Biology Flashcards
(323 cards)
1
Q
What are the four key ideas of the theory of cells?
A
- the cell is the basic functional unit of life
- cells arise only from other cells
- cells pass on genetic information (DNA)
- all living things are made of cells
2
Q
What is the main difference between prokaryotic an eukaryotic cells?
A
Eukaryotic cells have a true nucleus enclosed by a membrane
3
Q
Would prokaryotes or eukaryotes have their DNA wound around histone proteins?
A
Eukaryotes
4
Q
Would prokaryotes or eukaryotes have DNA transcription and translation occur simultaneously?
A
Prokaryotes
5
Q
Would prokaryotes or eukaryotes have an absence of non-coding DNA?
A
Prokaryotes
6
Q
Would prokaryotes or eukaryotes have lysosomes and peroxisomes?
A
Eukaryotes
7
Q
What part of the cell allows for the diffusion of substances around the inside of the cell?
A
The Cytosol (Cytoplasm)
8
Q
What part of the nucleus allows for the selective exchange of materials?
A
Nuclear Pores
9
Q
Where is rRNA synthesized in the cell?
A
Nucleolus
10
Q
What are the numerous folds of the inner mitochondrial membrane called?
A
Cristae
11
Q
How is the matrix of a mitochondria different from its intermembrane space?
A
The matrix is the space enclosed by the inner membrane while the intermembrane space is between the outer and inner membranes
12
Q
What is the process by which mitochondria replicate there own genes and undergo binary fission?
A
Cytoplasmic (extranuclear) inheritance
13
Q
The release of chemicals from what cell organelles can lead to apoptosis?
A
Mitochondria
and
Lysosomes
14
Q
What organelles break down many substances inside the cell by combining with endosomes?
A
Lysosomes
15
Q
Is the endoplasmic reticulum apart of the nuclear envelope?
A
Yes; it is an extension of it
16
Q
How do rough and smooth ER function differently?
A
Rough- site of ribosome production, makes and stores proteins mainly
Smooth- no ribosomes, makes and stores lipids mainly, also used in detoxification
17
Q
What cell organelle modifies and packages cellular materials?
A
Golgi Apparatus
18
Q
What cell organelles breakdown fatty acids and help synthesize phospholipids?
A
Peroxisomes
19
Q
What are the 3 components of the cell’s cytoskeleton?
A
- Microtubules
- Intermediate Filaments
- Microfilaments
20
Q
What component of the cytoskeleton is responsible for the cleavage furrow formation during cytokinesis?
A
Microfilaments (made of actin)
21
Q
What component of the cytoskeleton is responsible for the formation of cilia and flagella as well as the mitotic pulling done by centrioles during mitosis?
A
Microtubules
22
Q
What component of the cytoskeleton is responsible for the rigidity and other random cellular works?
A
Intermediate Filaments
23
Q
What are the four tissue types?
A
- Epithelial
- Connective
- Nervous
- Muscle
24
Q
What is the difference between a tissues parenchyma and stroma?
A
Parenchyma is the functional part of the organ while the stroma is everything else
25
Would prokaryotes or eukaryotes have circular DNA?
Prokaryotes
26
What are the two domains that contain only prokaryotes?
1. Bacteria
and
2. Archaea
27
What domain of prokaryotes are considered extremophiles for there ability to live in a wide variety of environments?
Archaea
28
Which group is more similar, Archaea and Eukaryotes or Bacteria and Eukaryotes?
Archaea and Eukaryotes
29
What are the 3 classifications of bacteria by shape?
1. Cocci (spherical)
2. Bacilli (rod)
3. Spirilli (spiral)
30
What is the difference between obligate aerobes, obligate anaerobes, facultative anaerobes, and aerotolerant anaerobes?
Obligate Aerobes- bacteria that require oxygen for metabolism
Obligate anaerobes- cannot survive in environments with oxygen
Facultative anaerobes- can switch between using oxygen and other sources for metabolism
Aerotolerant anaerobes- cannot use oxygen for metabolism but can still survive
31
What is the difference between gram positive and gram negative bacteria?
Gram Positive bacteria- contain a thick cell wall with a lot of peptidoglycan for added protection
Gram Negative bacteria- contain peptidoglycan but in small amounts
32
What part of bacteria trigger and immune response by a human?
Components of the cell wall
33
Where do prokaryotic organisms carryout energy production?
They use the plasma membrane for the ETC
34
By what mechanism do prokaryotic cells divide?
Binary Fission
35
Where do bacteria carry extrachromosomal information as well as information that is beneficial to the bacteria such as antibiotic resistance?
Plasmids
36
What are the 3 methods that bacteria can increase genetic diversity?
1. Transformation- integrating genetic material that is spilled out from nearby bacteria
2. Conjugation- similar to sex for bacteria
3. Transduction- is when a virus carries genetic material between bacterial cells
37
What are the 4 phases of bacterial growth?
1. Lag phase- bacteria adapt to new environment
2. exponential phase- high growth
3. stationary phase- reduction of growth resources
4. death phase- bacteria have used all resources
38
What is the protein coating that surrounds a virus?
Capsid
39
What are the viral progeny that a virus creates by hacking the replication process of bacteria?
Virions
40
In bacteriophages, what part of their composition acts like a syringe that injects genetic information into the bacteria?
Tail Sheath
41
In bacteriophages, what part of their composition acts like hands that hold the virus in place on the bacteria and recognize the correct bacteria?
Tail Fibers
42
How are retroviruses different from regular viruses in terms of their replication?
Retroviruses synthesize DNA from RNA and then this DNA is inserted into the host cells genome and replicated to create Virions
43
What is the difference between a bacteriophages lytic and lysogenic cycles?
Lytic- the virus creates so many virions inside the host cell that the cell lyses (burst)
Lysogenic- the virus does not burst the host cell but merely lives inside and produces virions
44
What subviral particles are highly dangerous to humans as they are infectious proteins that effect the function of proteins in the body?
Prions
45
What is the difference between Diploid (2n) and Haploid (n)?
Diploid Cells- are autosomal cells that have a two copies of each chromosome (n represents number of each chromosome. Thus diploid cells will have one chromosome 17 from dad and one from mom
Haploid Cells- are germ (sperm or egg) cells that have one copy of a chromosome. Thus haploid cells will have one chromosome 17
46
What are the 3 stages that occur during interphase of the cell life cycle?
1. G1- growth in size and create more organelles, passage to next phase is governed by a restriction point
2. S- cell replicates is genetic material (chromosomes now have 2 sister chromatids, thus there are four sets of DNA for each chromosome)
3. G2- cell goes through quality control to make sure all organelles replicated correctly
47
How many chromatid are present for one chromosome during the G1 compared to the S phase of the cell cycle?
During G1 phase each cell chromosome will have 2 chromatid (one from each parent cell)
During S phase each cell chromosome will have 4 chromatid (2 sets of sister chromatid)
48
What protein plays a major role in the check point between the G1 and S phase as well as the G2 and M phase?
p53 protein
49
What two molecules are responsible for activating transcription factors to allow for cell growth and division?
Cyclins activate Cyclin-dependent Kinases which activate transcription factors
50
What are the stages of mitosis in order?
1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase
51
What happens during prophase of mitosis?
- DNA condenses into tightly bound chromosomes
| - centrosomes relocate to either side of the cell and start sending out spindle fibers from the centrioles
52
What happens during metaphase of mitosis?
- the chromosomes (consisting of sister chromatid) are pulled into alignment in the center of the cell
53
What happens during anaphase of mitosis?
- the sister chromatid from each chromosome are pulled a part
54
What happens during telophase of mitosis?
- a nuclear membrane forms around the chromosomes
| - cytokinesis breaks the two daughter cells apart
55
List 3 differences between mitosis and meiosis
1. In meiosis, the result is 4 genetically different daughter cells due to 2 rounds of division
2. In meiosis, the first metaphase is the alignment of homologous chromosomes in a tetrad
3. In meiosis, the lining up of tetrads allows for recombination and genetic diversity
56
How many chromosomes do humans have? How many homologous pairs?
Humans have 46 chromosomes total due to having 23 pairs of the same chromosome
57
What is the pathway of sperm through the male reproductive system? What is the mnemonic for this?
The mnemonic is when a guy is hard he is SEVEN UP
S- seminiferous tubules (sperm creation)
E- epididymis (sperm storage and motility gain site)
V- vas deferens
E- ejaculatory duct
N- (nothing)
U- urethra
P- penis
58
Where do sperm gain their motility?
The Epdidymis
59
What are the components of semen?
1. sperm
2. fructose (produced in the seminal vesicle)
3. alkaline properties (produced in seminal vesicles and prostate gland)
4. clear viscous fluid (produced in the bulbourethral gland)
60
What is the difference between spermatogonia, primary spermatocytes, secondary spermatocytes, spermatids, and spermatozoa?
Spermatogonia- sperm stem cells
Primary Spermatocytes- diploid sperm cells
Secondary Spermatocytes- haploid sperm cells
Spermatids- un-maturated spermatozoa
Spermatozoa- mature sperm cells
61
What are the 3 main parts of a sperm cell?
1. Head- capped with an acrosome, designed to penetrate the ovum of egg cells
2. Midpiece-filled with mitochondria for energy production
3. Tail- powers the motion of the sperm cell
62
How do women store the eggs that they are born with?
They are stored in the multi-layered sacs known as follicles in the ovaries of the reproductive tract
63
What is the process by which one egg per month is moved from the ovaries to the uterus?
Ovulation
64
What is the route an egg takes for ovulation?
Travels from the ovaries into the fallopian tubes (oviduct) then the uterus
65
What triggers meiosis II in secondary oocytes?
The penetration of a sperm cell into the egg
66
What are the two layers that surround an oocyte?
1. Corona Radiata (outer)
| 2. Zona Pellucida (inner)
67
How do FSH and LH effect sexual development in men?
FSH increases the production of sperm
LH increases the production of testosterone
68
How do FSH and LH effect sexual development in women?
FSH increases the release of estrogens
LH increases the release of progesterone
69
How do Estrogens and Progesterone effect the endometrium during pregnancy or ovulation?
Estrogens increase the thickness of the endometrium
Progesterone helps maintain and develop the endometrium
70
What are the four phases of ovulation?
1. Follicular- begins when menstrual flow (from the last cycle) begins, is the thickening of the endometrium in preparation for an egg
2. Ovulation- a spike in LH causes ovulation or the movement of an egg into the uterus
3. Luteal Phase- progesterone starts to be secreted at high rates
4. Menstruation- if no implantation occurs, progesterone levels decline and the uterine lining is sloughed off
Mnemonic- Fear Of Losing Menses
71
What occurs when the acrosome of a sperm cell is able to penetrate an oocyte?
The sperm and egg form an acrosomal apparatus and eventually form a fused plasma membrane. This is the start of a diploid zygote
72
After dividing several times, what is the zygote referred as?
A Morula
73
During embryonic development, what does the morula become? What is the memory phrase for this?
A Blastula
| The morula has its inside blasted out
74
In a Blastula, what is the difference between the inner cell mass and the trophoblast?
Inner cell mass- contains cells that grow and differentiate into the organism itself
Trophoblast- contains cells that become the chorion, placenta and other fetus-protecting tissues
75
How are the cells nourished during embryonic development before the umbilical cord can be attached?
The Yolk Sac (eventually becomes the cord itslef)
76
What occurs in the embryonic development process of implantation?
The blastula attaches to the endometrium
77
After implantation, the blastula is able to develop three distinct cell layers in a process called what?
Gastrulation
78
In Humans and other deuterostomes, what does the blastopore of the gastrula develop into?
The Anus
79
What are the three layers present in a gastrula?
1. Ectoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Endoderm
80
From what primary germ layer of the gastrula would the cells of the hair, skin, eye lens, mouth, and nervous system come from? What is the phrase to remember this?
The Ectoderm
| Remember that the ectoderm is the attract-o-derm and that we get nervous when we see someone attractive
81
From what primary germ layer of the gastrula would the cells of the musculoskeletal, circulatory, excretory, and gonads come from? What is the phrase to remember this?
The Mesoderm
Remember that the mesoderm is the move-o-derm that gives rise to cells that allow for movement both internally and externally
82
From what primary germ layer of the gastrula would the cells of the digestive tract, respiratory tract, lungs, pancreas, thyroid, and bladder?
The Endoderm
| Remember that the endoderm is the endernal-o-derm and creates cells that line the internal passages
83
From what primary germ layer of the gastrula would the cells of the adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla come from? Why?
Adrenal Cortex- the mesoderm because it is an internal organ
Adrenal Medulla- the ectoderm because it is technically nervous tissue
84
What process allows cells to differentiate?
Selective Transcription
85
Describe what happens in the process of neurulation.
1. A rod of mesodermal cells form a rod that will become the spine
2. A group of ectodermal cells push together until the form two peaks known as the neural groove. These neural groove peaks grow together to form a neural tube which will become the CNS
3. At the tips of the neural grooves are neural crest which eventually spread out and become the PNS
86
What are chemicals, compounds, or other harmful substances that interfere with embryonic development?
Teratogens
87
In development, what is the difference between specification and differenitiation?
Specification- the cell is reversibly designated as a specific cell type
Differentiation- the cell commits to a specific cell type
88
What is the difference between totipotent, pluripotent, and multipotent stem cells?
Totipotent- can turn into any cell type and are what embryonic stem cells are
Pluripotent- can turn into any cell type except for the placental structures
Multipotent- can turn into any cell type within a certain group such as blood cells
89
What are cells that signal other cells to differentiate called?
Inducers
90
How is fetal hemoglobin different from regular hemoglobin?
Fetal Hemoglobin has a way higher affinity for oxygen so that it can pick up oxygen from its mother's hemoglobin
91
What are the two arteries that carry deoxygenated blood in humans?
1. Pulmonary Arteries
| 2. Umbilical Arteries
92
Where does blood oxygenation occur for a fetus?
In the placenta where blood oxygen diffuses across it
93
A fetus would be harmed if it sent blood to the lungs or the liver. What are the names of the shunts created to prevent this?
Lungs- foramen ovale AND ductus arteriosus
Liver- ductus venosus
94
How long does human gestation last?
280 days
95
What is another word for vaginal birth?
Parturition
96
Where is an action potential first generated in a neuron
Axon Hillock
97
What cells produce myelin in the CNS? What cells in the PNS?
CNS- myelin is produced by Oligodendrocytes
PNS- myelin is produced by Schwann Cells
98
What are the gaps in the myelin sheathing where the action potential is regenerated along the axon?
Nodes of Ranvier
99
What is another name for the axon terminal?
Synaptic Bouton
100
What is a bundle of neurons called?
Nerve
101
What is the difference between a tract and a nerve?
Nerve- a bundle of neurons carrying information in either direction and are located in the PNS
Tracts- a bundle of neurons carrying information in one direction and are located in the CNS
102
What are the four types of glial cells in the CNS?
1. Oligodendrocyte- produce myelin
2. Astrocyte- create the blood-brain barrier as well as nourish the neurons with nutrient
3. Ependymal Cells- produce cerebrospinal fluid
4. Microglia- macrophage activity
103
What is the resting membrane potential in most neurons?
-70mv
104
What 3 channels are responsible for creating resting membrane potential and which direction do ions flow through these when the neuron is at rest?
1. Na+/K ATPase pump that brings two K+ ions in and three Na+ ions out
2. K+ leak channels that allow the membrane to be more permeable to K+ at rest and allow K+ to flow out of the cell
3. Na+ leak channels that allow some Na+ to flow into the cell
105
What are the equilibrium potentials for Na+ and K+?
Na+ is around 60 mv
K+ is around -90 mv
106
What is the typical threshold potential for neurons?
-55 to -40 mv
107
What is the difference between temporal and spatial summation that reaches the axon hillock in a neuron?
Temporal- a graded potential is created by the same pre-synaptic neuron in rapid succession
Spatial- a graded potential is created by different pre-synaptic neurons at the same time
108
What is the difference between the relative and absolute refractory periods?
Absolute- an action potential cannot be generated
Relative- a greater than normal stimulation must occur because the membrane is hyperpolarized
109
Describe what type of neuron would transmit the fastest possible signal
A neuron that is:
- myelinated (allowing for saltatory conduction)
- short (preventing increased resistance)
- large radius (preventing increased resistance
110
What ion is essential in the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft?
Ca2+
111
What are the 3 main ways that neurotransmitters are removed from the synaptic cleft?
1. Broken down by enzymes
2. Reuptake- brought back into the presynaptic neuron by reuptake carriers
3. Diffusion away from the synaptic cleft (mainly gases)
112
What is the difference between white and grey matter in the CNS?
Gray- Cell bodies and dendrites
White- myelinated axons
113
What is another name for efferent neurons?
Motor Neurons
114
Where do afferent (sensory) neurons enter the spinal cord?
Dorsal Roots
115
Where do efferent (motor) neurons exit the spinal cord?
Ventral Roots
116
How many neurons are used to signal an effector in the autonomic nervous system? How about the somatic?
Autonomic- uses two neurons that are separated by a ganglion
Somatic- uses one neuron (usually with a long axon)
117
What is the neurotransmitter used by the parasympathetic nervous system?
Acetylcholine
118
What is the primary neurotransmitter used by the sympathetic nervous system?
Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
119
What part of the autonomic nervous system is also known as the craniosacral division?
Parasympathetic
120
What part of the autonomic nervous system is also known as the thoracolumbar division?
Sympathetic
121
What division of the autonomic nervous system would cause an increase in heart rate?
Sympathetic
122
What division of the autonomic nervous system would cause the bronchi to relax?
Sympathetic (this would allow for more oxygen exchange)
123
What division of the autonomic nervous system would cause the pupils to constrict?
Parasympathetic (not as alarmed)
124
What division of the autonomic nervous system would cause an increase in the blood glucose levels?
Sympathetic
125
What is the difference between a monosynaptic and a polysynaptic reflex
Monosynaptic- there is a single synapse between sensory neuron that receives the stimulus and the motor neuron that responds to it
Polysynaptic- there is at least one interneuron between the two
126
Would the K+ voltage gated channels be open or closed during a depolarization? What about during a repolarization?
Depolarization- K+ channels would be closed
Repolarization- K+ channels would be opening
127
What are the 3 types of hormones?
1. Steroid
2. Amine
3. Peptide/Protein
128
Which of the 3 types of hormones are water soluble?
Peptide/Protein hormones are water soluble
AND
Catecholamines of the amine hormones
129
Which of the 3 types of hormones are not water soluble?
Steroid hormones
AND
Thyroid hormones
130
By which mechanism do protein hormones and catecholamines signal cells?
They are not lipid-soluble thus they use a messenger pathway that changes transcription factors or enzymes
131
What are some common second messengers?
- cAMP
| - IP3
132
Will the effects of water soluble hormones be slower or faster than lipid-soluble hormones?
Faster but will last shorter time period
133
What type of hormones are progesterone, testosterone, and estrogen?
They are all steroid hormones
134
What type of hormone is aldoesterone?
Steroid hormone
135
What type of hormones are insulin, glucagon, and prolactin?
They are all protein hormones
136
What type of hormones are the Thyroid hormones and epinephrine?
They are both amine hormones
137
What type of hormones does the hypothalamus release?
Hypophysiotropic hormones to the anterior pituitary
AND
hormones to the posterior pituitary
138
Does the posterior pituitary produce hormones?
No; it releases hormones produced by the hypothalamus
139
What hormones does the posterior pituitary release and what are there effects?
1. Oxytocin- causes uterine contractions during labor, influences lactation, influences bonding behavior
2. Antidiuretic Hormone (Vasopressin)- increases reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts of the kidneys
140
What posterior pituitary hormone is released via a positive feedback loop during labor?
Oxytocin
141
What are the hormones released by the anterior pituitary and what hormones released by the hypothalamus trigger this release? What is the mnemonic to remember this?
The Mnemonic is FLAT PEG
F: Follicle Stimulating Hormone (triggered by GnRH)
L: Luteinizing Hormone (triggered by GnRH)
A: Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (triggered by CRF)
T: Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (triggered by TRH)
P: Prolactin (triggered by a DECREASE in dopamine)
E: Endorphins
G: Growth Hormone (triggered by GHRH)
142
What effect on the body do the hormones released by the signaling of Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone?
FSH- stimulates follicle stimulation in females and spermatogenesis in males
LH- stimulates ovulation in females and testosterone synthesis in males
143
Where is Adrenocorticotropic hormone released and what are its effects on the body?
Released from the anterior pituitary and stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids
144
Where is Thyroid Stimulating Hormone released and what are its effects on the body?
Released from the anterior pituitary and stimulates the thyroid to produce thyroid hormones (T3/T4)
145
Where is the hormone prolactin released and what are its effects on the body?
Released from the anterior pituitary and stimulates milk production in the mammary glands
146
Where is growth hormone released and what are its effects on the body?
Released from the anterior pituitary and stimulates bone and muscle growth and raises blood glucose levels
147
Where is Antidiuretic hormone synthesized and released and what are its effects on the body?
Synthesized in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary.
Stimulates water reabsorption in the kidneys by increasing permeability of collecting duct
148
Where are the Thyroid hormones released and what are there effects on the body?
Released from the thyroid gland and stimulate metabolic activity
149
Where is the hormone calcitonin released and what are its effects on the body?
Released from the thyroid glands and it decreases blood calcium concentrations
150
Where is parathyroid hormone released and what are its effects on the body?
Released form the parathyroid glands and it increases blood calcium concentrations
151
Where is cortisol and cortisone released and what are there effects on the body?
These glucocorticoids are released from the adrenal cortex and increase blood glucose and decrease immune response
152
Where is aldosterone released and what are its effects in the body?
This mineralocorticoid is released from the adrenal cortex and it increases water reabsorption in the kidneys by increasing sodium reabsorption, it also promotes K+ and H+ excretion
153
Where are epinephrine and norepinephrine released and what are there effects on the body?
Released from the adrenal medulla and they increase blood glucose, increase heart rate, and dilate bronchi
154
Where is insulin released and what are its effects on the body?
Released from the pancreatic beta cells and causes a decrease in the blood glucose levels
155
Where is glucagon released and what are its effects on the body?
Released from the pancreatic alpha cells and causes an increase in blood glucose levels
156
Where is somatostatin released and what are its effects on the body?
Released from the pancreatic delta cells and suppresses the release of glucagon or insulin
157
Where are estrogen and progesterone released and what are there respective effects on the body?
They are released from the Ovary and placenta
Estrogen- induces and maintains female reproductive system and secondary sex characteristics
Progesterone- maintains endometrium
158
Where is the hormone erythropoietin released and what are its effects on the body?
Released from the kidneys and it causes an increase in red blood cell production (erythropoiesis) in red bone marrow
159
Where is atrial natriuretic peptide released and what are its effects on the body?
Released by the atriums of the heart and causes an increase in salt and water excretion
160
Where is the hormone thymosin released and what are its effects on the human body?
Released by the thymus and stimulates T-cell development
161
What is the difference between Type I and Type II diabetes?
Type I- is caused by the autoimmune destruction of beta cells in the pancreas thus the body does not secrete insulin
Type II- is caused by the receptors of insulin building up resistance due to consistently high carbohydrate intake
162
Describe the flow of air from the nose to the capillaries in the lungs
1. Air enters the external nares of the nose
2. flows down the nasal cavity lined with hairs (vibrissae)
3. flows into the pharynx
4. flows past the epiglottis into the larynx
5. flows into the cartilaginous trache
6. flows into one of two bronchi
7. flows into the bronchioles in each lunch
8. ends in the alveoli sac in the lungs
163
What is the difference between the parietal and visceral pleura of the lungs and what do they do?
Visceral- sac attached to the lungs themselves
Parietal- sac on the outside of the visceral sac
Both of these form the surfaces against which the lungs expand
164
When it is relaxed, what is the shape of the diaphragm?
Curved like a hill pushing on the lungs
165
What physics principle allows for the process of breathing?
The pressure differential between the intrapleural space and the lungs
166
During the process of inhalation what is the diaphragm doing?
The diaphragm is contracted which increases the volume of the intrapleural space
167
Why does contraction of the diaphragm allow for inhalation of air?
Because contraction of diaphragm causes and increase in the volume of the intrapleural space which also causes a decrease in pressure. Since the lungs are at a higher pressure they will expand and this expansion decreases the pressure inside them and draws air in
168
During the process of exhalation what is the diaphragm doing?
It is relaxed and pushing up against the lungs
169
Why does relaxation of the diaphragm allow for exhalation?
Because as it is relaxed, the diaphragm is pushing into the intrapleural space and causing a decrease in volume thus and increase in pressure. This increased pressure will push on the lungs forcing air out
170
What device measures lung capcities?
Spirometer
171
What is the difference between total lung capacity (TLC) and vital capacity (VC)?
TLC- the maximum volume of air in lungs when someone inhales completely
VC- the highest volume of air that can be exhaled from the lungs
172
What is residual volume (RV) in the lungs?
RV- is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after exhaling completely
173
What is the tidal volume measured by a spirometer?
TV- the volume of air inhaled and exhaled during a normal breath
174
What is the difference between inspiratory and expiratory reserve volume?
IRV- the volume of air that can be forcibly inhaled following a normal inhalation
ERV- the volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled following a normal exhalation
175
What is the function of lysozyme in the nasal passages?
It is a enzyme that attacks gram-positive bacteria
176
Draw out the equation for the bicarbonate buffering system
Look it up sweatheart
177
How will the respiratory system respond during a period of alkalemia?
The bodies breathing will slow down to push the bicarbonate buffering system to the right and increase the blood's acidity
178
What is the complete path of blood through the cardiovascular system?
1. Right Atrium
2. Tricuspid valve (right atrioventricular)
3. Right Ventricle
4. Pulmonary valve (right semilunar)
5. Pulmonary Trunk
6. Pulmonary Arteries
7. Pulmonary Arterioles
8. Pulmonary Capillaries
9. Pulmonary Venules
10. Pulmonary Veins
11. Left Atrium
12. Bicuspid/mitral valve (left atrioventricular)
13. Left Ventricle
14. Aortic Valve (left semilunar)
15. Aorta
16. Arteries
17. Arterioles
18. Capillaries
19. Venules
20. Veins
21. Venae Cava (superior and inferior)
179
What is the difference between pulmonary and systemic circulation?
Pulmonary- blood pumped to the lungs
Systemic- blood pumped to the rest of the body
180
Why are the ventricle larger than the atria?
They need more muscle to pump blood
181
What is the pathway of electrical signal in the hearts conduction system?
1. Sinoatrial Node (SA)
2. Internodal Pathway
3. Atrioventricular Node (AV)
4. Bundle of His
5. Bundle Branches
6. Purkinje Fibers
182
Why are there intercalated disks in the cardiac tissue?
To allow for rapid electrical synapse signaling
183
What is the difference between systole and diastole?
Systole- occurs with ventricular contraction and blood expulsion
Diastole- occurs with ventricular relaxation and blood filling
184
What does cardiac output measure?
The amount of blood volume pumped from either ventricle per a unit of time
185
What is the equation for cardiac output?
```
CO = HR x SV
Where:
CO- cardiac output
HR- heart rate
SV- stroke volume
```
186
What are the actions occurring during the two heart sounds?
The first heart sound is associated with the closing of the atrioventricular valves at the start of systole
The second heart sound is associated with the closing of the semilunar valves at the end of systole
187
What are the 3 portal systems of the circulatory system?
1. Hepatic Portal
2. Hypophyseal Portal
3. Renal Portal
188
What is the difference between erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets?
Erythrocytes- red blood cells, make up almost all of the cells in the blood
leukocytes- white blood cells, small proportion of the blood
Platelets- cell fragments and other things that support clotting
189
What is hemotocrit?
The percentage of blood that is erythrocytes
190
What do erythropoietin and thrombopoietin do respectivelly?
Erythropoietin- secreted by the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production
Thrombopoietin- secreted by the liver and stimulates platelet development
191
What is an antigen?
A surface target/protein that the immune system can respond to
192
What does a sphygmomanometer measure?
The gauge pressure in systemic circulation
193
What is blood pressure measured as?
Systolic pressure / Diastolic Pressure
194
What drives the circulation of blood through the body?
The pressure differential created by the heart
195
What equation (similar to Ohm's law) can be used to find the pressure differential in circulation?
```
ΔP = CO x TPR
Where:
ΔP- pressure differential
CO- cardiac output
TPR- total peripheral resistance
```
196
How is CO2 primarily transported in the blood?
Mostly in red blood cells, the rest is transported as bicarbonate
197
What is hydrostatic pressure?
force per unit area that is exerted on the blood vessels walls
198
What is osmotic pressure?
The pressure differential created by solutes in the blood that seeks to pull water into the bloodstream
199
What is the final proteins that are activated during a clotting response?
1. Prothrombin forms thrombin
2. Thrombin activates fibrinogen
3. Fibrinogen forms fibrin
200
What protein breaks down blood clots?
Plasmin
201
What is the difference between white and red muscle fibers?
White- fast twitch, less myoglobin, more glycolytic enzymes
Red- slow twitch, more myoglobin, more blood vessels for supplying oxygen
202
Which muscle types are striated?
Skeletal and Cardiac
203
Define myogenic activity
smooth and cardiac muscles can contract without any nervous system input
204
How many nuclei do each of the muscle types have?
Skeletal- many
Cardiac- 1 to 2
Smooth- 1
205
What composes thick and thin filaments of muscle?
Thick- myosin
Thin- actin, troponin, tropomyosin
206
What does a motor unit consist of?
A motor neuron and all the myocytes it activates
207
What are the 3 phases of muscle activity?
1. Latent period- starts when the myocyte receives the action potential to the formation of cross bridges
2. Contraction period- starts with the power stroke of the cross bridges and ends with the peak of muscle tension
3. Relaxation- occurs when atp binds to the myosin head causing it to release from binding to actin
208
What energy source is used by the muscle for very short periods of time during high intensity?
Creatine Phosphate
209
What are the two divisions of the skeleton and what do they consist of?
Axial- skull, vertebrae, rib cage, hyoid bone
Appendicular- bones of the limbs, pectoral girdle, and pelvis
210
What is the difference between red and yellow bone marrow?
Red- produces red blood cells and is filled with hematopoietic stem cells
Yellow- composed of fat and is inactive
211
What is the difference between epiphysis, metaphysis, and diaphysis relating to bone structure?
Epiphysis- the end of long bones
Metaphysis- the swelling of bone right before reaching epiphysis
Diaphysis- the long and skinny portion of the bones
212
What is the outer most layer of bone?
Periosteum- site of muscle attachment and protects bone
213
What are the structural units of bone structure?
Osteons
214
Are bones vascular and innervated?
Yes; this is why it hurts to break a bone
215
What is the difference between osteoblast and osteoclast?
Osteoblast- build bone
Osteoclast- break it down
216
How would the bones respond to high levels of parathyroid hormone, vitamin D, and calcitonin?
Parathyroid hormone- promotes reabsorption (breaking down) of bone
Vitamin D- promotes reabsorption (breaking down) of bone
Calcitonin- promotes bone formation which lowers blood Ca2+ levels
217
What is the name for the process by which cartilage is solidified into bone?
Endochondral Ossification
218
Where are immovable joints found?
Skull
219
What joint structures aid in the smooth movement between bones?
1. Synovial fluid
2. Articular Cartilage
3. Synovium
220
What is the difference between a flexor, extensor, abductor, and adductor?
Flexor- decreases angle across a joint
Extensor- increases angle across a joint
Abductor- move part of body away from the midline
Adductor- moves part of the body toward the midline
221
What is the difference between innate and and adaptive immunity?
Innate- defenses that are always active against infection but lack ability to target specific invaders
Adaptive- defenses that target a specific pathogen
222
What type of immunity (specific or nonspecific) would respond to a particular virus such as COVID-19?
Specific
223
Where are all leukocytes produced?
Bone Marrow
224
Where are B-cells stored?
Spleen
225
Where are T-cells stored?
Thymus
226
What leukocytes are involved in adaptive immunity?
B and T cells
227
What is the purpose of lymph nodes?
Provide a location where leukocytes and other immune responses can mount an attack against infection
228
What are the two broad categories of leukocytes?
1. Granulocytes
| 2. Agranulocytes
229
What is the difference between granulocytes and agranulocytes?
Granulocytes contain granules that contain toxic enzymes and are effective against bacterial, fungal, and parasitic infections
230
What are the types of cells that belong to the granulocyte category of leukocytes?
1. Neutrophils
2. Eosinophils
3. Basophils
231
What are the types of cells that belong to the agranulocyte category of leukocytes?
1. Lymphocytes
| 2. Monocytes (macrophages)
232
What division of the specific immunity is driven through the response of B-cells?
Humoral Immunity
233
What division of the specific immunity is driven through the response of T-cells?
Cell-Mediated Immunity
234
What antibacterial enzymes are present on the skin and provide one of our bodies first barriers to infection?
Defensins
235
What branch of immune response does the complement system fall under and what is its mechanism of response?
It is a part of the non-specific immune system and is a group of proteins that act as a barrier against bacterial infection
236
What is the difference between the classical and alternative pathway in the complement system?
Classical- requires the binding of an antibody to the pathogen
Alternative- does not require antibody binding
237
What is the purpose of interferons and what branch of the immune response do they fall under?
Interferons prevent cells that have been infected by viruses from reproducing the viral genome
They fall under the innate immune response
238
How do macrophages work to prevent infection and what branch of the immune response do they fall under?
They ingest the invader through endocytosis and then present pieces of the infecting invader on an important protein called Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) placed on other invaders
Macrophages fall under the innate immune branch
239
Why are MHC class II molecules a part of the exogenous pathway?
Because they create antigens that arise from extracellular invaders
240
Why are MHC class I molecule a part of the endogenous pathway?
Because they create antigens that arise from intracellular proteins that are normal in the cell
The body recognizes a cell is being attacked if it starts creating abnormal MHC I antigens
241
What allows Macrophage cells to recognize invaders?
Pattern Recognition Receptors
242
What innate immunity cells are able to recognize the down-regulation of MHC molecules and thus antigens in infected cells, and then respond by inducing apoptosis?
Natural Killer Cells
243
Are granulocytes a part of the specific or non-specific branch of the immune system?
Non-Specific
244
What is the task of neutrophils in the immune response?
They can follow bacteria by chemotaxis and phagocytize them
245
What is the task of eosinophils in the immune response?
They release histamines that results in vasodilation and leakiness of blood vessels allowing for more immune cells to move into the tissues (this causes inflammation)
246
What are the tasks of mast cells and basophils in the immune response?
They release histamines that results in vasodilation and leakiness of blood vessels allowing for more immune cells to move into the tissues (this causes inflammation)
247
Where do B-cells mature?
Bone Marrow
248
What is involved in the process of humoral immunity?
The production of antibodies produced by B-cells
249
What is the role of antibodies in the specific immune response?
They bind to antigens and:
1. attract other leukocytes to phagocytize the antigen
2. cause pathogens to agglutinate (clump)
3. degranulation of mast cells presenting the viral antigens
250
What is the general structure of an antibody?
A Y shape made up of two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains
251
What is at the end of the light chains in an antibody?
The antigen binding region known as the variable region
252
What structure of an antibody is mutated to adapt to a new invader?
The variable region
253
To what region of an antibody do Natural Killer Cells, Macrophages, monocytes, and eosinophils bind to and initiate the complement cascade?
The constant region
254
What is the difference between primary and secondary response within humoral immunity?
Primary- is the initial response to a new antigen
Secondary- is the secondary response to an antigen (thought process behind vaccines)
255
What are the 3 major types of T-cells?
1. Helper T-cells
2. Suppressor T-cells
3. Killer (cytotoxic) T-cells
256
What is the purpose of helper t-cells in the specific immune response?
recruit other immune cells after reading MHC class II presenting antigens
257
What is the purpose of cytotoxic t-cells in the specific immune response?
directly kill virally infected cells by reading MHC class I presenting antigens
258
What is the purpose of suppressor t-cells in the specific immune response?
tone down the immune response once the effect has been sufficiently generated
259
Would a bacteria cells be tagged with a MHC class I or II antigen?
Class II because the antigen would be exogenously produced
260
Would cells infected by a virus be tagged with a MHC class I or II antigen?
Class I because the antigen originated from within the human cell (endogenous)
261
What is the alimentary canal?
The pathway or tube that our food follows to go through extracellular digestion
262
What is the pathway through the alimentary canal?
1. Mouth
2. Pharynx
3. Esophagus
4. Stomach
5. Small Intestine
6. Large Intestine
7. Rectum
263
What branch of the nervous system is responsible for controlling peristalsis in the digestive system?
Enteric Nervous System
264
What branch of the nervous system innervates all the glands of the digestive system?
Parasympathetic
265
What is a bolus?
The clump of chewed up food that our tongue pushes back into our throat
266
What type of muscle is in the top of the esophagus?
Skeletal
267
What type of muscle in in the bottom of the esophagus?
Smooth
268
What sphincter allows us to swallow?
upper esophageal sphincter
269
What sphincter allows food to pass into the stomach?
lower esophageal sphincter
270
What type of acid is in the stomach?
HCl
271
Why does the stomach have a thick mucosa?
To prevent autodigestion
272
What are the folds of the stomach called?
Rugae
273
What are the 3 types of gastric gland cells and there actions?
1. Mucous cells- produce bicarbonate rich mucous to protect the stomach lining
2. Chief cells- produce pepsinogen (zymogen of pepsin) a proteolytic enzyme
3. Parietal cells- produce HCl which activates the pepsinogen
274
What is secreted by the pyloric glands of the stomach?
Gastrin- signals more HCl to be produced and stomach contractions
275
What is the mixture that leaves the stomach called?
Chyme
276
Where does the majority of chemical digestion occur in the small intestine?
Duodenum
277
What are the 3 segments of the small intestine?
1. Duodenum
2. Jejunum
3. Ileum
278
What sphincter separates the stomach and small intestine?
Pyloric Sphincter
279
What are some of the enzymes secreted by the Duodenum is response to Chyme?
1. Disarccharidases (lactase)
| 2. Peptidases
280
What digestive organ secretes pancreatic juices into the duodenum?
Pancreas
281
What can bile salts be compared to?
Soaps as they emulsify fats
282
Why is Cholecystokinin secreted by the duodenum?
CCK is a hormone that stimulates the release of bile salts and pancreatic juices
283
Why is secretin secreted by the duodenum during digestion?
Secretin is a hormone that stimulates the release of pancreatic enzymes as well as help increase the pH of the small intestine (to activate enzymes)
284
What cells of the pancreas are responsible for its exocrine abilities?
Acinar Cells
285
What organ is responsible for the production of bile? What about the storage of bile?
The liver produces bile which is stored in the gallbladder
286
Why does jaundice occur?
The liver cannot effectively dispose of the byproduct of Hb breakdown (bilirubin) and thus the yellow tint appears
287
What are many of the enzymes secreted by the pancreas useful for?
The chemical digestion of proteins
288
Explain how the anatomy of the jejunum and ileum aid in the absorption of compounds from food
The walls of these segments are lined with tiny projections called villi which are then lined with their own projections called microvilli
289
What part of the villi absorbs and transports lipids?
Lacteals
290
What is the primary purpose of the large intestine?
To reabsorb secreted water
291
What are some of the functions of the excretory system?
1. Maintains Blood Pressure
2. Maintains Blood Osmolarity
3. Maintains Acid/Base Balance
4. Removal of Nitrogenous Wastes
292
Where do the renal pelvis, renal artery, and renal vein enter the kidney?
Through a deep slit known as the renal hilum
293
What is the difference between the internal and external urethral sphincter?
Internal- consists of smooth muscle and is contracted normally
External- consist of skeletal muscle
294
Where does blood get filtered to leave behind plasma in the tubules of the kidneys?
It is filtered in the renal corpuscle (Bowman's capsule and glomerulus)
295
What is the name for the fluid left over after being separated from the blood into bowman's space?
Filtrate
296
What forces govern if filtrate will move into bowman's space from the blood? What is the name for these forces?
The Hydrostatic (fluid) pressure of the blood in the afferent capillaries creates a pressure differential that is higher than the pressure created by the osmotic (oncotic) pressure of the afferent capillary blood having more solutes. This drive filtrate into bowman's space.
These forces are known as Starling Forces
297
If proteins are found in the urine, with what area of the nephron does this indicate a problem with?
The glomerulus
298
How does the body deal with high amounts amount NH3 following protein rich meals?
The body wants to avoid the basic effects of NH3 and thus creates Urea out of NH3 and transports this to the kidneys where it is secreted into the tubule (combining with urine)
299
What are the main waste products excreted in the urine? What is the mnemonic for this?
H+
Urea
NH3
K+
The Kidneys dump the HUNK
300
What is the path that urine follows after leaving bowman's space?
1. Proximal Convoluted Loop
2. Loop of Henle
3. Distal Convoluted Loop
4. Collecting Duct
301
What is the primary purpose of the proximal convoluted tubule?
It functions to reabsorb amino acids, glucose, Na+ ions, and water
It also secretes HUNK
302
What happens to substances reabsorbed by any segment of the tubule portion of nephrons?
These substances are picked up by the vasa recta and returned to normal blood
303
How does the body adjust the water levels that it has in terms of the loop of Henle?
The body adjust the osmolarity of the interstitium (changing the amount of ions or proteins in the area surrounding the loop of Henle tubule segment)
304
What is the primary purpose of the distal convoluted tubule?
responds to aldosterone to control Na+ and water reabsorption
It also secretes HUNK
305
What are the two segments of the tubule section of a nephron that aldosterone act on? What are its effects?
Aldosterone acts on the Distal Convoluted Tubule and the Collecting Duct
It increases these areas permeability to Na+ allowing for more reabsorption which also increase reabsorption of water (concentrates the urine)
306
What is the primary purpose of the collecting duct?
The collecting duct largely determines the concentration (amount of water) in the urine
It responds to both Aldosterone and Anti-diuretic Hormone to control this reabsorption
307
How does Vasopressin (ADH) work in the collecting duct of the nephrons?
It increases the amount of aquaporins (water channels) present in the collecting duct's membrane which increases the reabsorption of water
308
What are the 3 layers of the skin?
Epidermis (outside)
Dermis
Hyperdermis
309
What is the mnemonic to remember the layers of the epidermis?
```
Come Let's Get Sun Burned
1. Corneum
2. Lucidum
3. Granulosum
4 Spinosum
5. Basale
```
310
What are genes?
DNA sequences that code for heritable traits and are found on specific areas of chromosomes
311
What is a genes location on a chromosome called?
Its locus
312
How many alleles for a specific gene due hemizygous people have?
One allele (such as males X chromosome)
313
What is the difference between penetrance and expressivity?
Penetrance- the percentage of people that have a particular genotype that have the phenotype in question (ex. some individuals with dominant polydactyly allele do not show the expected phenotype thus this disease has incomplete penetrance)
Expressivity- the various phenotypes that can arise from one genotype (ex. variable expressivity would mean that despite having the same genes, two people can be different manifestations of a disease)
314
What two laws created by Mendel show why sexual reproduction increases the genetic diversity of a population?
1. Law of Segregation- an organism will receive only 1 allele from each parent
2. Law of Independent Assortment- inheritance of one gene does not influence the inheritance of another
315
What is the effect of transposons?
They insert themselves into DNA and cause mutations
316
What is the difference between nucleotide level mutations and chromosomal mutations?
Nucleotide Level- occur at the level of the individual nucleotides used for gene coding
Chromosomal Level- occur at the level of chromosomes and cause large changes in DNA
317
If only one nucleotide of a segment of mRNA is replaced what type of mutation has occurred?
Point Mutation
318
What are the 3 types of point mutations and what are there effects?
1. Silent Mutation- change of one nucleotide causes no change in the final protein created because it encodes for the same amino acid
2. Missense Mutation- change of one nucleotide causes a substitution of one amino acid in the final protein which has effects on the protein created
3. Nonsense Mutation- change of one nucleotide causes a stop codon amino acid which terminates the production of the rest of the protein
319
What occurs in a frameshift mutation?
Nucleotides are added or deleted from the mRNA which shifts the reading frame translation into amino acids
320
What is the difference between insertion and translocation mutations at the chromosomal level?
Insertion- occur when a segment of DNA from one chromosome is inserted into another
Translocation- occur when chromosomes exchange segments of DNA
321
If two genes are far apart then what is more likely to occurr?
Crossing Over (higher recombination frequency)
322
If two genes are 25 map units (centimorgans) apart the how likely is it for them to cross over?
25%
323
What are the two hardy Weinberg equations?
p + q = 1
p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1
