Biopsychology Flashcards

1
Q

How long is a infradian biorhythm?

A

More than 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How long is a circadian bio-rhythm?

A

Around 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How long is a ultradian bio-rhythm?

A

Less than 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does the sympathetic branch do in the nervous system?

A

readies the body for action - flight or fight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does the para-sympathetic branch do in the nervous system?

A

calms the body down ‘rest and digest’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

where is the antagonist in the nervous system?

A

in the autonomic nervous system between the sympathetic and para-sympathetic branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the central nervous system?

A

brain: complex commands/decisions

spinal cord: brain pns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the peripheral nervous system?

A

relays information to and from the outside world, glands and muscels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the two parts of the nervous system?

A

peripheral and central

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the two parts of the peripheral nervous system?

A

autonomic nervous system and somatic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does the autonomic nervous system do?

A

transmits information between bodily organs and the brain. controls smooth and cardiac muscles, glands and fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does the somatic nervous system do?

A

transmits informations from receptors to CNS, and from the CNS to the muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the two parts of the somatic nervous system?

A

sensory (sensory information)

motor (efferent) nervous system e.g skeleton musccels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are receptors?

A

sensory structures detecting changes in internal and external environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are effectors?

A

target organs which change in response to neural commands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the four lobes of the cerebral cortex?

A

perietal, frontal, temporal and occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does the frontal lobe control?

A

problem solving, emotions and speaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what does the temporal lobe control?

A

language, auditory and memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what does the parietal lobe control?

A

sensation and pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does the occipital lobe control?

A

vision, colour and perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the amygdala?

A

an almond shaped structure in the temporal lobe that plays a central role in emotion and stimulus evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the hippocampus

A

a structure in the temporal lobe involved in longterm and spatial memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the pre-central gyrus

A

site of the primary motor cortex, which plans, controls and executes voluntary actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the post-central gyrus

A

the sight of the somato sensory, which represents tactile (touch) sensory information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is tactile information?

A

touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what does pre-central gyrus damage cause?

A

loss of muscle function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what does post-central gyrus damage cause?

A

difficulty in touch identification of objects and difficulty labelling parts of your own body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is collateral forebrain?

A

when the opposite hemisphere of the Brian influences the opposite side of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what does Broca’s area control?

A

language production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is aphasia?

A

inability to comprehend or formulate language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is hemispheric lateralisation?

A

some mental processes are localised inanely one hemisphere of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

when does aphasia occur?

A

damage to language process regions of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

who is an example of damage to Broca’s area?

A

Mr. Loborgne could understand language but not produce it. it could only sat “tan”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is Wernwicks area important for?

A

language comprehension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the effects of damage to Wernwicks area?

A

difficultlu understanding language, effortless grammatical speech that lacks meaning/context.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what was Sperry’s study in 1968

A

Sperry attempted to localise actions to each side of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the advantages of Sperry’s brain localisation study

A

he had a control group
set in a lab so hard a standardised environment so it increases the internal validity
no deception so its completely ethical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the disadvantage of Sperry’s brain localisation study

A

difficult to generalise as the study had only 11 participants, its a small sample size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

who are the two theorists related to linguistic lateralisation

A

Eric Lenneberg and Denis + Whitikar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is Eric lennebergs theory of linguistic lateralisation

A

the two hemispheres are developed to control linguistics but eventually the left side takes control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is Denis and Whitikars theory of linguistic lateralisation

A

the let side of the brain is developed to control linguistics however if damaged the right hand side may take over - the younger the patient the more likely they will recover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is brain plasticity

A

the brains ability to adapt and modify its structure and function as a result of experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are the disadvantages of Dennis and Whitikars theory of linguistic lateralisation

A

small sample size

changes in the brain may be due to epilepsy

44
Q

what is the Wada test by Juan Wada

A

injected a central nervous system depressant into the left or right internal carotid artery
to send either side of the brain to sleep
they tested the asleep hemisphere by an EEG
language and memory function is then tested
after the aesthetics is worn off the participants are asked to recall what they were shown
then repeated on other side of brain
96% of the pps speech represented on the left and only 4% on the right

45
Q

what is an advantage of of the Wada test

A

a very large sample of 140 so its very easy to generalise

46
Q

what is a disadvantage of the Wada test

A

order effects may impact. the results as they have to repeat the tests

47
Q

what is the language lateralisation (auditory) test by Doreen kimura 1973

A

places headphones onto a subject and two separate words are played through each ear.
participants are asked to repeat what they heard.
participants consistently heard the word through the right ear
showing that there is a preference to process information closer to the language area of the brain

48
Q

what is an advantage of the language lateralisation (auditory) test

A

has a large sample size so can be generalised

49
Q

what is a disadvantage of the language lateralisation (auditory) test

A

this is an assumption so cannot be proved

50
Q

what is Doreen Kimura study in 1964 about hand gestures

A

videotaped participants while talking and recorded their hand gestures
gestures are more likely to be made with the right hand rather than the left
this supports lateralisation as gesturing serves a communication function likely to be made with the hand contralateral to language function

51
Q

what are the advantages of Doreen Kimura study about hand gestures

A

has a large sample size so can be generalised meaning the study is externally valid
ethical as no harm or distress
easy to repeat the study

52
Q

what are the disadvantages of Doreen Kimuras study about hand gestures

A

a confounding variable could be the reason for more hand gestures from the right hand

53
Q

what does parasympathetic branch entail

A
constricts pupils 
decreased heart rate
decreased breathing rate 
recreation of tear glands 
stimulates digestion 
relaxes rectum
54
Q

what does the sympathetic branch entail

A
dialates pupils 
increased heart rate 
increased breathing rate 
inhabition of tear glands 
sweating 
inhibits digestion
55
Q

what is a polygraph test

A

measures heart rate, sweat and breathing rate to distinguish if someone is telling the truth

56
Q

advantages of a polygraph test

A

there is a baseline to measure everyones anxiety around there test
added evidence in law

57
Q

disadvantages of a polygraph test

A

sociopaths can convince themselves they are not lying
anxiety disorders may increase heart rate above the baseline
cannot be used to convict someone on its own
may be inconclusive

58
Q

what is a gland

A

an organ that produces and releases substances into or out of the body

59
Q

what is a hormone

A

“chemical messages” travel through the blood cell until they reach a targeted receptor

60
Q

what is the pituitary glands function

A

regulates growth and controls the endocrine glands

61
Q

what hormone does the thyroid gland release and what is the function

A

thyroxine, controls metabolism and balanced growth

62
Q

what hormone does the parathyroid gland release and what is the function

A

parathormone, controls the calcium balance

63
Q

what hormone does the adrenal gland release and what is the function

A

adrenaline, prepares the body for an emergency

64
Q

what hormone does the pancreas gland release and what is the function

A

insuline, controls glucose level in the blood

65
Q

what hormone do the testes release and what is the function

A

testosterone, controls growth and development of the males reproductive system

66
Q

what hormone do the ovaries release and what is the function

A

oestrogen and progesterone, controls growth and development for females reproductive system

67
Q

name 4 things about the endocrine system that the nervous system doesn’t have

A

uses hormones to create changes
used glands
has slow responses
uses chemicals as messages

68
Q

name 4 things about the nervous system that the endocrine system doesn’t have

A

signals come from the brain
controls motor movements
has much faster responses

69
Q

what is the cell body

A

(soma) contains the nucleus, where genetic information is stored, and all the cell organelles that normally function to keep the cell Alice

70
Q

what are dendrites

A

they branch out from the cell body, often in huge numbers, and certain the neurotransmitter receptors that receive the chemical signals transmitted by other neurons

71
Q

what is an axon

A

a long projection from the cell body that serves to carry nerve impulses away from the cell body to the axon terminals

72
Q

what are the axon terminals

A

(synaptic buttons) at the end of the branches extending from the axon furthest away from the cell body. these structures produce, store and recycle the chemical messengers responsible for the transmutation of information to other neurons

73
Q

what are the three types of neuron

A

sensory, motor and relay (interneuron)

74
Q

what does a sensory neuron do

A

carry’s messages from the PNS to the CNS

75
Q

what are the characteristics of a sensory neuron

A

long dendrites and short axons

76
Q

what does a relay neuron do

A

connects sensory, motor and other relay neurons

77
Q

what are the characteristics of a relay neuron

A

short dendrites and axons

78
Q

what does a motor neuron do

A

connects the CNS to the effectors such as muscles and glands

79
Q

what are the characteristics of a motor neuron

A

short dendrites and long axons

80
Q

what are the three parts of action potential

A

depolarisation, repolarisation and hyperpolarisation

81
Q

what is depolarisation in action potential

A

if the electrical potential reaches -50mV (threshold potential) voltage-sensitive sodium channels open allowing sodium ions to diffuse into the neuron, further increasing its electrical potenital

82
Q

what is repolarisation

A

when the neurons electrical potential reaches +40mV so that it is now more positively charged than outside the neuron, potassium channels open allowing potassium ions to diffuse out of the neuron, lowering the electrical potential

83
Q

what is hyperpolarisation

A

the neurons electrical potential drops slightly below the resting potential before potassium channels close. in this brief period before the resting potenital is re-established it requires slightly more excitation to reach the threshold potential.

84
Q

what is excitation

A

increases the positive charge of the post-synaptic neuron. this increases the likelihood that the neuron will fire

85
Q

inhabition

A

increases the negative charge of the post-synaptic neuron. this decreases the likelihood that the neuron will fire

86
Q

what is the aim of Brachman and Sahakians study about acetylcholine and memory consolidation (1979)

A

to investigate the role of acetylcholine for memory consolidation

87
Q

what is the method of Brachman and Sahakians study about acetylcholine and memory consolidation (1979)

A

the neurotransmitter blocking drug is administered
participants learn a list of words
the recall them a minute later
in that minute they completely a distraction task
performance of recall was then compared to a control group

88
Q

what were the results of Brachman and Sahakians study about acetylcholine and memory consoilidation (1979)

A

the control group recalled aproximately twice as many words as the group who took the drug

89
Q

when are the three times neuroplasticity occurs

A

at the beginning of life, through brain injury and in adulthood

90
Q

what is de lange et al study (2008) about neuroplasticity

A

MRI scans show that those with chromic fatigue syndrome show grey matter reductions in the prefrontal cortex. CBT was found to increase grey matter volume in the prefrontal cortex

91
Q

what are the negative reprecussions of neuroplasticity

A

prolonged drug use - leads to poorer cognitive functioning later in life and increases the risk of dementia
60-80% of amputees - also suffer from phantom limb syndrome where they continue to experience missing limbs as though they are still there

92
Q

what is Dannelli’s study about neuroplasticity (2013)

A

EB has a hemispherectomy at 4
after surgery he underwent an intensive rehabilitation programme
his language skills improved around the age of 5 and to the point that no problems in language abilities were reported
his right hemisphere had to compensate for the loss of the left hemisphere linguistically
he had a low IQ

93
Q

what are the individual differences of neuroplasticity

A

age

94
Q

define Fmri scans and give positive and negatives

A

Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging

cylindrical tube that houses a very strong electrical magnet which examines the brains functional anatomy e.g a stroke

95
Q

what is are the three biorhythms

A

infradian
ultradian
circadian

96
Q

what is an infradian cycle, give examples

A

is more than 24 hours long and can be weekly, monthly or yearly
menstrual cycle

97
Q

what is an ultradian cycle, give examples

A

is less than 24 hours long something that happens daily

human sleep cycle and seasonal defective disorder

98
Q

what is a circadian cycle, give examples

A

a 24 hour cycle

the sleep/wake cycle

99
Q

what is an exogenous zeitgeber

A

environmental cues that help regulate the endogenous pacemakers

100
Q

endogenous pacemakers

A

mechanisms internal to the body (biological clocks)

101
Q

what are the 6 studies about infradian rhythm

A
  • women spend 3 months in cave without natural light and there menstrual cycle decreased
  • woman’s menstrual cycles synch through other females smell
  • women want a more feminised face until they ovulate and then they prefer a masculine face
  • women in the same dormitory answered a questionnaire to see if menstrual cycle synched
  • the scent of a women with a normal period is rubbed onto a women with an abnormal period to see if the period could regulate
  • test to see if lesbian couples menstrual cycles synched
102
Q

what is stage 1 of the human sleep pattern

A

stage 1 - light sleep, muscle activity slows and occasional muscle twitching

103
Q

what is stage 2 of the human sleep pattern

A

stage 2 - breathing and hear rate slows, slight decrease in body temperature

104
Q

what is stage 3 of the human sleep pattern

A

stage 3 - deep sleep begins, brain begins to generate slow delta waves

105
Q

what is stage 4 of the human sleep pattern

A

stage 4 - very deep sleep, rhythmic breathing, limited muscle activity and the brain produces delta waves

106
Q

what is stage 5 of the human sleep pattern

A

stage 5 - rapid eye movement, brain waves speed up. and dreaming occurs, mussels relax and heart rate increases breathing is rapid and shallow