pancreatic juice cck- pancreatic juice and bile

171
Q

Accessory Organs

A

pancreas, liver, gallbladder

172
Q

Pancreas function in digestive system

A
  • both and endocrine and exocrine -endocrine: release of insulin and glucagon and somatostatin -exocrine: produces pancreatic juice, which are bicarbonate rich contains mainly digestive enzymes
173
Q

Pancreatic digestive enzymes

A
  1. pancreatic amylase - break down large polysaccharides 2. pancreatic peptidase - responsible for proteins digestion 3. pancreatic lipase- break down fats
174
Q

Liver

A

synthesis of nutrients, production of urea, detoxification of chemicals, and production of biles

175
Q

Gallbladders

A

stores and concentrates biles

176
Q

Jejunum and illeum

A

involved in absorption

177
Q

large intestine

A

absorbs water and salt

178
Q

cecum

A

out pocketing that accepts fluid from the small intestine -by appendix

179
Q

rectum

A

stores feces

180
Q

Biology

Question

A

Answer

181
Q

Biology

Question

A

Answer

MCAT (2 decks)

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