BLD unit 3 Flashcards

(199 cards)

1
Q

name anatomy of blood vessel most superficial to deep

A

smooth muscle and ECM, luminal lining/endothelial layer, lumen (where blood is)

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2
Q

use terminology superficial to deep of blood vessel

A

adventitia, media, intima

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3
Q

describe arteries

A

large and elastic, medium and muscular, small

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4
Q

what is the order of vascular organization

A

ateries, veins, capillaries, lymphatics

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5
Q

where are pericytes

A

surround endothelial cells

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6
Q

name the functions of the endothelium

A

thrombosis balance, smooth muscle behavior, modulate inflammation, influence growth of other cells, modulate vascular permeability, oxidize LDL

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7
Q

describe endothelial cell activation

A

change shape to create gaps in BV, produce adhesion molecules (selectins and ICAM), produce cytokines and coagulation influencing factors

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8
Q

list the inducers that activate the endothelial cells (inflammation)

A

bacteria and viruses, pro-inflammatory cytokines (TNF-alpha, IL-1), stress, lipids, complement, hypoxia (ischemia)

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9
Q

what do vascular smooth muscle cells do

A

vasoconstrict and vasodilate, function in normal repair and pathology (atherosclerosis)

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10
Q

unique role of smooth muscle cells

A

proliferation, up regulation of ECM components and release of growth factors and cytokines (communication)

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11
Q

what regulators activate smooth muscle cells

A

PDGF, endothelin, thrombin, FGFs, IFN-gamma, IL-1

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12
Q

what is FGF

A

fibroblast growth factors

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13
Q

what is PDGF

A

platelet derivative growth factor

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14
Q

what regulators keep smooth muscles BASAL

A

heparan sulfate, NO, TGF-alpha (NOT TNF-alpha)

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15
Q

what pressure pushes down on BV

A

plasma colloid osmotic pressure

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16
Q

what pressure pushes out of BV

A

hydrostatic pressure

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17
Q

define hydrostatic pressure

A

the pressure that blood exerts on the vessel

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18
Q

define plasma colloid osmotic pressure

A

the pressure exerted by different concentrations of molecules on the inside and outside of the vessel (flow of water because of solute concentration)

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19
Q

define interstitial fluid pressure

A

pressure exerted by the fluid in the interstitial spaces outside the vessel (interstitial space)

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20
Q

what causes fluid to LEAVE vasculature

A

1) increased intravascular hydrostatic pressure (increase blood pressure on the inside of BV) = leaky, 2) increased colloid osmotic pressure in the extravascular compartment ( outside of BV has increased solute conc. from loss of albumin, so fluid leave)

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21
Q

what helps fluid STAY in BV

A

1) osmotic pressure of plasma proteins (albumin) 2) selective permeability of endothelium 3)tissue tension (tension around BV push INTO BV)

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22
Q

normal net loss from the vasculature returns through what

A

lymph system

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23
Q

define hematoma

A

bleeding in area

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24
Q

hemothorax

A

bled into thoracic cavity

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25
hemopericardium
bled into the pericardium
26
hemoperitoneum
bled into peritoneum
27
hemoarthritis
bled into joint
28
petechiae
smallest bruises, bleed under skin
29
purpura
bigger bruise, bleeds are more severe
30
ecchymoses
normal bruise
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what are the 3 ways to judge a hemorrhage
volume, rate, general health of the patient
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what are the 3 elements of hemostasis
vascular wall: endothelium, platelets, coagulation cascade
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steps after bleed:
1) vasoconstriction 2) platelets (AAA) 3) coagulation cascade (thrombin) 4) thrombin (stable clot) 5) counter-regulation stops process
34
what does endothelin mediate
vasoconstriction
35
primary hemostasis:
platelet plug
36
secondary hemostasis:
coagulation cascade make fibrin
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fibrinolysis does what
cleans up, cuts up clot and gets debris out, destroys net
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platelet plug fills what
damage to the endothelial layer, exposes ECM
39
the platelet plug facilitates what
AAA (adherence, activation, and aggregation)
40
what is the initial platelet plug called
primary hemostasis
41
what is T-PA
tissue type plasminogen activator cleaves plasminogen to plasmin which then degrades fibrin
42
what does thrombomodulin do
halts the coagulation cascade
43
clot busting drugs do what
speed up fibrinolysis
44
what are the effects of PRO hemostasis (clot)
vWF activation, TF activation of coagulation cascade, plasminogen activator inhibitors (stop cutting up clots)
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what are the effects of ANTI hemostasis (anti-clot)
inhibit platelet by hiding ECM, inhibits coagulation factors with HEPARIN like molecules thrombomodulin and TFPI, fibrinolysis (TTPA)
46
platelets contain
cell fragments containing: alpha granules and dense bodies (store Ca2+) integrins (adhesion) cytoskeleton (need to change shape)
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what stimulates platelet activation
granules release: Ca2+ (coagulation factors), ADP (platelet activator), TxA2 (activates more platelets, aggregation (AA metabolism)
48
during platelet aggregation fibrinogen binds to what
GPII/IIIa receptors to form bridges
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during platelet aggregation thrombin does what
activates PAR and converts fibrinogen to fibrin (cuts it up)
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what are the effects of thrombin
activates platelet aggregation and endothelial cells, generates fibrin, activates leukocytes
51
name some antithrombins
inhibit thrombin: IXa, Xa, XIa, XIIa
52
name some protein C and Protein S anticoagulation systems
vitimin K dependent, act on Va and VIIIa
53
What does the tissue factor pathway inhibitor in anticoagulation system do
inhibits entry into extrinsic coagulation pathway
54
define edema
abnormal accumulation of fluid outside the vasculature
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what 2 factors causes fluid to leave the vasculature
1) increased intravascular hydrostatic pressure. 2)increased colloid osmotic pressure in the extravascular compartment
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what 3 factors helps fluid remain in the vasculature
1) osmotic pressure of plasma proteins, especially albumin 2) the selective permeability of the endothelium 3) tissue tension
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where does normal net loss from the vasculature through
lymph system
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define transudate
edema due to increased hydrostatic pressure or reduced intravascular protein
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define exudate
edema due to increased vascular permeability (inflammation)
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4 most important factors for edema
1) increase in intracapillary pressure 2) decrease in plasma osmotic pressure 2a) lymphatic obstructions (block backflow) 2b) retention of salt/water
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what are the 3 types of systemic edema
cardiac edema, renal edema, and chronic liver disease edema
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what are the main components of cardiac edema
redistribution and retention of fluids in areas within the body, gravity influences distribution,
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what is cardiac edema caused from
weak pumping of the heart lead to increase in venous pressure important: excessive retention of Na+ and H2O by the kidneys (kidneys will hold onto salt and water in response to this)
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effects of cardiac edema
1) decrease renal blood flow due to faulty pumping (activates RAAS which increases retention of Na+ and H2O) 2) increase in blood volume and intracapillary hydrostatic pressure (makes BV leaky producing transudate)
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what are the main components of renal edema
heavy proteinuria due to leaky capillaries (damage, inflammation) - loss of albumin exceeds liver production - decrease in plasma oncotic pressure leading to edema
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what are the main components of chronic liver disease
- edema presents as ascites causing: - increase intracapillary pressure (from scarring in liver -> less flexible -> increase pressure) - decrease in albumin/plasma oncotic pressure - increase hepatic lymph (due to inflammation) - increase in Na+ retention if cirrhotic
67
what are the 3 types of local edema
1) increased hydrostatic pressure in the microcirculation 2) increased local vascular permeability 3) lymphedema
68
define hyperemia
extra blood coming into the area, outflow remains the same (vasodilation)
69
define congestion
normal flow to area , blockage of outflow causing high volume of blood in area
70
define shock
clinical syndrome characterized by systemic underperfusion due to prolonged diminished cardiac output or reduction in blood volume
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what are the 3 types of shock discussed
hypovolemic, cardiogenic, septic shock
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what are the main components of hypovolemic shock
decrease blood/plasma volume causes: severe hemorrhage (bled out) major loss of body fluids (dehydration event) severe burns (decrease volume)
73
what are the main components of cardiogenic shock
decrease cardiac output - could be due to MI, occlusion, arrhythmia *anything that significantly reduces hearts ability to pump*
74
what are the main components of septic shock
(excessive inflammatory response) systemic immune response to microbial infection, results in arterial vasodilation, increased vascular permeability (inflammation), and venous pooling
75
what are the underlying factors that lead to septic shock
PAMPS -> activation of cells -> TNF and IL-1 -> ROS, AA metabolites, complement (all amplify the inflammatory response)
76
what are the main components of superantigens
toxic shock syndrome - activate t cells which produce large amounts of cytokine and causes giant inflammatory response that shouldn't be there
77
what are the other 2 ways to classify shock:
destributive vs obstructive
78
describe distributive shock
due to problems getting blood around in the body, not enough to fill the vasculature
79
describe obstructive shock
due to problems with the heart filling or blockages near the heart. due to obstruction, the blood is not going out to the body properly even though there may be enough
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what are the 3 stages of shock
non progressive, progressive, and irreversible
81
wait is the main trait about non progressive shock
body can accommodate the blood loss, organ perfusion maintained
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what are the main traits with progressive stage shock
hypoperfusion, metabolic problems, acidosis
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what is the main trait with irreversible stage shock
severe injury
84
what are symptoms of non progressive stage shock
tachycardia, vasoconstriction, renal fluid conservation
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what are the symptoms to progressive stage shock
low oxygen available to tissues and organs, increased levels of lactic acid due to anaerobic glycolysis, blood pooling and risk to endothelium
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what are the symptoms to irreversible stage shock
widespread cell injury, cardiac pumping weakens, septic shock addition, and kidney failure
87
define thrombosis
problem when clotting is in the wrong place at the wrong time
88
define hemostasis
results in the NORMAL formation of clots when required and fibrinolysis removes them when ready
89
Define Virchow's triad (what promotes thrombosis)
changes in the intima of vessel changes in the pattern of blood flow changes in the constituents of the blood
90
define injury to vessel
anything that removes or changes the endothelium: exposes the ECM beneath which activates platelets, changes in the coagulation influence, chronic inflammation
91
what are the Pro-coagulative cells effects
vWF activation of platelets, TF activation of coagulation cascade, plasminogen activator inhibitors
92
what are the Anti-coagulative cells effects
inhibit platelets by hiding ECM, inhibits coagulation factors with heparin like molecules, thrombomodulin, and TFPI, and fibrinolysis (T-PA)
93
how can turbulence change the pattern of blood flow
(roughness of flow) which can activate endothelium and cause pooling
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what are some causes of stasis in heart and large vessels
aneurysms, congestive cardiomyopathy, MI, mitral valve problems
95
how do changes in blood content cause a hypercoagulative state?
changes increase risk for VENOUS thrombosis (can cause primary or secondary hypercoagulation)
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what are the risk factors for hypercoagulable states?
more procoagulant factors like fibrinogen, decrease in those natural anticoagulants?
97
What are the common inherited disorders with risk of thrombosis
Factor V-Leiden mutation and Prothrombin mutation
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Describe Factor V-Leiden mutation
affects the coagulation cascade, promotes clotting, activated factor Va never gets destroyed which increases activity
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describe Prothrombin mutation
promotes clotting by high levels of prothrombin expression (too much of a good thing) and prothrombin becomes thrombin
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what are the rare inherited disorders with risk of thrombosis
1) antithrombin III - recurrent episodes of venous thrombosis 2) Protein C deficiency/resistance - either decreased amounts or functional defect with normal amounts or missing cofactor that helps with protein C 3) Fibrinolytic pathway disorders - cannot break down clots
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what are some other risk factors for thrombosis
oral contraceptives (estrogen levels) which increase fibrinogen and Vitamin K, but decreases Antithrombin III ( promotes clotting factors but decreases breaking down clots)
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what is another risk factor for thrombosis
malignancy: -mucin releasing tumors can activate Factor X - some tumors release proteases which also activate Factor X
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what are some immune risk syndromes for thrombosis
HIT syndrome and Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
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describe HIT syndrome and how it relates to thrombosis
patients treated with heparin (anticoagulant) which makes autoantibodies bind heparin and platelet membranes = chronic inflammation
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describe antiphospholipid antibody syndrome and how it relates to thrombosis
complex syndrome that results in autoantibodies that cause endothelial injury, platelet activation, interaction with coagulation factors
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what happens to thrombi?
-usually lysis due to plasmin - propagate = clotting can lead to more clotting - embolus = clot floats around until is reaches a vessel that is too narrow to pass (ischemia)
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what are emboli's mainly composed of
thrombus (99%) and blood clots, air, nitrogen, fat, chunks of bone
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describe pulmonary embolism
starts with DVT = most come from your knee pit, having one increases risk for another
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describe the pathway for a pulmonary embolism
venous thrombus -> pulmonary arterial tree (lodge is in pulmonary arch) and blocks blood and oxygen to the lungs
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the effects of pulmonary embolism depends on what two factors
1) size of embolus: 2) congestion in the pulmonary circulation - excessive accumulation of fluid in the lungs
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describe a massive pulmonary emboli
- 5% of cases - from a long segment of a vein in the leg - has to be big enough to block the pulmonary arteries which are bigger than most veins
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what is the clinical presentation of a massive pulmonary emboli
sudden, SOB and CP, acute right sided heart failure, shock
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describe a medium pulmonary embolism
(10-15%) - some degree of circulatory obstruction leads to localized rupture of capillaries and hemorrhage - major symptoms = DYSPNEA
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describe a small pulmonary emboli
(60-80%) - clinically silent - too small to cause a problem - fibrinolytic system breaks it down while the bronchial circulation keeps the lung tissue supplied with oxygen
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describe systemic emboli
- thromboembolism is most common - major source: left side of the heart causes: - atrial fibrillation - MI - congestive cardiomyopathy - infective endocarditis
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where can a systemic emboli be seen
wherever the emboli gets lodged, most often: - spleen, kidney, brain, legs, GI tract
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Rarer types of embolisms include
amniotic fluid, gaseous (air),
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describe amniotic fluid embolism
(80% mortality rate) - amniotic fluid enters blood of the mother - caused by a traumatic birth - uterine vein is torn - ends with possible DIC
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describe DIC
Disseminated intravascular coagulation: - multiple small clots throughout the vascular system - uses up coagulation resources so may lead to bleeding
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describe gaseous emboli (air)
introduced to circulation by: - surgery - chest surgery - fallopian tubes in exploration of sterility
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what is the mechanism for air emboli
- air enters the right side of the heart, making frothy mess that can block blood fow - similar to massive pulmonary embolism (clincally) - froth may mobe out into circulation and cause problems at other sites like the brain and spinal cord - 40 mL can cause problems, 100 mL usually fatal
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describe gaseous embolism (nitrogen)
- decompression sickness, - divers returning to normal atmospheric pressure from high pressure too quickly - high pressure N2 dissolves in plasma and tissue - as pressure decreases, N2 comes out of solution and forms bubbles (N2 emboli)
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what are the clinical symptoms of nitrogen emboli
- bubbles can be in circulation or tissue - symptoms include: pain "the bends", respiratory distress, CNS problems, ischemic damage to long bones
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Fat embolism
seen in 90% of patients with severe skeletal trauma, but only 10% show symptoms Sources: - fracture of long bones - severe burns - severe soft tissue trauma (crushing)
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mechanism of Fat embolism
- bone-marrow derived fat globules enter veins and lodge in the pulmonary vasculature - may also trigger platelet aggregation - 7-10 micrometers can pass through capillaries there
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what is the clinical presentation of fat embolism
- anemia, thrombocytopenia, petechial rash, pulmonary dysfunction
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define ischemia
blood flow less than the tissue metabolism requires
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define infart
happens when ischemia happens too long, localized necrosis in area
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define hypoxia
decreased concentration of oxygen
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why do we car about infarction?
#1 cause of death in adults, most deaths are due to myocardial or cerebral infarcts
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examples of blockages causing ischemia
"twisted bowel", strangulated hernias, frostbite
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factors that influence infartion?
alternative blood supplies to area, how fast the blockage occurs, how vulnerable is the tissue without blood, what are the blood oxygen levels like
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symptoms of ischemia (function)
pain upon exertion - eventual cellular damage leads to more functional loss
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symptoms of ischemia (structure)
- necrosis results (patchy or massive) - fibrous tissue when healed - degree of necrosis is proportional to degree of ischemia
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describe cardial infarcts
- different clinical pictures - "stable" angina - only upon effort - "unstable" angina - at rest - sudden death: left ventricle arrhythmia (acute MI, failure of pumping due to loss of muscle)
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describe the complications of cardiac infarction
early: arrhythmia and sudden death Necrosis: softening and rupture or valve problems ventricular problems can lead to thrombosis healing: fibrous tissue leads to pumping deficiency or even aneurysm
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describe intestinal infarction (bad)
many causes: - emboli/thrombi in mesentery veins/arteries - most mechanical: hernial strangulation, twisting, intussusception (bowels roll up)
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what are the symptoms if intestinal infart
stiff, dark color, fibrous inflammation on interior surface, gangrene (from microbiota)
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define how injury leads to arteriosclerosis
"hardening of the arteries" and thickening due to collagen build up, loss elastic nature
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what are the 3 types of arteriosclerosis
- arteriolosclerosis - Monckeberg medial sclerosis - atherosclerosis (most common)
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what is first seen with arteriosclerosis
fatty streaks: - earliest - small lipid rich yellow dots - starts in infants - mild thickening due to more intimal cells - DOES NOT HAVE TO PROGRESS
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what is seen next in arteriosclerosis
atherosclerosis: - happens in large elastic muscular arteries - lesions: thickenings of the innermost layers of arteries (tunica intima) partly lipid and partly connective tissue
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what is seen within an atherosclerotic core
lipids contained within foam cells or in pools, collagen, Ca2+ deposits
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what is step 1 in response to injury hypothesis
chronic endothelial injury: - dysfunction of endothelial cells - more permeable - WBC's adhere more easily - gene expression changes - thrombosis
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step 2:
accumulation of lipoproteins - oxidized LDL and cholesterol crystals build up in the vessel wall
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step 3:
platelet adhesion: - platelet are attracted to the damage
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step 4:
monocytes get involved and migrate to intima
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step 5:
lipid accumulation in macrophages (foam cells) - causes release of inflammatory cytokines - more ROS production drives LDL oxidation - GF production stimulates smooth muscle proliferation
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step 6:
smooth muscle recruitment from media - smooth muscle cells proliferate an release ECM building the cap
150
Describe plaques and how they cause problems
location matters, raised plaque is where problems develop, structure of atheroma and its placement in the vessel matters - thin caps with large lipid cores are more of a risk
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characteristics of vulnerable plaques
-large lipid cores - thin caps with few SM cells - lots of inflammatory cells
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why test cholesterol levels:
HDL decreases risk since it carries fat away from cells for storage - LDL increases risk since it brings fat to cells for energy
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describe the human genome
23 pairs of chromosomes (22 autosomal, 1 pair sex chromosomes)
154
what are the jobs of non-protein coding genes
- promoters and enhancers - chromatin scaffolding - non-coding RNA - mobile genetic elements - special structures like centromere and telomeres
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describe types of human variation within the genome
single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP): - one letter change in DNA - can affect phenotype or be neutral -neutral can be used for ID Copy number variation (CNV): - different numbers of copies of long stretches of DNA - duplications, deletions of copies - inversions where things get switched around - 50% are in gene-coding regions = do affect phenotype
156
describe genotype and phenotype
genotype: DNA code phenotype: observable outcome of DNA code
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define congenital, familial, and heriditary
congenital: present at birth familial: appears to be passed on in a family where mutation is known or unknown hereditary: transmitted in the parental gametes
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what are common markers for epigenetic regulation
DNA methylation (silencing), histone modification - these affect availability of the genome for transcription
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define mutation
permanent change in the DNA code: outcomes can be: - positive trait (resistance to disease) - deleterious trait (loss of function of enzyme) - neutral (no change)
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what are the two types of mutation in human disease
somatic: - only affects the person with the mutation Germline: - may be passed onto offspring via gametes
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types of DNA mutations:
amplification: - extra copies of a gene or length of DNA deletions: - loss of a gene or one copy of a gene translocations: - switching of selection of DNA between two chromosomes
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describe the genetic disease mendelian disease:
from mutations in a single gene
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describe the genetic disease complex of multifactorial disorders:
multiple genes involved in environmental influences too
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describe the genetic disease cytogenic disorders:
arising from chromosomal number or structural differences
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describe mendelian inheritance patters
can be autosomal or sex linked (usually X-linked) AND dominant or recessive
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describe autosomal dominant mendelian disorders
- heterozygotes manifest this disorder - one parent usually affects - same frequency in gender - autosomal - 50% loss of protein production from gene (regulatory molecules or structural protein genes not enzymes)
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define penetrance and variable expressivity
penetrance: probability that a mutant allele will be expressed phenotypically (expressed/possessed) Expressivity: severity of expression of phenotype Variable expressivity: different mutations in the same allele can have varying effects in severity
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Autosomal dominant: Ehlers Danlos Syndrome ( EDS)
group of disease (not all dominant) - characterized by deletion mutation in collagen synthesis or structure clinical presentation: - skin, ligaments, and joints are most affected, skin fragility is common, hyperflexibility of skin and ligaments - serious internal complications with organs and vasculature
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EDS 2 types of mutations in most common variants
- COL3A1 gene: deficient type III collagen predisposes blood vessels to rupture - COL5A1 and COL5A2: deficient type V collagen production creates classical EDS presentation
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autosomal dominant: familial hypercholesterolemia
loss of function LDL receptor gene mutation results in abnormal levels of LDL in blood (cannot take fat in as energy) clinical presentation: - heterozygotes have 2-3x increase in blood LDL, homozygotes have 5X (worse) - elevated cholesterol from birth, problems in adulthood - xanthomas on skin and tendons PREMATURE ATHEROSCLEROSIS
171
Familial hypercholesterolemia continued
mutation in FH general reduces LDL receptor expression or endocytosis (take in receptor into cell) other cases: - LOF in ApoB which helps LDL bind to the receptor - gain of mutation in PCSK9 which reduces the expression of LDL receptor in liver cells so the liver can play role in fat metabolism
172
characteristics of autosomal recessive disorders
- only manifest in homozygous state when both alleles are mutated - don't see trait in parents usually but they are both carriers - 1/4 chance of siblings being affected - if mutation has low frequency in the population, parents may be related - largest group of genetic disorders - expression is consistent and similar to parents - complete penetrance - early onset - usually enzymes are encoded in affected genes
173
Autosomal recessive: cystic fibrosis
disorder of epithelial ion transport (affects fluid secretion in exocrine glands and lining of respiratory tract, GI tract, and reproductive tract) clinical presentation: - recurrent, chronic lung infections - pancreatic insufficiency (fecal loss of protein and fat) - high NaCl in sweat -variance in mutation = variance expressivity
174
CF continued
mutations in CFTR cause CF Most common cause: deltaF508/detlaF508 (loss of phenylalanine) causes of mutation: 1) do not make CFTR 2) CFTR processing/trafficking to surface defective 3) defective CFTR regulation 4) conductance in CFTR defective 4) CFTR stability in membrane defective
175
autosomal recessive: phenylketonuria (PKU)
mutations cause a severe lack of enzyme that causes an increase in plasma PA. enzyme is PAH (phenylalanine hydroxylase) clinical presentation: - early weeks of life see climbing P levels - musty/mousy odor of urine and sweat - impairs brain development - if not treated by removing P from diet, severe mental disability by 6 months
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PKU methodology
problem is the inability to convert PA to Tyrosine, usually about 50% from diet because of lack of PAH
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autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease: Tay-Sachs
one of a group diseases that stems from problems at the lysosome, very rare clinical presentation: - infant or very young - blindness - hepatosplenomegaly waste products in brain accumulate bc the enzyme to break them down is missing (hexokinase)
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Tay-Sachs continued
mutation in the hexosaminidase A alpha-subunit cause more common version of disease - enzyme breaks down gangliosides in cells. when its target GMS accumulates instead the damage is significant in the brain and retina
179
Sex-linked disorder characteristics
Y-linked disorders are usually related to male infertility so we dont see them because they cannot be massed down - X-linked: - transmission is usually from females who are heterozygous carries whose hemizygous sons are affected - female carriers are usually protected from symptoms by second normal X - affected males do not pass disease to sons but all daughters are carriers
180
X-linked examples
-hemophilia A: coagulation factor VIII deficiency - Duchenne/Becker muscular dystrophy: dystrophin gene mutations - fragile X syndrome: amplified repeats disrupt developmental gene function
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describe complex multigenic disorders
- dance between genetics and environmental factors can create disease - can be the effect of multiple low penetrance polymorphisms in one genome
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examples of multigenic effects on phenotype
hair color, skin color, height, type 1 diabetes type 2 diabetes
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cytogenetic disorders
- chromosomal abnormalities are likely present in 1:200 live births - much higher in spontaneous abortions in first trimester - Detect with karyotyping and FISH
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Describe Karyotype
human normal diploid number is 46, 22 autosomal 1 sex pair - any variation of this number can induce disorders = aneuploid - usually number differences occur because of nondisjunction during meiosis -mosaicism is when 2 or more populations of cells exist together with genomic differences (bone marrow transplant)
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nondysjunction
abnormal number of chromosomes, can happen in meiosis 1 and 2
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general features of chromosomal disorders
- absence, excess, or rearrangements of chromosomes - less is worse than too many - sex chromosome imbalances are tolerated better than autosomal - most are de novo and not inherited except down syndrome
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autosomal disorders: Trisomy 21 (down syndrome)
patients have an extra copy of chromosome 21 presentation: - flat facial profile, distinct eye folds, palmar folds - intellectual disability causes: - meiotic nondisjunction >95% - maternal age (MA) is a big factor (Ovum) excess of several genes implicated: beta amyloid precursor, microRNAs and IncRNAs
188
sex chromosome disorders
more room for variation: - Y chromosome has small amount of genetic information so extra isn't a problem - lyonization of X chromosome: part of X is turned off (XIST gene for IncRNA is invovled)
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sex chromosome disorders: Klinefelter syndrome
at least 2 X and one or more Y chromosomes in a male individual (XXY) presentation: - hypogonadism - elongated body - lack of body hair - gynecomastia (breast tissue development) - infertility
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sex chromosome disorder: Turner syndrome
primary hypogonadism in a phenotypical female resulting from complete monosomy of X or partial presentation: - below 3rd percentile in height - swelling of nape of neck in infancy and webbing later - widely spaced nipples -low back hairline
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define triplet repeat mutations
the overcopying of a specific set of 3 nucleotides within the gene disrupts its function
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Fragile X syndrome:
CFF repeat expansion: - CGG repeat in FMR1 gene on X chromosome leads to clinical symptoms presentation: - intellectual disability - macroorchidism (enlarged testes) - distinct facial features
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Fragile X syndrome methods
average number of repeats in unaffected genome = 30 premutation: 60-200 copies disease: 200-250 copies (only females can accumulate more mutations)
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define premutation level in Fragile X
initial change in the genome needs processing through female meiosis before it is fully expressed - repeats increase due to "confused" DNA polymerase during replication. it loses its place and starts over and adds more CGGS
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mitochondrial disorders
mtDNA is circular, several copies per cell, contains genes for ETC, 2 rRNA for making ribosomes
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Mitochondrial disorders methods
mitochondria and maternal inheritance because ova has abundant cytoplasm mitochondria while sperm has few if any
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explain why Mitochondrial disorders have higher rates of mutation
constantly exposed to ROS from the ETC = increases rate of mutation - effect the energetics of the cell, especially in cells that need a lot of ATP
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imprinting = Prader-Willi vs Angelman syndrome
imprinting method: methylation of gene promoter and modification of histones
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Prader-Willi vs Angelman syndrome
PW: - deletion is paternal - imprinting (silencing) is maternal A: - maternal deletion - imprinting is paternal