Biology Finals Review Flashcards
questions from bio tests (137 cards)
1
Q
what is the full name of DNA?
A
Deoxyribonucleic Acid
2
Q
segments of DNA which code for specific proteins are called __________
A
nucleotides
3
Q
DNA may coil and condense into visible structures called ___________.
A
helixes
4
Q
What two nitrogenous bases are purines?
A
adenine and guanine
5
Q
what 2 nitrogenous bases are pyrimidines?
A
cytosine and thymine
6
Q
adenine always pairs with __________
A
thymine
7
Q
guanine always pairs with __________
A
cytosine
8
Q
what chemical bond holds the nitrogenous base pairs together?
A
hydrogen bonds
9
Q
the rungs or steps of the ladder would be the _____________
A
nitrogenous bases
10
Q
the sides of the ladder would be ____________
A
the sugar phosphate backbone
11
Q
what enzyme unzips the DNA molecule?
A
Helicase
12
Q
what enzyme builds the new DNA strands using the original strands as templates?
A
DNA polymerase
13
Q
DNA replicates through what process?
A
semi-conservative replication
14
Q
which of the following enzymes is not involved in DNA replication as the others?
a. helicase
b. dna polymerase
c. dna ligase
c. phosphatase
A
c. phosphatase
15
Q
What is the function of DNA polymerase III?
A
it adds single nucleotides to the growing DNA strands.
16
Q
When DNA replication starts _______________.
A
the hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of 2 strands break.
17
Q
the elongation of the leading strand during DNA synthesis ____________.
A
occurs in the 3’-5’ direction
18
Q
eukaryotes differ from prokaryotes in the mechanisms of DNA replication due to _______________.
A
having telomeres at the end of DNA
19
Q
which of the following enzymes remove supercoiling in replicating DNA ahead of the replication?
A
topoisomerase
20
Q
when does DNA replication occur during the cell cycle?
A
S phase
21
Q
DNA replication in prokaryotes occurs in the ____________, and due to their circular DNA the enzyme __________ is not needed as seen in eukaryotes due to its linear double strand structure.
A
cytoplasm; telomerase
22
Q
a human cell containing 22 autosomes and a XY chromosome is ___________.
A
a somatic cell of a male
23
Q
meiosis ii is similar to mitosis in that ___________.
A
sister chromatids separate during anaphase
24
Q
metaphase of meiosis i and meiosis ii differ in that _________
A
homologous chromosome line up in meiosis i and duplicated chromosomes line up in meiosis ii
25
a gamete cell of an alligator has 16 chromosomes. What is the total number of chromosomes that should be present in a stomach cell of the same alligator?
32 chromosomes
26
compared to the # of chromosomes contained in a body cell, how many chromosomes would normally be contained in a gamete?
half as many chromosomes
27
both male and female gametes are created during the process of meiosis. the formation of male gametes or sperm is called spermatogenesis. After telophase ii of spermatogenesis, there would be ____________ male gametes created that are all genetically __________.
4; different/unique
28
germ cells in humans contain ______ chromosomes and an example is _______
23; sperm cells
29
during which phase of meiosis does the nuclear membrane reform around chromosomes?
telophase ii
30
at which stage of meiosis do chromatids separate and become daughter chromosomes?
anaphase ii
31
the process in which haploid gametes are formed in diploid organisms is called__________.
meiosis
32
a human cell containing 44 autosomes and two x chromosomes is ____________?
a somatic cell of a female
33
which cells of the human body are made through the process of meiosis?
gametes
34
the fertilized egg of a human containes how many chromosomes?
46 chromosomes
35
which 2 cells would be more genetically similar to each other?
a. 2 gametes made by the same person
b. 2 somatic cells made by the same person
c. 2 eggs made by the same woman
d. 2 sperm cells produced by the same man
b. 2 somatic cells made by the same person
36
which of the following happens when a cell divides?
a. the cells volume increases
b. it becomes more difficult for the cell to get rid of wastes
c. each daughter cell recieves its own copy of the parent cells dna
d. it becomes more difficult for the cell to get enough oxygen and nutrients
c. each daughter cell receives its own copy of the parent cells's DNA
37
the process by which a cell divides into 2 daughter cells is called
mitosis
38
an advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that sexual reproduction __________.
provides genetic diversity
39
when during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?
only during cell division
40
during normal mitotic cell division, a parent cell that has 4 chromosomes will produce 2 daughter cells, each containing __________.
4 chromosomes
41
which pair includes a phase of the cell cycle and a cellular process that occurs during that phase?
a. G1 phase, DNA replication
b. G2 phase, preparation for mitosis
c. S phase, cell division
d. M phase, cell growth
b. G2 phase, preparation for mitosis
42
when during the cell cycle is a cell's DNA replicated?
S phase
43
which event occurs during interphase?
a. the cytoplasm divides
b. centrioles duplicate
c. spindle fibers begin to form
d. centromeres divide
b. centrioles duplicate
44
which of the following is a correct statement about the events of the cell cycle?
a. little happens during the G1/2 phases
b. DNA replicates during the cytokinesis
c. the M phase is usually the longest phase
d. interphase consists of the G1, S phase, and G2 phases
d. interphase consists of the G1, S phase, and G2 phases
45
During Mitosis, how many times does a cell divide?
once
46
how many new cells does the cell cycle create?
2 new cells
47
when during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?
only during cell division
48
what structure forms in prophase which helps the chromosomes move?
spindle fibers
49
which phase of the cell cycle is characterized by a non dividing cell?
interphase
50
what is the period of cell growth and development between mitotic divisions?
interphase
51
during what phase of mitosis do centromeres divide and the chromosomes move toward their opposite poles?
anaphase
52
in a chromosome pair connected by a centromere, what is each individual chromosome called?
a chromatid
53
offspring produced during asexual reproduction are ___________ to their parents.
identical
54
a typical human cell contains 46 chromosomes. after mitosis and cytokinesis, each of the two new cells formed from the original cell have how many chromosomes?
23 chromosomes
55
compared to the number of chromosomes contained in a body cell, how many chromosomes would normally be contained in a gamete?
half as many
56
the principles of probablity can be used to_____
predict the traits of the offspring of genetic crosses
57
roan cattle show co dominance for the color of their hair. there are alleles for red hair and white hair. what would you expect a heterozugous roan bull to look like if the trait showed incomplete dominance instead.
it would be pink
58
if a homozygous dominant tall plant (TT) is crossed with a homozygous recessive short plant(Tt), if F1 pea plants are allowed to self-pollinate, ________
all of the offspring will be tall
59
in rabbits, there are four different versions of the gene for coat color. What pattern of inheritance is this?
multiple alleles
60
situations in which one allele for a gene is not completely dominant over another allele for that gene are called _________
incomplete dominance
61
when Gregor Mendel crossed a tall plant with a short plant, the F1 plants inherited ________
one allele from each parent
62
what principle states that during gamete formation genes for different traits separate without influencing each other's inheritance?
principle of independent assortment
63
if a pea plant has a recessive allele for green peas it will produce________
green peas if it does not also have a dominant allele for yellow peas
64
a breed of chicken shows codominance for feather color. one allele codes for black feathers, another codes for white feathers. the feathers of heterozygous chickens of this breed will be _____
speckled
65
if a heterozygous pea plant is crossed with a homozygous recessive pea plant, the probability that an F2 plant will be tall is what?
50%
66
if a pea plant's alleles for height are homozygous recessive (rr) what is true of its parents?
both parents contributed a recessive allele
67
in the P generation, a tall plant was crossed with a short plant. short plants reappeared in the F2 generation bc ___________
the alleles for both heights segregated when the F1 plants made gametes
68
if a heterozygous dihybrid is crossed with a heterozygous dihybrid, the gene for pea shape and the gene for pea color
a. assort independently
b. are linked
c. have the same alleles
d. are always homozygous
a. assort independently
69
each pea-plant has how many alleles for the height gene?
2
70
red hair and freckles are commonly inherited together. which of the following patterns of inheritance explains this?
a. multiple genes
b. linked genes
c. incomplete dominance
d. codominance
b. linked genes
71
variation in human skin color is an example of ______
polygenic traits
72
if two parents have blood type AB and blood type O, what are all the possible phenotypes of their offspring?
A and B
73
what is the predicted phenotypic ratios if two plants are mated that are both heterozygous for both traits?
9:3:3:1
74
if two parents with dominant phenotypes produce an offspring with a recessive phenotype, then probably ___________
both parents are heterozygous
75
which of mendel's laws states that organisms inherit two copies of each gene and donate only one copy to each of their offspring?
law of segregation
76
the form of the gene that is always expressed if present is the ______ form
dominant
77
which of mendels laws BEST explains why an organism with a heterozygous genotype will show a dominant phenotype?
a. law of dominance
b. law of segregation
c. law of independent assortment
a. law of dominance
78
2 parents have the genotype Gg for a genetic disorder caused by a recessive allele. What is the chance that any of their children will inherit the disorder?
25%
79
if the tall F1 plants are allowed to self-pollinate,
a.the offspring will be tall or short
b.the offspring will be of medium height
c.all of the offspring will be short
d. all of the offspring will be tall
the offspring will be tall or short
80
if a homozygous dominant tall plant is crossed with a heterozygous plant, which of the following is true about the offspring resulting from the cross?
all are expected to be tall
81
which statement below BEST summarizes the role of the DNA molecule in cells?
a. guides cell division
b. protects cells from infection
c. provides the instructions for making proteins
d. it strings together two complementary DNA strands
c. provides the instructions for making proteins
82
During transcription, what does mRNA do?
it delivers DNA's instructions for making proteins
83
which is an accurate description of the processes used to turn the DNA code of a gene into a protein?
a. trna molecules carry the messenger rna to the ribosome
b.ribosomes go into the nucleus to read off the genes in the DNA
c. trna delivers specific amino acids to the ribosome, matching messenger RNA codons
c. trna delivers specific amino acids to the ribosome, matching messenger RNA codons
84
the sequence of ___________ in a dna molecule determines the protein that will be produced.
nucleotides
85
what is the most abundant type of rna?
rrna
86
in an experimental situation, a student researcher inserts an mrna molecule into an eukaryotic cell after he has removed its %' cap and poly (A) tail. which of the following would you expect him to find?
a. the mrna couldnt exit the nucleus to be translated
b. the molecules attatch to a ribosome and is translated but more slowly
c. the cell recognizes the absence of the tail
d. the molecule is digested by cellular enzymes
d. the molecule is digested by cellular enzymes
87
what are the coding segments of a stretch of eukaryotic dna called?
exons
88
transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following in addition to RNA polymerase?
a. the protein product of the promoter
b. start and stop codons
c. ribosomes and trna
d. several transcription factors
b. start and stop codons
89
rna polymerase moves in which direction along DNA?
5'-3' along the double-stranded DNA
90
a particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is AAA. the anticodon on the trna that binds tne mrna codon is_______
AAA
91
a frameshift mutation could result from _______
either an insertion or deletion of a base
92
what do nucleosomes inhibit?
rna polymerase
93
proteins that block passage of rna polymerase are called:
repressors
94
which type of rna brings the information in the genetic code from the nucleus to other parts of the cell?
mrna
95
which of the following are found in both dna and rna?
a. ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine
b.deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine
c. phosphate groups, guanine and thymine
d. phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine
d. phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine
96
which of the following best describes epigenetics?
a. the study of genetic mutations
b.the study of genetic variation
c. the study of heritable changes in gene expression w/o changes in dna sequence
d. the study of dna replication
c. the study of heritable changes in gene expression w/o changes in dna sequence
97
which is not part of the lac operon?
a. represor
b. activator protein
c. operator
d. promoter
e. structural gene
a. represor
98
in eukaryotes:
a. transcription takes places in the cytoplasm, and translation takes place in the nucleus
b.transcription takes places in the nucleus, and translation takes place in the cytoplasm
c.transcription and translation both take place in the cytoplasm
d. transcription and translation both take place in the nucleus
b.transcription takes places in the nucleus, and translation takes place in the cytoplasm
99
which molecules are involved in protein synthesis?
a. mrna, rrna, trna
b. mrna, introns, rrna
c. trna introns mutagens
d. rrna trna mutagens
a. mrna, rrna, trna
100
during eukaryotic transcription, an rna molecule is formed that is ________ ( complementary, identical, double stranded etc)
complementary to part of one strand of dna
101
what is produced during transcription?
rna molecules
102
in an operon the location of the regulatory region occurs ______ the structural genes.
a. after
b. within
c. before
c. before
103
the assembly of transcription factros on a promoter begins some 25 nucleotides upstream where it binds to a start ________ sequence
a. ATAT
b. AATT
c.TTAA
d.TAAT
e.TATA
e.TATA
104
which of the following is an example of an epigenetic mark associated with gene activation?
a. acetylation of histones
b. methylation of dna
c. methylation of histone
d. deacetylation of histones
a. acetylation of histones
105
your bone cells, muscle cells, and skin cells look different because _____
different genes are active in each kind of cell
106
what features of the dna fragment causes it to move through a gel during electrophoresis?
the electrical charges of its phosphate groups
107
after a gel electrophoresis procedure is run the pattern of bars in the gel shows:
the presence of various -sized fragments of dna
108
the O2 carrying capacity of a sickle red blood cell is :
decreased
109
individuals that are homozygous for a sickle hemoglobin can experience many symptoms such as:
a.fevers
b. chills
c. jaundice
d. dehydration
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
110
a(n)________ lacks a nuclues
red blood cell
111
the 2 protective mechanisms of the 1st and 2nd lines of defense are:
inflammation and fever
112
innate immunity consiste of the 1st and 2nd lines of defense. 1 characteristic of innate immunity is "local" effect. which part of the 1st or 2nd line of defense has a "systemic" effect rather than a local effect.
fever
113
the "acid mantle" of the skin"
inhibits bacterial growth
114
mucous membranes are found in the human body:
a. lines internal openings
b. nasal cavity, oral cavity, digestive system, respiratory system, urinary system, reproductive system
c. lines eternal openings
d. both b and c
d. both b and c
115
lysosomes are_____
membrane bound organelle that contains enzymes
116
adaptive immunity consists of a group of mechanisms that leave the body with a(n)
memory of the pathogen
117
keratin is a:
protective protein
118
our skin is an excellent barrie due to one of its characteristics, dryness which aids in inhibiting bacterial growth. what are two areas on the body where the skin is moist, a more favorable enjoyment for bacterial growth.
armpit region and pubic region (groin)
119
how many types of leukocytes are there?
5
120
which of the following is not produced by the skin and mucus membranes for protection?
a. sebum, oil
b. lysosome
c. hydrochloric acid
d. acidic secretions
e. lymph fluid
e. lymph fluid
121
(immunity) which cell destroys foreign cells directly?
cytotoxic t cells
122
(immunity) which cell releases interleukins which stimulate other cells to join the immune cells?
helper t cells
123
(immunity) which cell suppress the immune response in order to prevent overactivity?
regulatory t cells
124
(immuniity) which cell recognize an antigen and starts a rapid response if the antigen is contacted again?
memory cells
125
(immunity) which cell produces antibodies when activated by antigens?
b cells
126
compared to plasma lymph contains much less ________
protein
127
which of the following is not part of the barriers the first line of defense?
a. tears
b. saliva
c. complement
d. skin
c. complement
128
which cell matures in the thymus?
t cells
129
which of the following cells are involved in innate immunity but not in adaptive immunity?
a. helper t cells
b. cytotoxic t cells
c. natural killer cells
d. b cells
e. plasma cells
c. natural killer cells
130
the cardinal signs of inflammation include of the following except:
a. redness
b. swelling
c. heat
d. fever
e. pain
d. fever
131
which of the following correctly stated the order of events in humoral immunity
1= antigen display
2= antibody secretion
3= secretion of interleukin
4= clonal selection
5= endocytosis of an antigen
a. 3-4-5-2
b.5-3-1-2-4
c.3-5-1-4-2
d. 5-3-1-4-2
e.5-1-3-4-2
e.5-1-3-4-2
132
which of the following is not one of the antibody classes
a. IgA
b.IgB
c.IgD
d.IgG
e.IgE
b.IgB
133
vaccines provide us with what type of immunity ?
artificially acquired active immunity
134
the type of immunity that a fetus derives from its mother is called what?
naturally acquired passive immunity
135
long-lived b cell clones that are capable of responding to the same antigen at a later time is called _______
memory cells
136
cells invaded by viruses release ________ to protect nearby cells and hinder further multiplication of the viruses
interferons
137
fever has the effect of doing all of the following except:
a. stimulating complement system
b. speeding up repair processes
c. increasing the metabolic rate of tissue repair
d.stimulating the liver and spleen to gather up iron and zinc
e. denaturing proteins
a. stimulating complement system
