Block 1 Flashcards
(128 cards)
1
Q
What color are threshold lights?
A
Green
2
Q
Who provides an aircraft specific approval for entry onto movement areas on an airport?
A
ATC
3
Q
The basic means to transition from instrument flight to visual flight for landing is provided by
A
ALSs
4
Q
What does the following sign indicate when posted on an airport?
A
Denotes an entrance to a runway or critical area, aircraft are prohibited from entering without an ATC clearance.
5
Q
Lighted land airports have rotating beacons that
A
Flash white and green
6
Q
What runway markings extends the full-length runway pavement area?
A
Runway side stripes
7
Q
Which primary radar component focuses and broadcasts radio energy, then collects the reflected return?
A
Antenna
8
Q
Which of the following would NOT be a type of data depicted on a radar display?
A
Runway lighting
9
Q
Where is the transponder located?
A
Aircraft
10
Q
Which of the following elements does the ADS-B system rely on to function?
A
-ALL OF THE ANSWERS-
Constellation of GPS satellites
ADS-B transponder
Network of ground stations
11
Q
Which radar system transmits from a site, is reflected by an object, and then is received back at the site for processing and display at an ATC facility?
A
Primary radar
12
Q
What does a radar display depict?
A
Position of objects
13
Q
Which is the only en route sector team whose duties do NOT include accepting handoffs?
A
Radar Flight Data
14
Q
Who is responsible for the operation of the TM System?
A
ATCSSC
15
Q
Which ATC facility provides ATC services to aircraft on IFR flight plans during the en route phase of flight?
A
ARTCC
16
Q
Who maintains separation from other aircraft, terrain, and man-made objects on the ground for IFR aircrafts?
A
ATC
17
Q
When is non radar separation used in preference to radar separation?
A
When an operational advantage will be gained
18
Q
What is included in the NAS?
A
U.S. Navigation facilities and all associated personnel and components.
19
Q
The organizational structure of each AT facility varies depending upon its
A
-ALL OF THE ANSWERS-
runways
surrounding terrain
type of air traffic
20
Q
“Presidential aircraft have priority over Flight Check aircraft” is an example of a(n)
A
Operational priority
21
Q
According to their, ATO facilities are assigned to one of
A
Three service areas
22
Q
Which air traffic facility has NO direct authority IFR or VFR traffic?
A
FSS
23
Q
Which position in the ATC terminal option is normally responsible for issuing control instruction to aircraft and vehicles operating on the airport movement area (other than active runway)?
A
Ground control
24
Q
Which ATC facility is primarily responsible for conducting pilot briefings?
A
FSS
25
Which of the following is NOT the function for the Clearance delivery position in the tower?
Compiling statistical Data
26
What are supplements?
Local documents that provides internal guidance and/or instruction is issued by someone other than the originator
27
What information is contained in the FAA order 7340.2?
Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA
28
When used in FAA orders JO 7210.3, the word "may" means that the procedure is
optional
29
What information is contained in the FAA order JO 7350.9
Lists location identifiers authorized by the FAA
30
Which of the following content/procedures defines coordination procedures between FSS Inflight and ARTCC Radar associate positions?
LOA
31
Which of the following content/procedures describes operating position/sector?
SOP
32
Which of the following content./procedures defines responsibilities between air traffic control facility and the Airport Manager?
LOA
33
Which of the following content/procedures defines coordination procedures between two air traffic facilities
LOA
34
At minimum, which of the following requirements must an Air Traffic Manager include when issuing an SOP? (select all that apply)
- Required procedures for maintaining a safe and efficient operation
- Jurisdictional boundaries for each operational position/sector
35
Which of the following content/procedures delegates the responsibility for ATC services to the tower, approach control, and the ARTCC?
LOA
36
Which of the following content/procedures establishes local stripmarking procedures?
SOP
37
Facilities use ___________ to standardize operations or procedures that require the cooperation of other entities, such as airport management, local communities, and other ATC facilities.
LOAs
38
Types of notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) are
FDC, POINTER, and D
39
Who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport?
Airport Managers/operator
40
Regarding NOTAMs, which of the following is NOT a responsibility of ALL air traffic personnel?
Format and edit NOTAMs
41
Airmen's information can be disseminated via Aeronautical charts and __________.
Flight information publications
42
What must ATC do prior to authorizing pilot-applied visual separation?
Maintain communication with at least one of the aircraft involved to insure there is an ability to communicate with the other aircraft
43
What is the vertical separation minima between two IFT aircrafts below FL 180?
1,000
44
What must ATC ensure before clearing an aircraft for takeoff after previously arriving aircraft has landed?
Takeoff roll does not begin until preceding aircraft has taxied off the runway
45
Longitudinal separation is applied between on
-ALL OF THE ANSWER-
Opposite courses
Same course
Converging Courses
46
How would a pilot proceed in a standard holding pattern below 14,000 feet MSL
Turn right and maintain 1 minute leg
47
Aircraft that are NOT equipped with the required vertical navigation avionics must be separated by how many feet as they climb or descend through the RSVM altitudes?
2,000
48
Radar separation is applied between an aircraft which of the following?
-ALL OF THE ANSWERS-
Obstruction on the radar display
Adjacent airspace
Another aircraft
49
What is the standard minima for nonradar longitudinal separation?
10 minutes or 20 miles
50
What are the ATO service areas?
Eastern
Central
Western
51
The safe, secure, and efficient management for the NAS is the responsibility of which division?
Air Traffic Services
52
The ATO is managed by a(n)_____________
Chief operating officer
53
What is the first duty priority of the ATC system?
Separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts
54
What are the primary purposes of the ATC system?
1. Prevent aircraft collisions.
2. Provide a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic.
3. Support National Security and Homeland Defense.
55
What is the Operational Priority list?
Dangerous - Aircraft in Distress
Arrogant - Civilian air ambulance (MEDEVAC)
Pilots - Presidential aircraft
Should - Search and rescue (SAR)
Stop - Special military & civilian operations
Flying - Flight check aircraft
Into - IFR aircraft
Danger - Diverted flight
56
What are the primary functions of an FSS?
Provide pilot briefings
Process flight plans
process flight plans
57
What is/are the functions of an ATCT?
Authorizing aircraft to land or take off on runway
Providing ATC services to aircraft at an airport
Transiting aircraft through tower control
May provide approach control services to an aircraft
58
The primary function of an ARTCC is providing ATC services to en route ____________
IFR/VFR
59
When NO supervisory personnel are available, who is the designated person in charge?
Controller-in-charge
60
The mission of the TM system is to balance air traffic ___________ with system __________
Demand; Capacity
61
The operation of the TM system is the responsibility of the
ATCSCC
62
Monitoring and balancing air traffic flows within their area of responsibility is the primary function of the ____________
TMU
63
Which of the following are components of NAS?
Airport and landing areas
Airspace and ATS routes
Rules, regulations, and procedures
Aeronautical charts
64
Why are NAVAIDS a vital part of NAS?
Navigate from point to point, provide aids for landing
65
What do VFR and IFR describe?
Flight plans that pilots should file
| Weather conditions
66
What responsibility does ATC have with an aircraft during an IFR flight?
Maintain separation from other aircraft, terrain, and man-made objects on the ground
67
At an airport with a tower, when is movement permitted in a designated movement area?
Only after obtaining approval from ATC
68
How would you designate a runway with a magnetic heading of 094 degrees?
RWY 9
69
How would you designate a runway with a magnetic heading of 005 degrees
RWY 36 or 1
70
A runway with a non-precision approach does NOT have which of the following runway markings?
Touchdown zone
71
Where are displaced threshold markings located on a runway?
At a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway
at the end of the non-landing portion of the runway
72
Which surface on a runway is marked with large yellow chevrons?
Blast pad
73
Which markings indicate that the pavement is NOT intended for use by aircraft?
Taxiway shoulder markings
74
The centerline of a taxiway is marked with what type of line?
Continuous yellow
75
What is indicated by a taxiway direction sign?
Which direction the aircraft must turn to get the desired taxiway
76
What does the orientation of the letter "H" indicate in a helicopter landing area?
Aligns with the intended direction of approach
77
What lights consist of two white flashing strobe lights located on each side of the runway therhold?
Runway end identifier lights
78
Which light marks the beginning of the runway for an approaching aircraft?
Threshold lights
79
Which type of lighting consists of two row of lights on each side of the runway centerline lights?
Touchdown zone lighting
80
Which light system provides visual descend guidance during runway approaches?
Visual glideslope indicators
81
Which lights are used to confirm ATC clearance to enter the active runway?
Stop bar lights
82
Which type of lights tell pilots and vehicle operators to stop when runways are not safe?
Runway status lights
83
The ATC system is required to apply separation between an aircraft operating in the system and which of the following?
Protected airspace
Non-IFR aircraft
Aircraft
84
All aircraft operating at or above __________ shall have the altimeter set to __________, regardless of the local altimeter settings at stations they fly over.
FL 180; 29.92
85
What is the basic minimum altitude for vertical separation between IFR aircraft at FL390
1,000
86
3 Types of nonradar separation are....
Vertical, lateral, Longitudinal
87
The minimum terminal radar separation required for two aircraft 30 NM from the antenna is
3
88
The minimum en route separation required for two aircrafts below FL 600 is __________.
5
89
What are some of the factors that should be considered during visual separation?
Closure rate
Aircraft performance
Wake turbulence
90
Under which conditions can you clear an aircraft for visual approach
- The pilot reports the preceding aircraft in sight and is instructed to follow.
- The pilot reports the runway in sight but NOT the preceding aircraft, as long as radar separation is maintained until visual separation is provided
- The Pilot reports the runway is in sight with NO preceding aircraft
91
On the same runway, what conditions must exist for the preceding departing aircraft before allowing another aircraft to take off?
The aircraft must cross the runway end
| The aircraft must turn to avert a conflict
92
Which conditions must exist for preceding departing aircraft before a takeoff roll begins for another aircraft on nonintersecting runways?
Has departed and crossed the departure runway
93
What must a controller ensure when directing aircraft to hold over different fixes at the same altitude?
Holding pattern airspaces dont overlap
94
What are the two subsystems for disseminating aeronautical information?
AIS and NOTAM system
95
Who submits a NOTAM to the NS using an approved direct entry tool or interface?
Certified Source
96
Who is responsible for reporting a condition considered hazardous to flight?
All air traffic personell
97
Why are NOTAM Ds issued?
To disseminate information over a wide area
98
What NOTAMs are used to report the surface conditions on runways, taxiways, and aprons?
FICON NOTAMs
99
What type of NOTAM is issued for aerial demonstrations?
FDC NOTAM
100
Which feature does ADS-B in offer that ADS-B out does not?
Receives position information from other ADS-B equipped aircraft
101
How does ADS-B information reach ATC?
GPS sends info to aircraft; aircraft send info to ground stations; ground stations send info to ATC
102
The ADS-b system relies on information from?
Ground stations
ADS-B Transponder
GPS satalites
103
ADS-B is a surveillance system in which the aircraft is fitted with cooperative equipment in the form of a
ADS-B Transponder
104
Which of the following are disadvantages of a secondary radar system?
Does not provide weather information
Return is affected by aircraft orientation
Only displays aircrafts with transponders
105
Which of the following are advantages of a secondary radar system?
Not degraded by weather echoes or ground cover
Less vulnerable to blind spots
Provides larger range
106
Which components is mounted on top of the primary antenna, unless it is a secondary-only site?
Antenna
107
The ___________ processes the transponder replies and sends them to the radar display.
Decoder
108
Which components of the secondary radar is located on the air
```
Interrogator
Transponder
antenna
decoder
radar displace
```
109
Which primary component amplifies and converts the reflected energy into video?
Transponder
110
Which primary radar component focuses and broadcasts radio energy, then collects the reflection return?
Receiver
111
Which primary radar component depicts the position and movements of objects that reflect radio energy?
Radar Display
112
What are the components of a primary radar system?
Transmitter, antenna, receiver and radar display
113
Which of the following define how primary radar works?
Sends out a signal which is reflected by anything with a mass, signal is a pule of radio energy similar to an x-ray.
Requires no equipment in the aircraft
Reflected signal is times and presented on a radar display
114
FAA orders are updated by which documents?
Changes
115
When a change is issued to an order, how are new pages marked?
Bold line next to change in margin
| Effective date of change listed
116
To whom is an FAA order with prefix of "JO" directed
Air traffic organization
117
What document prescribes ATC procedures and phraseology used by the FAA?
FAA Order JO 7110.65
118
What document provides direction and guidance for operating and managing air traffic facilities and offices?
FAA Order JO 7210.3
119
Which type of document contains aircraft type designators?
FAA Order JO 7360.1
120
Which document lists the location identifiers authorized by the FAA?
FAA Order JO 7350.9
121
Which document provides the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures for use in the NAS?
AIM
122
The responsibility for approval of an LOA rests with the
Service Area
123
Which of the following my be delegated the authority to approve an LOA?
Air traffic Representatives
Air Traffic managers
Region Air Defense Liaison Officer
124
What is the purpose for having a SOP?
Specify jurisdictional boundaries for each position/sector.
125
Which of the following would NOT require the development of an LOA
Intrafacility coordination
126
Which of the following examples would NOT be contained in a SOP?
Radar Handoff procedures
| Approach control services
127
Which of the following material or content would appear as part of an LOA?
Tower en route control service
| Special VFR Operations
128
When a change is issued to an order, how are new pages marked?
Which direction the aircraft must turn to get to the desired taxiway
Closure rate, Aircraft Performance, Wake Turbulence
Contains approved words and phrase contradictions used by the FAA
Bold line next to change in margin
Effective date of change listed
