Block 1 Flashcards

(78 cards)

1
Q

What is the fever temperature that qualifies for unknown origin

A

38.3 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the definition of ELISA

A

Rapid test of enzyme Ab/Ag linked to form a match

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the definition of an IFA test

A

ID specific Ab or Ag, Ab ID is performed on blood (serum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What test amplifies a small amount of DNA

A

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What test detects one protein directed agains a desired DNA fragment

A

Western Blot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the immunohistochemistry test?

A

ID cellular tissue for antigen-antibody interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the definition of sensitivity vs specificity?

A

Sensitivity : true positives it detects all the positives

Specificity : true negatives it detects all the negatives and accuracy of defining negatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Anthrax occurs from what?

A

Animal hide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where are most cases of the plague

A

Madagascar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is significant about labs in the plague findings

A

WBC 2,000 w increased bands
Gram neg coco bacillus
Elevated LFT’s
- bipolar safety pin stain -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is TXM for the plague

A

Streptomycin or Gentamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the three types of plague

A

Bubonic
Primary septicemia
Pneumonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Variola is described as what?

A

Synchronous
Centrifugal on palms and soles
Extremities and Face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Varicella characteristics

A

Asynchronous
More pustule at first
On trunk
Inner belly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do we diagnose HSV

A

Mostly clinical
Viral vulture
Tzanck smear = MNgiant cells

PCR - HSV DNA

  • serum
  • CSF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the best antiviral TXM for HSV

A

Valacyclovir (Good suppressive therapy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are 2 good topicals for HSV TXM

A

Penciclovir

Doconasol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the best cervical prevention for Condyloma Acuminata

A

Gardasil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the main complication from Gonnorhea to be worried about

A

Disseminated Gonnorhea Infection DGI

Knee swollen acute 2-3 weeks after infxn arthritis sxs
Can spread to heart and meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the test technique for Gonorrhea

A

Culture @ mucosal site + anti microbial testing
Smear with Gram stain
GENPROBE , TMA (majority)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

TXM for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone
And
Doxy
also treats chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

TXM for chlamydia

A

Doxy X 7 days

Azithromycin X po 1 day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the characteristic sign of LGV

A

Groove Sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tertiary characteristics of syphilis

A

Cutaneous gumba
Cardiovascular syphilis
Aortic Valve Ascending Aorta w/ insuff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
2 signs of congenital syphilis
Hutchinson moon teeth | Mulberry molars
26
What is the screening test for syphilis
Non Trep (RPR)
27
What is the syphilis confirmatory test
Treponemal Test | VDRL/RPR
28
TXM of neurosyphilis
Acquiesce crystalline Pen G or Procaine PEN G + Probenicid
29
TXM for BV
Metronidazole Tindazole Clindamycin Po or cream
30
TXM for chancroid
Ceftriaxone Or Azithromycin
31
Is Granuloma Inguinale (Don.) painful or painless
Painless w/ bleeding degenerative tissue elevated velvated nodule Small beefy bumps
32
TXM of head lice
Permethrin wash 1 %. @ 10 mins | Malathion .5%
33
If resistant to normal lice TXM what is used?
Ivermectin .5% Topical lotions 10 mins 6 months old and up
34
Is there TXM for body lice
No!
35
Scabies TXM
Permethrin 5% (elimite) 8-14hr’s then wash out ivermectin po
36
Who is most at risk for viral hepatitis
``` IV drug users Residential Homeless Incarcerated Endemic area travelers ```
37
What is the transmission of Hep E
Fecal to oral
38
Who does Hep E most affect
Young to middle age adults
39
Who is at most risk for complications with Hep E infxn
Pregnant, 25% mortality
40
What hepatitis strain is more infectious than HIV
Hep B
41
3 routes of exposure with Hep B
Perinatal Blood Serum
42
What is the first serum marker of Hep B
HBsAg [acute infxn]
43
What is the first ab identified with Hep B infxn
Anti-HBc | IgM anti Hep B core antigen
44
What Ab is typically present 4-6 months post Hep B infection
“Surface” Anti-HBs [HBsAb]
45
What does it mean if you find AntiHbs 4-6 months later
Successful immunity
46
What Ig replaces IgM anti HBc
IgG anti HBc
47
What is the best indication of chronic Hep B infxn
HBsAg nad Anti-HBc - carries of HBV - chronic Hepatitis
48
TXM for acute Hep B
HBIG + Hep B vac [w/in 7 days of exposure]
49
If an IV drug user what strain of Hep commonly coinfects with HIV
Hep C -commonly acquire liver dz
50
Who is at an increased risk for Hep C infxn
Injected illegal drug users Medical workers Children born to HCV phos women
51
What is the best prevention of Hep D
HBV -HDV immunization PEP -> prevent HBV infxn Education = lower risk behavior
52
What is the vialacoues plaque like lesion associated with after HIV infxn
Kaposi’s Sarcoma (HHV 8)
53
HIV patient with dyspnea on exertion and non productive cough concern for what?
PJ PNA
54
Therapy/Prophylaxis ``` HSV Toxoplasmosis M. Avium PJ PNA CMV ```
HSV - Acyclovir Toxoplasmosis- pyrimethamine w/ TMP/SMX and or/ leucovorin M. Avium - Clarythromycin *prophylaxis = Azithromycin* PJ PNA -TMP/SMX CMV- Ganiciclovir
55
What stimulation factor is important in OI HIV TXM
Hematopoietic | EPO-alpha
56
PEP Meds for HIV
Basic : Combivir (Z + i) Truvada ( E+ T) S + i Expanded : (L + R) (A + R) **28 day TXM, best w/ in 72 hours**
57
Sxs TXM for the flu
Acetominophen Antiviral Agent if ill less than 48 hours = shortens the course
58
Flu A and B TXM
Neuramidase INHB
59
Seasonal swine and avian flu TXM
Zanamivir (Ralenza)
60
Swine and Avian flu TXM only
Tamiflu (oseltamivir)
61
4 complications of the flu
``` Secondary bacterial pneumonia Bacterial tracheo Rare : GBS Reyes Syndrome ```
62
Fatal complication of hantavirus
Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
63
CXR finding of hantavirus
Mild interstitial edema Rapid progress Basilar / Perihilar lungs -Heart size = normal-
64
TXM for hantavirus
Ribavirin
65
Characteristics of strep PNA cough
Rusted blood sputum tinged
66
What it’s he CXR pattern for strep PNA
Alveolar pattern with multi lobar or segmental involvement
67
Pleural effusion + Fever =
Empyema
68
What it’s he #1 cause of CAP in healthy individuals
Mycoplasma PNA
69
TXM for mycoplasma PNA
Self limiting | ABX = Doxycycline/ Azithromycin(faster course)
70
Describe chlamydia psittaci
Intra cellular Ag B/w bacterial and viral MOST ABX sensitivity Contact with BIRDS -parrots ; inhaled bird droppings
71
S/Sxs of psittaci
Fever Chest/ ABD Pain Confusion Hordes spots (pink rose blanched maculopaular rash)
72
TXM for C. Psittaci
Azithromycin (best) | Doxycycline
73
Legionella pneumophila, where and when?
Aqueous habitats Cruise ship water Contaminated cool water Late summer / autumn
74
Legionella sxs
Neuro GI sxs - diarrhea Liver Kidney involvement
75
Who is most often affected by klebsiella
Alcoholics that are incapacitated
76
What presents with prolonged cough bouts gagging + vomiting + apneic spells and would appear normal between cough fits
Pertussis
77
Best TXM for pertussis
Azithromycin
78
frenal ulcer is most common with what disease
Pertussis