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Stuff to remember > Bitchy passmedicine questions > Flashcards

Bitchy passmedicine questions Flashcards

1
Q

People with severe renal impairment - LMWH or heparin?

A

LMWH more likely to cause really bad bleeding - give unfractioned heparin

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2
Q

Pain medications more suitable if someone has chronic kidney disease?

A

Buprenorphine, fentanyl

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3
Q

NSAIDs and warfarin?

A

BAD!!!!

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4
Q

Risk of PPIs?

A

Osteoporosis

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5
Q

What is Leiden V?

A

Factor V has mutated so not broken down by protein C

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6
Q

Which zones affected in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Lower zones

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7
Q

Most common type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Diffuse large B cell

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8
Q

What can be used to differentiate between a seizure and a pseudoseizure?

A

Prolactin

becomes elevated 10-20 minutes after a real seizure

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9
Q

Varenicline mechanism of action

A

Partial nicotinic receptor partial agonist

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10
Q

When is bupoprion contraindicated?

A

In epilepsy

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11
Q

When is varenicline contraindicated?

A

Self-harm/depression

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12
Q

Buprenorphine mechanism of action

A

Noradrenaline and dopamine reuptake inhibitor and nicotinic antagonist

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13
Q

Most common ECG findings of hypercalcaemia

A

Shortened QT interval

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14
Q

Alteplase mechanism of action?

A

Activates plasminogen to form plasmin

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15
Q

Nerve responsible for pronation of the hand

A

Median

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16
Q

Responsible for erysipelas, impetigo, cellulitis, type 2 necrotising fasciitis, tonsillitis

A

Group A strep - strep pyogenes

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17
Q

What can CLL transform into?

A

Can transform to non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

this is Rithcer’s transformation

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18
Q

What is Ritcher’s transformation?

A

When CLL transforms to Non-hodgkins

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19
Q

The three criteria of typical angina

A
  • constrictive pain
  • precipitated by physical exertion
  • relieved by GTN within 5 minutes
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20
Q

What is the purpose of steroids in COPD?

A

To reduce the frequency of exacerbations

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21
Q

How does pontine haemorrhage present?

A

Reduced GCS, quadriplegia, miosis and absent horizontal eye movements

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22
Q

Which vaccinations are given to pregnant women

A

Influenza and pertussis

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23
Q

Stage 2 hypertension

A

Clinic BP above 160/100

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24
Q

Why is epidural anaesthesia preferred in GI surgery?

A

Faster return of normal bowel function

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25
Q

When do VTE’s present post-operatively?

A

Normally present 5-10 days post operatively

blood transfusion, cellulitis etc present earlier

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26
Q

What is reynold’s pentad?

A

Carcot’s triad plus low blood pressure and confusion

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27
Q

Investigations for peripheral arterial disease?

A

Duplex ultrasound is first line

Then do MRA (magnetic resonance angiography)

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28
Q

Difference between O negative and O positive

A

O negative - rhesus negative

O positive - rhesus positive

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29
Q

VTE prophylaxis for someone undergoing surgery (patient has no bleeding risk factors)

A

TED stockings and dalteparin at least 6 hours post operation

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30
Q

Useful for monitoring response to colorectal cancer treatment

A

CEA

31
Q

Double bubble sign on AXR

A

Duodenal atresia

32
Q

Treatment of malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene - prevents release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulim

33
Q

Isograft

A

Transplant to identical sibling

34
Q

Xenograft

A

E.g. porcine heart valve

35
Q

Allograft

A

Transplant from someone else (not twin)

36
Q

Autograft

A

From yourself

37
Q

Difference between RBCs in CSF and breakdown products in CSF?

A

RBCs could be from a traumatic tap

The presence of breakdown products is indicative of an SAH

38
Q

What does cryoprecepitate contain?

A

Contains factor VIII and fibrinogen

39
Q

How does malignant hyperthermia present?

A

Presents with muscle rigidity and increased temperature

40
Q

A common complication following intraventricular haemorrhage

A

Hydrocephalus

41
Q

Most common organism causing cholangitis

A

E. coli

42
Q

What is marjolin’s ulcer?

A

A squamous cell carcinoma occurring at the site of chronic inflammation or previous injury

43
Q

Treatment of scabies

A

Permethrin 5% is first line

44
Q

Pilocarpine mechanism of action

A

Muscarinic agonist

45
Q

Difference between caput succedaneum and cephalohaematome?

A

Caput succimmediate - noticed immediately, may cross suture line

Cephalohaematoma - noticed several hours after birth - may take several months to resolve. Will not cross suture lines

46
Q

Which organism is responsible for causing scarlet fever?

A

Group A haemolytic streptococci (strep pyogenes)

47
Q

Risk factors for sudden infant death syndrome

A 
Prone sleeping
Being male
Parental smoking
Bed sharing
Hyperthermia and head covering
Prematurity
48
Q

Progesterone only pill and antibiotics?

A

No need for extra precautions

49
Q

The only method of contraception associated with weight gain?

A

Depo provera

50
Q

ECG findings of TCA overdose

A

Prolonged QT
Widening of the QRS complex
Sinus tachycardia

51
Q

Treatment of TCA overdose

A

IV bicarbonate

lipid emulsion is increasingly being used

52
Q

A child has an exacerbation of asthma, what else can you add to their therapy?

A

Can give them oral prednisolone for 3 days

53
Q

How might laryngomalacia present?

A

Usually presents with noisy breathing, if severe may lead to noisy breathing when eating/low weight centile/poor food intake

54
Q

Risk factors for surfactant lung deficiency

A 
Prematurity
Male sex
Diabetic mothers
Caesarean section
Second born of premature twins
55
Q

Side effects of nicorandil

A

Headache
Flushing
Anal ulceration

56
Q

Side effects of nitrates?

A

Headache
Postural hypotension
Tachycardia

57
Q

pCO2 and life-threatening asthma?

A

A normal pCO2 in asthma indicates a life-threatening asthma attack, as it is indicative of a reduced respiratory effort

58
Q

Explain pCO2 and asthma?

A

Initially, in an asthma exacerbation, the patient will hyperventilate to blow off CO2 to compensate for the hypoxia.
When the patient becomes tired, this is when they stop trying to breathe it off, so they end up with a NORMAL CO2 –> this is a very bad sign!!!§

59
Q

Treatment for haemorrhage in cervical cancer?

A

Palliative radiotherapy

60
Q

These may mimic amelanotic melanoma?

A

Keratoacanthoma

61
Q

How would you diagnose perthes disease?

A

Plain x-ray

Do technetium bone scan or MRI if x-ray is normal

62
Q

Which virus causes hand, foot and mouth disease?

A

Coxsackie A16

63
Q

How does laryngomalacia present?

A

Noisy breathing on inspiration - most common cause of stridor in children

64
Q

Treatment of choice for atypical endometrial hyperplasia

A

Total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophrectomy (due to risk of malignant progression)

65
Q

Swelling or locking of knee in teenager

A

Osteochondritis dissecans

66
Q

Croup peak incidence

A

6 months to 3 years

67
Q

Most common cause of first trimester spontaneous miscarriages

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome

68
Q

Most important cause of ventricular tachycardia

A

Hypokalaemia (followed by hypomagnesaemia)

69
Q

Causes of torsades de pointes

A

Hypothermia, hypokalaemia, hypomagnaesemia

70
Q

How to differentiate between Knight’s move thinking and flight of ideas

A

Knight’s move thinking there are illogical leaps from one idea to another, flight of ideas there are discernible links between ideas

71
Q

When would you use hyoscine butylbromide or hyoscine hydrobromide?

A

Hyoscine hydrobromide for respiratory secretions

Hyoscine butylbromide for bowel

72
Q

Which nerves can be affected in acoustic neuroma?

A

CNV: absent corneal reflex
CNVII: facial palsy
CNVIII: hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus

73
Q

INVESTIGATION IF YOU SUSPECT PLACENTA PRAEVIA

A

DO A TRANSVAGINAL ULTRASOUND - better than abdominal - better accuracy

Stuff to remember (16 decks)

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