black and yellow book info Flashcards
(146 cards)
1
Q
head and neck cancer common route of spread
A
direct invasion and spread by lymphatics
2
Q
most commonly involved lymph nodes of head and neck cancers
A
jugulodigastric nodes
3
Q
most common paranasal sinus tumors
A
maxillary sinus
4
Q
maxillary sinus route of spread
A
direct extension into the orbit, oral cavity, nasal cavity, and base of skull
5
Q
most common salivary tumor
A
parotid gland
6
Q
signs and symptoms of lung cancer
A
cough, chest pain, hoarseness, weight loss, loss of appetite, bloody sputum, shortness of breath, recurring chest infections, onset of wheezing
7
Q
commonly found histopathology of the lower part of the esophagus
A
adenocarcinoma
8
Q
delete
A
axillary lymph nodes
9
Q
what kind of diet can lead to colorectal cancer?
A
diet low in fiber, high in fat
10
Q
most common site for colorectal mets
A
liver
11
Q
what is the most common site for bladder cancers
A
trigone
12
Q
most common met site for prostate cancer
A
bone
13
Q
most common risk factor for cervical cancer
A
HPV
14
Q
what are the three layers of the uterus
A
endometrium, myometrium, perimetrium
15
Q
most common histopath of endometrial cancer
A
adenocarcinoma
16
Q
most common primary brain tumor
A
glioma
17
Q
most common brain tumor in children
A
astrocytoma
18
Q
most common brain tumor in adults
A
glioblastoma multiforme
19
Q
originates in the medulla, pons, or midbrain- type of cancer
A
brainstem glioma
20
Q
originates in the schwann cells which surround the cranial nerves and other nerves responsible for hearing and balance
A
schwannoma
21
Q
originates in the ependymal cells which line the ventricles.
A
ependymoma
22
Q
second most common type of brain tumor in children
A
medulloblastoma
23
Q
most common brain tumor
A
metastatic
24
Q
signs and symptoms of metastatic brain tumors
A
headache, nausea, vomiting, and blurred vision
25
what can be used (medication) to reduce cerebral edema
corticosteroids like decadron
26
what is the most common renal tumor in children
wilms tumor
27
most common site of metastasis of wilms tumor
lung
28
what is cancer formed in the bone marrow cells that form lymphocytes
acute lymphocytic leukemia
29
what is cancer formed in the bone marrow cells that form red blood cells, some white blood cells, and platelets
acute myelogenous leukemia
30
what is cancer formed in the lymphocytes
chronic lymphocytic leukemia
31
what is cancer formed int he myelocytes
chronic myelogenous leukemia
32
most common types of leukemia in adults are
AML and CLL
33
most common leukemia in children
ALL
34
second most common bone tumor in children
Ewing sarcoma
35
most common bone tumor in children
osteosarcoma
36
what is a tumor below the skin surface that appears as raised, red, purple, or brown blothces
kaposi sarcoma
37
most common form of cutaneous t-cell lymphoma
mycosis fungoides
38
50-150 kV is used in what
superficial units
39
150-500 kV is used in what
orthovoltage units
40
what type of radiation travels short distances
alpha particles
41
what is shielded with low Z materials
beta particles
42
___ wavelength is greater energy and penetrating power. (shorter or longer)
shorter
43
the thickness of a given material that reduces the intensity of the radiation beam by one half
half value layer
44
xray beam ___ increases with half value layer thickness. (energy, quality, intensity)
quality
45
transfer of total energy of a photon to an inner electron of an atom
photoelectric effect
46
an electron from an outer shell fills the vacancy and gives off ___
characteristic radiation (x-ray)
47
delete
photoelectric effect
48
photons interact with an outer shell electron, absorbs all the energy and the electron is ejected
Compton scatter
49
what interaction is most dominant in soft tissue
Compton scatter
50
what interaction is most common in radiation therapy
Compton scatter
51
what interaction is most common in PET scans
pair production
52
in pair production, the incoming photon must have an energy of at least
1.02 MeV
53
high energy photon interacts with the nucleus
pair production
54
what is created in pair production after the photon interacts with the nucleus
negative and positive electrons
55
two 511 keV photons traveling in opposite directions
annihilation
56
an interaction of an electron with the nucleus of an atom
bremsstrahlung radiation
57
photon interacts with inner shell electron ejecting it from the atom
characteristic radiation
58
rate that energy is deposited as it travels through matter
linear energy transfer
59
x and gamma rays, secondary electrons: small particles travel great distance (low or high LET)
Low LET
60
protons, alpha particles: bulky particles travel small distance
high LET
61
particles interact with the nucleus of an atom causing damage to the DNA of the cell (direct or indirect)
direct ionizations
62
hair loss occurs at
1000 cGy
63
permanent hair loss occurs at
4500 cGy
64
skin erythema occurs at
1000 cGy
65
temporary sterility occurs at
300 cGy
66
permanent sterility occurs at
1500-2000 cGy
67
T/F exposure of reproductive organs increases the risk of abnormal mutations and genetic changes
true
68
hematopoietic syndrome occurs at
200-1000 cGy
69
GI syndrome occurs at
1000-5000 cGy
70
symptoms of hematopoietic syndrome
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anemia, leukopenia, hemorrhage
71
symptoms of GI syndrome
electrolyte imbalance, lethargy, fatigue, and shock
72
CNS syndrome occurs at
2000-5000 cGy
73
mean survival of CNS syndrome
0-3 days
74
CNS syndrome symptoms
edema of the brain
75
the probability of an effect rather than the severity of an effect
stochastic effects
76
severity of the effect varies with the radiation dose
non stochastic effects
77
exposed to ionizing radiation and excited electrons are trapped in the crystal
TLD
78
what type of device is inexpensive, easy to process, and relatively accurate
film badges
79
small ionization chambers
dosimeters
80
a small electronic probe placed on the body or inside a body cavity to measure the actual amount of radiation being delivered to a predetermined point
diodes
81
useful for locating a lost source or small amount of radioactive contamination
GM counter
82
gas filled detector used to detect or measure ionizing radiation
ion chambers
83
portable ionization chamber. useful in determining the exposure rate outside a radioactive implant patients room
cutie pie detector
84
ionization chamber filled with BF3 gas
neutron detector
85
the basic methods of radiation protection rae
time, distance, shielding
86
what is designed to attenuate the direct radiation beam
primary beam
87
what is designed to attenuate stray radiation
secondary beam
88
unrestricted area receives less than
2 mrem in one hour
89
restricted area occupied by radiation workers and access is controlled for the protection of individuals from exposure to radiation
50 hours/week for workers in area of 2 mrem/hour
90
how should chemotherapy spills be handled
isolate the spill, apply double gloves, gown and eye protection. absorb with a towel or spill kit. place contaminated items in a biohazard bag
91
measure of ionization in air
exposure
92
measure of the energy imparted to a mass by ionizing radiation
absorbed dose
93
what is most common interaction in cobalt 60
Compton scatter
94
most common cause of tissue damage
hypoxia
95
the two most probably radiation interactions are
direct and indirect
96
splitting of water
radiolysis
97
rate that energy is deposited as it travels though matter
linear energy transfer
98
what does the cell survival curve depict?
the number of cells surviving versus the radiation dose delivered
99
the most potent chemical factor in ionizing radiation is
the presence of oxygen
100
compares the response of the cells to radiation with and without the presence of oxygen
oxygen enhancement ratio
101
cells are most sensitive to radiation during
the M phase
102
cells are least sensitive to radiation during
the S phase
103
ionizing radiation is more effective against cells that are
actively mitotic, undifferentiated (immature, stem, or precursor)
104
dna replication becomes selective and reproduces a certain gene at an increased rate
gene amplification
105
broken cell fragments try to repair and rejoin
chromosome translocation
106
cells create the wrong genetic codes
gene transposition
107
provides federal protection for personal health information, and gives the patient rights to that information
HIPAA
108
legal document in which patients have control of their future, and the family's wishes do not override the patients
living will
109
legal document that gives a family member or friend the authority to make critical decisions if the patient becomes incapacitated
health care proxies
110
non criminal disputes such as disagreements over contracts, property ownership, and personal property damages
civil law
111
a legal wrong against a person or property, excluding contract disagreements or disputes
tort law
112
threat of touching in an injurious way
civil assault
113
touching without permission
civil battery
114
intentional confinement
false imprisonment
115
written defamation of character
libel
116
oral defamation of character
slander
117
information released, or patient exposed improperly or unnecessarily
invasion of privacy
118
neglect or omission of reasonable care
negligence
119
result of professional misconduct, incompetence, or lack of skills
malpractice
120
written context of what the professional can do based on education and preparation
scope of practice for a profession
121
delineates the proper procedure and how an action should be performed
standard of practice for a profession
122
must take responsibility of own actions
personal liability
123
holding the employer responsible for negligent acts of an employee
doctrine of respondent superior
124
a defendant can explain events and a court can decide outcome with no witness present
res ipsa loquitor
125
knowledge of actions or lack of information that could cause injury
doctrine forseeability
126
identifies causes of accidents and implements programs to prevent them
risk management
127
provides civil rights protection to those with disabilities
Americans with disabilities act 1990
128
what late side effects can occur 6 months to 5 years after treatment
fibrosis, telangiectasis, lymphedema
129
dryness of the mucous membranes in the oral cavity
xerostemia
130
atrophy of skin occurs when
4-6 weeks after treatment is completed
131
T/F oxygen does not require a doctors order
false. oxygen administration requires a doctors order
132
bone marrow cells are taken from a donor
allogenic
133
bone marrow cells are removed from the patient before treatment, multiplied, and re-injected
autologous
134
a two dimensional unit based on the matrix size and the field of view
pixel
135
a three dimensional unit that includes slice thickness
voxel
136
an array of numbers in rows and columns
matrix
137
the maximum diameter of the area of the scan that can be seen in the reconstructed image
field of view (FOV)
138
computer generated two dimensional radiograph displaying skeletal anatomy rendered from a three dimensional data set
digitally reconstructed radiograph
139
viewpoint of the radiation beam as it travels from the radiation source
beam's eye view
140
the process of spatially aligning two or more image datasets of the same area, taken at different times
image registration
141
combining image datasets and displaying the data
image fusion
142
what is a good modality for the delineation of bony pathology, or to detect small nodules
CT
143
what is a good modality for imaging soft tissue lesions and can display high tissue contrast
MRI
144
the area of decreased dose at the edge of the beam
penumbra
145
a sum of the dose contributed from a portion of the primary beam at the field edge and scatter radiation
physical penumbra
146
defines the width of the beam's penumbra and is independent of field size
geometric penumbra
