Biopsychology Flashcards

(251 cards)

1
Q

what is biopsychology?

A

scientific study of brain and behaviour

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2
Q

what is behaviour?

A

actions, emotions, personality; products of nervous system activity

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3
Q

what is DNA?

A

deoxyribose + nitrogenous base + phosphate group

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4
Q

which bases are purines?

A

adenine, guanine

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5
Q

which bases are pyrimidines?

A

cytosine, thymine

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6
Q

what is a between subjects experimental design?

A

one group tested per condition

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7
Q

what is a within subjects experimental design?

A

the same group is tested under each condition

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8
Q

what is korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

brain damage leading to memory loss associated with thiamine defficiency

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9
Q

what is phenylketonuria?

A

mental retardation characterized by high concentrations of phenylpyruvic acid in urine

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10
Q

what is asomatognosia?

A

defficiency in awareness of one’s own body parts

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11
Q

what is the evolutionary significance of courtship displays?

A

thought to promote evolution of new species

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12
Q

what parts make the CNS?

A

brain, spinal cord

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13
Q

what is a nerve?

A

collection of axons in PNS

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14
Q

what is a tract?

A

collection of axons in CNS

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15
Q

what is a ganglion?

A

cluster of neuron cell bodies in PNS

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16
Q

what is a nucleus?

A

cluster of neuron cell bodies in CNS

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17
Q

what is the PNS divided into?

A

somatic NS, autonomic NS

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18
Q

what is the function of the somatic NS?

A

interaction with external environment, movement of skeletal muscles

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19
Q

what is the function of the autonomic NS?

A

monitoring/adjustment of internal environment

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20
Q

what is the autonomic nervous system divided into?

A

sympathetic, parasympathetic

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21
Q

what are the vertebrates of the human spine?

A

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx

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22
Q

from which spinal regions do sympathetic motor nerves project?

A

thoracic, lumbar

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23
Q

from which spinal regions do parasympathetic motor nerves project?

A

cranial, sacral

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24
Q

what is the function of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

arousal, fight or flight response, suppression of nonemergency processes

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25
what is the function of the parasympathetic nervous system?
nonemergency precesses, relaxation
26
what is the function of the olfactory nerve?
smell
27
what is the function of the optic nerve?
vision
28
what is the function of the oculomotor nerve?
eye movement, signals from eye muscles
29
what is the function of the trochlear nerve?
eye movement, signals from eye muscles
30
what is the function of the trigeminal nerve?
facial sensations, chewing, taste
31
what is the function of the abducens nerve?
eye movement and sensation
32
what is the function of the facial nerve?
taste, expression, tears, salivation, blood vessel dilation
33
what is the function of the auditory vestibular nerve?
hearing, balance
34
what is the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve?
taste, salivation, swallowing
35
what is the function of the vagus nerve?
sensation and control of abdominal, throat, thoracic organs
36
what is the function of the spinal accessory nerve?
sensation/movement of head, neck, shoulders
37
what is the function of the hypoglossal nerve?
tongue movement/sensation
38
what are the 3 meninges?
dura mater, arachinoid membrane, pia mater
39
what is the ventricular system?
4 ventricles filled with CSF made by choroid plexus and absorbed by dural sinuses in subarachinoid space
40
what are oligodendrocytes?
form myelin sheaths around axons of CNS
41
what are schwann cells?
form myelin sheaths around axons of PNS
42
what are astrocytes?
provide structural support to neurons, transfer nutrients to neurons, participate in tripartite signalling
43
what are microglia?
immunoresponse cells of CNS
44
what is the function of the dorsal roots?
receives sensory info
45
what is the function of the ventral roots?
sends motor info to targets
46
what parts make the hindbrain?
myencephalon, metencephalon
47
what parts make the myencephalon?
medulla, reticular formation
48
what parts make the metencephalon?
cerebellum, pons
49
what is the midbrain?
mesencephalon
50
what is the mesencephalon?
dorsal tectum, ventral tegmentum
51
what is the dorsal tectum?
superior, inferior colliculi
52
what is at the ventral tegmentum?
periaqueductal grey, substantial nigra, red nucleus
53
what parts make the the forebrain?
diencephalon, telencephalon
54
what is the diencephalon?
thalamus, hypothalamus
55
what is the telencephalon?
cerebral cortex and subcortical structures
56
what is the function of the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus?
vision
57
what is the function of the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus?
hearing
58
what is the function of the ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus?
somatosensation
59
what parts make the basal ganglia?
amygdala, striatum, globus pallidus
60
what parts make the limbic system?
amygdala, fornix, cingulate cortex, hippocampus, mammillary bodies
61
what is a fissure?
deep crack
62
what is a sulcus?
shallow crack
63
what is a gyrus?
area between sulci
64
what are the cerebral lobes?
frontal, temporal, occipital, parietal
65
what ions are commonly found inside neurons?
K, A
66
what ions are commonly found outside neurons?
Cl, Na
67
what is saltatory conduction?
AP transmission in myelinated axons
68
what factors maintain neuron resting potential?
balance of oppositely charged ions inside/outside cell, leaky K channels balanced by electrostatic forces, Na/K pump
69
what happens in each phase of AP generation?
leaky K channels maintain resting potential, depolarizing force brings Na in so membrane potential is -40, voltage gated Na channels open bringing in more Na, K channels open/Na close, cell hyper polarizes, all gated channels close
70
what is the process of synaptic transmission?
arrival of AP at axon terminal opens voltage gated Ca channels that bind to vesicles promoting exocytosis of NTs into synapse, NTs bind to postsynaptic receptors
71
what is the difference between PSPs and APs?
PSPs are graded and decremental responses, APs are not, PSPs last longer
72
what are the NT families?
small molecule NTs, neuropeptides, gases
73
what are the small molecule NTs?
amino acids, monoamines, Ach
74
what are the amino acid small molecule NTs?
glutamate, GABA
75
what are the monoamine small molecule NTs?
catecholamines, indolamines
76
what are the catecholamines?
monoamines derived from tyrosine; dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine
77
what are the indolamines?
monoamines derived from tryptophan; serotonin, melatonin
78
what are neuropeptides?
small AA chains that have diverse and long lasting effects when transmitted
79
what is the difference between neuropeptide and other neurotransmitter release?
neuropeptides released gradually, NTs released in pulses
80
how are NTs transported in cells?
microtubules that move 40 cm/ day
81
what are endocannabinoids?
NT group that is released from dendrites to inhibit further transmission from presynaptic neurons, produced immediately before released; e.g. anandamide
82
what are ionotropic receptors?
voltage gated channels with fast acting but short lived effects
83
what are metabotropic receptors?
GPCRs that trigger channel openings, slow acting, long lasting effects
84
what is a Nissl stain?
use of cresyl violet to stain cell bodies to view nuclei and cortical layers
85
what is a golgi stain?
use of silver chromate to dye full neurons to view silhouette in great detail
86
what do fluorescent proteins do?
use them to visually label proteins/genes to see where they go > like a coloured golgi stain, can label different neurons different colours
87
what is immunohistochemistry?
use of antibodies to radio-label and detect molecules
88
what is in situ hybridization?
tag mRNA with chemicals to detect where they are being produced
89
what are techniques for brain imaging?
x-ray, CT, MRI
90
what are techniques for recording brain activity?
PET, fMRI, EEG, invasive
91
what is the sagittal plane?
plane in the direction of cutting between the two hemispheres
92
what is the process of hearing?
sound vibrations arrive at middle ear, cause tymp. membrane to vibrate, causes vibration of ossicles, vibration amplified through oval window into cochlea where mechanical stress on stereo cilia opens hair cell ion channels, causing NT release and AP firing from auditory nerve
93
what are 2 classes of hearing impairment?
damage to ossicles, damage to cohlea
94
how does a cochlear implant work?
changes sound signal into electrical impulse so that cochlea can be bypassed
95
what are the semicircular canals?
receptive organs of vestibular system also innervate auditory nerve
96
how is sound perceived?
signal from auditory nerve decussates at superior olives to inferior colliculus, then the medial geniculate nucleus of thalamus, to primary auditory cortex, secondary for salient sounds
97
where are localization of sounds understood?
lateral/medial superior olives
98
what is stereognosis?
identification of objects by touch
99
what are the dermatomes?
shoulders/neck/arms, cervical; arms/trunk, thoracic; legs, lumbar; heels/genitals, sacral
100
what sensations are received by free nerve endings/nociceptors?
pain, temperature
101
what sensations are received by merkel's discs?
pressure
102
what sensations are received by meisner's corpuscle?
light touch
103
what sensations are received by hair follicle receptors?
touch
104
what sensations are received by pacinian corpuscles?
vibration
105
what sensations are received by ruffini's endings?
stretch
106
how is touch sensed?
mechanical stress of receptor cells allows ion channels to open, generate AP, and propagate to corresponding dermatome at spinal cord
107
how is non-painful touch perceived?
dorsal column lemniscus pathway
108
how is pain perceived?
anterolateral pathway
109
what is the dorsal column lemniscus pathway?
sensory axon enters dorsal horn of spinal cord, goes to medulla, innervates dorsal column nuclei and decussates, goes to ventral posterior thalamus, then somatosensory cortex
110
what is the anterolateral pathway?
sensory axons synapse at dorsal horn, decussates, innervates nuclei at superior colliculus and reticular formation goes to thalamus/cortex
111
what is the function of the ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus?
relays somatosensory information from body and trigeminal nerve for facial sensation
112
what is neuropathic pain?
severe chronic pain in absence of recognizable stimulus
113
what is the pain suppression/control circuit?
anterolateral pathway to serotonergic raphe nuclei of medulla which excite signals back down the spinal cord to inhibit subsequent incoming pain signals
114
what is anosognosia?
failure of neuropsychological patients to recognize their own symptoms
115
where is the primary somatosensory cortex?
postcentral gyrus of parietal lobe
116
what is the name of the primary somatosensory cortex?
somatosensory homunculus
117
what is the process of smell sensation?
airborne chemicals bind to specific receptors in mucous membrane of nasal cavity, activating GPCRs that open Na, Ca, and Cl channels, Ca influx causes eflux of Cl generating an AP, mitral cells synapse on olfactory nerve at terminus in glomeruli of olfactory bulb
118
how is smell perceived?
olfactory bulb innervates olfactory nerve leading to the olfactory cortex and subcortical structures (amygdala, piriform cortex), then goes to orbitofrontal cortex and medial dorsal thalamic nucleus
119
how is saltiness/sourness taste sensed?
Na/H concentration determines saltiness or sourness by ions entering amiloride sensitive channels, then opening Ca channels and releasing NTs
120
how is sweetness sensed?
chemicals enter through T1R2, T1R3 channels
121
how is umami sensed?
chemicals enter through T1R1, T1R3 channels
122
how is bitterness sensed?
chemicals enter through any of 30 different T2R channels
123
how is taste perceived?
NTs innervate facial, vagus, glossopharyngeal nerves and innervate solitary nucleus of medulla, project to ventral posterior thalamic nucleus then primary gustatory cortex
124
where is the primary gustatory cortex?
insula, deep in lateral fissure of temporal lobe
125
where is the secondary gustatory cortex?
prefrontal cortex
126
what is anosmia?
inability to smell
127
what is ageusia?
inability to taste
128
what is apraxia?
difficulty making specific movements on command but not in real situations
129
what is contralateral neglect?
posterior parietal lobe damage causing a reduced ability to respond to stimuli contralateral to the lesioned area
130
what is the voluntary movement motor circuit?
association cortex, secondary cortex, direct or indirect basal ganglia thalamic circuit
131
what is the direct basal ganglia thalamic circuit?
striatum inhibits globus pallidus interna so that it cannot inhibit ventrolateral thalamus
132
what is the indirect basal ganglia thalamic circuit?
globus pallidus externa inhibits inhibition of globus pallidus interna from striatum
133
what is the basal ganglia thalamic circuit doing at rest?
no commands from the secondary motor cortex allow globes pallidus interna to inhibit ventrolateral thalamus to suppress involuntary movement
134
what are the spinal cord motor pathways?
dorsolateral; distal muscles, limbs and ventromedial; trunk and postural movement
135
what are the tracts of the dorsolateral pathway?
corticospinal for intricate movement, corticurubrospinal for arm, leg, face movement
136
what is the dorsolateral corticospinal tract?
direct synapse to spinal cord motor neurons that decussate through medullary pyramid
137
what is the dorsolateral corticorubrospinal tract?
cortical axons synaps at red nucleus and decussate then descend through medulla, synapse at motor neurons of spinal cord or brain stem if facial movement
138
what are the tracts of the ventromedial pathway?
corticospinal and cortico brainstem spinal
139
what is the ventromedial corticospinal tract?
axons branch bilaterally on multiple spinal segments
140
what is the ventromedial corticobrainstem spinal tract?
axons synapse at brainstem structures then interneurons of multiple spinal segments
141
how do spinal motor neurons send APs to muscles?
through ventral roots
142
what is the molecular process of muscle contraction?
Ach binding causes Ca release from sarcoplasmic reticulum, Ca binds to troponin which pulls tropomyosin and exposes myosin binding sites so that myosin can bind and pull actin
143
how does the stretch reflex work?
increased tension at the golgi tendon organ causes sensory neurons to fire and stimulate inhibitory motor neurons at the spinal cord and decrease muscle contraction
144
how does the pain reflex work?
pain signal sent to spinal cord via nociceptor fibres, synapse at excitatory and inhibitory neurons simultaneously to stimulate flexor muscles and movement away from painful stimulus
145
what happens during fertilization?
sperm reaches egg and releases enzyme to break down zona pellucida, head breaks off into egg, nucleus enlarges and fuses with egg nucleus producing a zygote
146
what happens at day 6 after fertilization?
zygote has transformed into morula and then blastocyst
147
what happens at day 7 after fertilization?
blastocyst embeds into uterine lining
148
what happens at day 9 after fertilization?
inner cell mass of blastocyst forms blastodisc
149
what are the layers of the blastodisc?
epiblast, hypoblast
150
what happens during gastrulation?
epiblast cells migrate along primitive streak to inside of embryo to establish 3 layers
151
what are the 3 layers established during gastrulation?
ectoderm - skin, nervous system; endoderm - Gi tract, respiratory tract, endocrine glands; mesoderm - blood, muscle, bone
152
what happens at day 18 after fertilization?
formation of neural plate; patch of ectoderm cells that will become nervous system
153
what happens at day 20 after fertilization?
formation of neural tube
154
what happens at day 22 after fertilization?
cavity inside neural tube becomes cerebral ventricles, neural crest cells become dorsal root ganglia
155
what happens at day 24 after fertilization?
anterior neural tube enlarges to form hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain and continued neural tube development
156
describe the proliferation of neural tube cells.
neural tube develops into 3 zones divided into 2 groups, marginal and ventricular; dividing cells travel back and forth between marginal and ventricular, asymmetrical division leaves neurons in ventricular zone to build 6 layers of forebrain
157
what is tangential migration?
migration of proliferating neural tube cells/new neurons around the neural tube
158
what is radial migration?
migration of proliferating neural tube cells/new neurons across width of neural tube using radioglia for mechanical support
159
where are new neurons formed during adult neurogenesis?
new olfactory cells created from stem cells in sub ventricular zone of lateral ventricles; new hippocampal granule cells created in dentate gyrus
160
what are the symptoms of autism?
reduced empathy and capacity for social interaction, preoccupation with one thing/activity, minor ear structure anomalies
161
how is autism diagnosed?
almost always apparent by 3 years because of delayed language and social interaction
162
what are the symptoms of william's syndrome?
low IQ, empathetic, social, talkative but small vocabulary, high musical ability, low visual/spatial ability, "elfish" features
163
what is the cause of william's syndrome?
missing regions of one copy of chromosome 7
164
what is aggregation?
formation of local nuclei/layers by neurons with similar biochemical properties helped by cell adhesion molecules
165
how do pioneer axons grow?
growth cones at axon terminals allow for filopodia-like movement, following guidance molecules made by guide post cells
166
what is fasciculation?
tendency of axons to grow along paths of pioneer axons and create axon bundles (fascicles)
167
what are neutrophins?
life preserving chemicals supplied to neurons by target cells
168
what is nerve growth factor?
promoters of survival, axon growth/guidance, synaptogenesis
169
what happens during postnatal neural development?
prefrontal cortex reaches maturity in late adolescence, synaptogenesis/increased dendrite branching during first 2 years, myelination roughly follows functional development
170
what are meningiomas?
tumours that grow between meninges, less dangerous because encapsulated
171
what are infiltrating tumours?
brain tumours that grow diffusely through surrounding tissue
172
what are gliomas?
tumours of glial cells
173
what are common consequences of strokes?
amnesia, aphasia, paralysis, coma
174
what is an infarct?
dead or dying tissue caused by a stroke
175
what is the penumbra?
dysfunctional tissue area surrounding infarct
176
what is an aneurysm?
pathological dilation in artery wall with defective plasticity
177
what is cerebral ischemia?
disruption of blood supply to brain
178
what is an embolism?
blockage carried from one area to a smaller area where it becomes lodged
179
what is a stroke?
blood vessels blocked causing neurons to become over-active and release excessive amounts of glutamate eventually killing the neuron and spreading the stimulation
180
what is a contusion?
damage to cerebral circulatory system producing hemorrhage and hematoma
181
what is punch drunk syndrome?
dementia, cerebral scarring observed in people who have experienced multiple concussions
182
what is encephalitis?
invasion of brain by microorganisms and resulting in inflammation
183
what is a cerebral abcess?
pocket of pus in brain
184
what are neuropathological consequences of syphilis?
general paresis in dormant stage before attacking
185
what is general paresis?
insanity/dementia
186
what are the two types of viral infections?
ones that directly attack the brain, ones that have no affinity for the brain but can attack it if they spread there
187
what is toxic psychosis?
chronic insanity produced by exposure to neurotoxin
188
what is tardive dyskinesia?
involuntary smacking/sucking of lips, thrusting/rolling of tongue, lateral jaw movement, puffing of cheeks; as a result of antipsychotic drug treatment
189
what is epilepsy?
disorder with seizures as primary symptoms caused by chronic brain dysfunction, has many diverse causes
190
what are epileptic auras?
sensation felt before seizure that can help tell what part of the brain is starting the seizure and help tell when a seizure is coming
191
what is a simple partial seizure?
partial seizure of sensorimotor system
192
what is a complex partial seizure?
seizure restricted to temporal lobes that cause patient to engage in automatisms
193
what is a tonic-clonic seizure?
seizure causing convulsions and loss of consciousness and potential hypoxia
194
what is an absence seizure?
seizure that causes a disruption (not necessarily loss of) consciousness
195
what is parkinson's disease?
degradation of substantial nigra during middle-old age with no single cause
196
what is huntington's disease?
rare progressive motor disorder associated with severe dementia caused by single dominant mutation at huntingtin gene, characterized early by increased fidgeting/uncontrolled movement
197
what is multiple sclerosis?
progressive degeneration of myelin sheaths until axons are dysfunctional and hard scar tissue develops in CNS, caused by an autoimmune disorder where body attacks its own myelin
198
what is ataxia?
loss of motor coordination
199
what is alzheimer's disease?
most common cause of dementia characterized by neurofibrillary tangles, amyloid plaques, small lesions from micro bleeds
200
what are the 3 phases of energy metabolism?
cephalic, absorptive, fasting
201
what is a physical signal of hunger?
volume of food in stomach (constriction or stretching of stomach can affect positive incentive of more food)
202
what is peptide YY?
satiety signal released by intestine, inhibits AgRP to acutely decrease feeding
203
what is ghrelin?
satiety signal secreted by stomach wall during fasting phase, stimulates AgRP to cause acute increase in feeding
204
what is insulin?
secreted by pancreas, simultaneously stimulates POMC and inhibits AgRP to acutely decrease feeding
205
what is leptin?
released from adipose cells, simultaneously stimulate POMC and inhibits AgRP to cause chronic feeding decrease and give information on body's fat stores
206
what is the lateral hypothalamus?
appetite stimulating structure
207
what is the paraventricular nucleus?
appetite suppressing structure
208
what is the arcuate nucleus?
appetite regulating structure; POMC inhibits appetite, AgRP stimulates appetite
209
what is the solitary tract?
where gustatory info and feeding regulation meet
210
what is alpha melanocyte stimulating hormone?
gut satiety peptide of the melanocortin family
211
what is the function of gonads?
produce gametes, sex hormones
212
what is the anterior pituitary?
secretes hormones that stimulate release of endocrine gland hormone
213
what are the gonadotropic hormones?
follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone
214
what is the process of gonadal hormone regulation?
medial preoptic hypothalamus secreted GnRH to the anterior pituitary, which releases FSH, LH, which travel to ovaries/testes causing sex hormone release and negative feedback loop
215
what is the primordial gonad?
gonad precursor that develops from mesoderm at 6 weeks past fertilization
216
what are the primordial reproductive ducts?
wolffian system (male), mullerian system (female)
217
what are the parts of the primordial gonads?
cortex (potential ovaries), medulla (potential testes)
218
what is the process of male development?
Y chromosome causes sry protein synthesis which causes primordial gonad to develop into testes that will secrete testosterone and anti-mullerian hormone that respectively promote external male genitalia growth and inhibit mullein system/female genitalia growth
219
what is the function of cortical activation for sex?
cortical activation leads to complex aspects of sexual behaviour
220
what is the function of the ventral striatum?
associated with anticipation/expectation of sexual/pleasurable activity
221
what is the function of the amygdala for sex?
helps identify others as possible mates
222
what is androgen insensitivity syndrome?
XY individuals with mutated/defective androgen receptors causing normal male internal development but testes stay in abdomen and external female genitalia present
223
what is congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
XX individuals with overgrown adrenal glands that release higher levels of testosterone causing normal internal female development but an intersex genitalia appearance and late onset menstruation
224
what are treatments for congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
surgery, cortisol injections inhibiting testosterone
225
what is the suprachiasmatic hypothalamic nucleus?
biological clock that gets info from specialized retinal ganglion cells but has clock like metabolic activity even without light cues
226
what are the mammalian circadian rhythm genes?
clock, tau, per, cry; go through rhythmic transcription/translation feedback loops
227
what is the circadian protein feedback loop?
clock/cycle proteins form dimer that acts as transcription factor for cry/per genes which make cry/per protein complex that destroys clock/cycle protein dimer (neg. feedback cycle)
228
what is brain wave activity like when fully awake?
beta waves, 13-30Hz, low amplitude high frequency
229
what brain waves are associated with sleep stage 1?
alpha waves
230
what brain waves are associated with sleep stage 2?
alpha waves with sleep spindles and K complexes
231
what brain waves are associated with sleep stages 3, 4?
delta waves
232
what is REM?
sleep state with brain waves similar to awake state but with low muscle tone and rapid eye movements
233
what happens to sleep cycles as people age?
loss of time spent in stages 3, 4
234
what structures regulate sleep/wakefulness?
hypothalamus, reticular formation (muscle atonia), basal forebrain (choline), tuberomammillary nucleus (histamine)
235
what is hypocretin?
NT released from hypothalamus required for wakefulness
236
what is narcolepsy?
loss of hypocretin producing neurons causing quickly induced REM sleep/cataplexy at inappropriate times
237
what are methods of taking drugs?
oral ingestion, subcutaneous/intramuscular/intravenous injection, inhalation, absorption
238
what are examples of stimulants?
cocaine, amphetamines, nicotine, caffeine
239
what does cocaine do?
blocks dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin reuptake
240
what do amphetamines do?
stimulate dopamine/norepinephrine release, inhibit monoamine oxidase at high doses
241
what does nicotine do?
enhances release of a variety of NTs and opens nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (agonist)
242
what are examples of depressants?
opiates, alcohol, benzodiazepines
243
what do opiates do?
act on mu, lambda, k receptors in nucleus accumbens, PAG, spinal cord
244
what are the endogenous opioids?
endorphins, enkephalins, dynorphins
245
what are the sedative hypnotics/anxiolytics?
barbituates, alcohol, benzodiazepines
246
what do alcohol/benzodiazepines do?
bind to modulary sites on GABAa receptor causing ion channels to staty open longer, let in more Cl, allow for further hyper polarization
247
what are examples of hallucinogens?
cannabinoids, monoamine related substances, dissociative anaesthetics
248
what does marijuana do?
acts on cannabinoid receptors (CB1 in CNS and CB2 in PNS) which are inhibitory GPCRs
249
what is contingent drug tolerance?
tolerance gained only to effects previously experienced
250
what is conditioned drug tolerance?
tolerance to drug only if taken under same conditions
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what is the mesotelencephalic dopamine system?
substantia nigra and ventral tegmentum neurons that project to the cortex, basal ganglia, limbic sites, and nucleus accumbens; pleasure/reward system; target system of stimulants