Block 1 Flashcards
(158 cards)
1
Q
When did the Department of Labor create the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)?
A
April 28, 1971
2
Q
Ensure safe and healthful working conditions for working men and women by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach, education, and assistance
A
OSHA
3
Q
Principle federal agency engaged in research to eliminate on the job hazards and the TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE to OSHA
A
National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
4
Q
SECNAVISNT 5100.10 series
A
DON Policy for Safety, Mishap Prevention, Occupational Health and Fire Protection Programs
5
Q
OPNAVINST 5100.23 series
A
Navy Occupational Safety and Health Program Manual
6
Q
OPNAVINST 5100.19 series
A
Navy Occupational Safety and Health Program Manual for Forces AFLOAT
7
Q
What are the three volumes of the OPNAVINST 5100.19?
A
Volume I: NAVOSH and Major Hazard Specific Programs
Volume II: Surface Ship Safety Standards
Volume III: Submarine Safety Guideline
8
Q
NAVMED P 5010 3 REV 2, Chapter 3
A
Prevention of Heat and Cold Stress Injuries/ Ashore, Afloat, and Ground Forces
9
Q
The science that deals with the recognition, evaluation, and control, of potential health hazards in the work environment
A
Industrial Hygiene
10
Q
A multi disciplinary field of general preventative medicine which is concerned with prevention and/or treatment of illness induced by factors in the workplace environment
A
Occupational Health
11
Q
What are the major disciplines of Occupational Health?
A
a. Occupational Medicine
b. Occupation Health Nursing
c. Epidemiology
d. Toxicology
e. Industrial Hygiene
f. Health Physics
12
Q
Who are the members of the Safety Council?
A
a. CO or XO (chairperson)
b. Safety Officer (recorder)
c. Training Officer
d. Department Heads
e. Medical Officer/Representative
f. Command Master Chief
13
Q
How often does the Safety Council meet?
A
Quarterly or sooner
14
Q
What are the responsibilities of Safety Council?
A
- DIRECTS corrective action for unsafe or unhealthful conditions
- Evaluates ship’s NAVOSH program
- Reviews issues/recommendations submitted by the Enlisted Safety Committee
15
Q
Enlisted Safety Committee
A
a. Safety Officer (senior member)
b. Divisional Safety Petty Officers
c. Chief Master at Arms
16
Q
How often does the Enlisted Safety Committee meet?
A
Quartely
17
Q
What are the responsibilities of Individual Crew Members “ALL HANDS”?
A
- Accomplish assigned tasks and follow all applicable directives
- Know and comply with all safety precautions, standards, and use of PPE
- Report suspected unsafe/unhealthful work conditions
18
Q
What issues should be immediately reported to their supervisor from All Hands?
A
a. Injury
b. Occupational illnesses
c. Property damage resulting from a mishap
19
Q
Who is the designated occupational safety and health official for the DON?
A
Assistant Secretary of the Navy (Shipbuilding and Logistics)
20
Q
Who implements and manages the NAVOSH program, establishes policy and standards for ALL Commanders. Establishes planning, programming, staffing and budgeting for NAVOSH programs?
A
Chief of Naval Operations
21
Q
Ensures subordinate commands: Conduct an aggressive NAVOSH program and Develops a NAVOSH Management evaluation mechanism for afloat commands
A
TYCOMS (Fleet Commanders)
22
Q
Assist afloat commands to ensure that afloat workplace Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) discrepancies beyond shipboard capability are identified and prioritized in the workload availability package
A
ISICs
23
Q
Ensures Occupational Safety and Health aspects are considered in design and engineering of all ships, aircraft, weapons, weapons systems, facilities and equipment, and Engineering control of significant occupational health problems (noise, asbestos, HAZMAT).
A
Commander Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEASYSCOM)
24
Q
Provides support in all aspects of Occupational Health, Industrial Hygiene and Environmental Health
A
Chief Bureau of Medicine and Surgery
25
Monitors safety and occupational health statistics and Provides direct support to fleet units on safety matters
Commander Naval Safety Center
26
Ensures all elements of the approved Navy Training Plan for NAVOSH afloat are properly executed
Navy Medicine Professional Development Center (NMPDC)
27
Conducts and aggressive and continuing program, designates command safety officer and ensures proper training. Establishes a Safety Council and Enlisted Safety Council.
Commanding Officer
28
Ensures compliance with current mishap reporting procedures, Ensures formal workplace safety inspections are conducted annually and IH surveys occur at least once during each operational cycle, and Establishes a hazard control and deficiency abatement program
Commanding Officer
29
Manages the NAVOSH program based on objectives established by the Commanding Officer, Reports Directly to the C.O. on occupational safety and health matters. Reports to the XO for the administration of the NAVOSH program
Safety Officer
30
Which Ships with have a primary duty Safety Officer assigned?
CVN - Carrier Nuclear
LHA - Landing Helo Assault
LHD - Landing Helo Dock
AS - Sub Tender
31
Who may be appointed as the collateral duty safety officer on small ships with a waiver?
Chief Petty Officers
32
Who does a Chief need a waiver from to be appointed as a collateral duty Safety Officer?
TYCOM
33
Direct access to the commanding officer regarding the MEDICAL ASPECS of the NAVOSH Program
Medical Officer/Medical Department Representative
34
Ensure Safe an Healthful Working Environment, Ensure work space is inspected and Hazard Free, and ensures all personnel are properly trained and have proper PPE?
Department Heads, Division Officers, and Work Center Supervisors
35
Inspect division spaces, submit safety hazard reports, advises DIVO on NAVOSH program status in the division.
Division Safety Petty Officers
36
What is the CORE of the NAVOSH Program?
Training, identification, control and elimination of safety and health hazards
37
What types of workplace inspections are there?
1. Safety Inspections
2. Industrial Hygiene Surveys
3. Job-site Observation
4. Master at Arms Force Inspections
5. Shipboard Safety Survey
6. INSURV
7. Civilian Officials
38
How often do Safety Inspections take place and how long are the inspection results retained?
1. Annually
| 2. Safety Officer retains the inspection results for 2 years
39
How long are the Safety inspection results retained?
at least 2 years
40
What does the Baseline Industrial Hygiene Survey contain?
a. Executive Summary of findings
b. Administrative Evaluation of IH and Occ Health Programs
c. List of eye hazardous processes
d. List areas requiring respiratory protection
e. Sound Level Survey with a list of noise hazardous areas
f. Air sampling results
g. Hazard evaluation
h. Ventilation Evaluation of exhaust systems to control contaminants
I. Medical Surveillance Requirements
j. Recommendations
41
When does a new Baseline IH Survey need to be done?
When system, equipment, or load out changes significantly affect onboard hazard and/or risk such as:
New or modified equipment, Introduction of new toxic chemical, Deterioration of existing controls
42
This workplace inspection's purpose is to detect and correct hazards resulting from worker noncompliance and frequent noncompliance may warrant a safety stand down
Job site Observation
43
When should a Job site Observation be performed?
During the work day or During evolutions
44
Who can do a random Job site Observation?
a. CO
b. XO
c. Dept. Heads
d. DIVO
e. Work Center Supervisors
45
Which workplace inspection may elicit an on the spot correction and is done by roving safety inspectors?
Master at Arms Force Inspections
46
Which workplace inspection report stays at the "ships" level and does not require a follow up?
Shipboard Safety Survey
47
Evaluates ship compliance to NAVOSH and to promote day to day safety awareness and compliance
INSURV
48
OPNAV 3120/5
Safety Hazard Report
49
Process by which identified hazards that are not able to be immediately corrected are record and tracked to completion
Hazard Abatement Program
50
What does RAC stand for?
Risk Assessment Code
51
This hazard may cause death, loss of facility or grave damage to national interest
I - Catastrophic
52
Hazard may cause severe injury, illness, property damage, damage to national interest
II - Critical
53
Hazard may cause minor injury, illness, property damage
III - Marginal
54
Hazard presents and minimal threat to personnel safety or health property
IV - Negligible
55
The likelyhood that a hazard will result in a mishap
Mishap Probability
56
Likely to occur immediately or in a short period of time
A (Mishap Prob code)
57
Probably will occur in time
B (Mishap Prob code)
58
May Occur in Time
C (Mishap Prob code)
59
Unlikely to Occur
D (Mishap Prob code)
60
What are the programs that fall under Occupational Safety and Health Programs?
1. Asbestos Control Program
2. Heat Stress Program
3. Hazardous Material Control and Management Program
4. Hearing Conservation Program
5. Sight Conservation Program
6. Respiratory Protection Program
61
Three methods of controlling hazards
a. Prevent the hazard at the design stage
b. Identify and eliminate existing hazards
c. Reduce the likelihood and severity of mishaps from hazards that cannot be eliminated
62
Name the Principles of Hazard Control (IN ORDER OF PREFERRED APPLICATION)
a. Substitution
b. Engineering Controls
c. Administrative Controls
d. PPE
63
Replacement of a process material of equipment having a lower hazard potential
Substitution
64
Primarily accomplished through design and advance planning
Engineering Controls
65
What are 2 types of Engineering Controls?
1. Isolation (Physical Separation)
| 2. Ventilation (Control of hazardous airborne substances)
66
What are 3 types of Isolation Controls?
a. Physical Barrier (machine guards)
b. Time barrier (timed operation of semi automatic equipment)
c. Distance Barrier (remote control)
67
What is an example of an Administrative Control?
Adjusting Work Schedules
68
A fibrous material which may contain iron, magnesium, calcium or sodium
Asbestos
69
What are some main characteristics of Asbestos
Fireproof, Acid resistant, High Tensile Strength, Good heating and electrical insulation properties
70
What is the temperature of the heat resistance of Asbestos?
500-1500 Celsius
71
Which type of asbestos material can be crumbled, pulverized or reduced to powder by hand pressure?
Friable
72
Type of Asbestos material that cannot be crumbled, pulverized or reduce to powder by hand pressure
Non-friable
73
Specific Work Activities that disturb the make up of asbestos materials
a. Punching
b. Grinding
c. Sanding
d. Machining
74
What are the two major diseases resulting from Asbestos exposure?
Lung Cancer
| Absbestosis
75
A tumor which lines the chest and abdominal cavity and suspected to also cause cancer in the GI tract
Malignant Mesothelioma
76
What time period does Mesothelioma usually present?
10-45 years later
77
T/f Mesothelioma is a common type of cancer in many populations
False. Rarely found in people that have not been exposed to Asbestos
78
This is a progressively worsening disease of the lung that is recognized as disabling or even a fatal occupational disease
Asbestosis
79
What are the positions on an EART (Emergency Asbestos Removal Team)?
a. Supervisor
b. Cutter
c. Cleaner
80
T/f It is possible to ID asbestos by visual inspection
False
81
What types of laboratory analysis are required to ID asbestos?
Polarized Light Microscopy
| Transfer Electron Microscopy
82
Basic Principles for Controlling Asbestos Hazards
a. Substitution with less hazardous materials
b. Engineering Controls
c. Administrative Controls (rotating personnel so they don't exceed PEL)
d. PPE
83
What type of PPE is used in Asbestos Control?
a. TYVEK (full body one piece, disposable coveralls)
b. Medium weight rubber gloves w/ thin under glove
c. Slip resistant plastic shoe covers or heavy polyethylene shoe covers (slip resistant)
d. Safety glasses or vented goggles
e. Respiratory Protection
84
What are the AMSP (Asbestos Medical Surveillance Program) inclusion criteria?
a. Identify signs and symptoms of asbestos related medical conditions as early as possible.
b. Identification of medical conditions which may increase employees risk of impairment
c. Placement of personnel into the AMSP based on history.
d. Placement into AMSP is depending upon INDUSTRIAL HYGIENE SAMPLING DATA
85
What trainings must EART personnel complete?
* (A-760-2166) Emergency Asbestos Response Team
| * Respirator Fit-Testing, Selection, and Maintenance
86
How many days is the (A-760-2166)?
2 day formal course
87
What is the Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)?
0.1 f/cc of air, calculated as an 8 hr time weighted average (TWA)
88
Excursion Limit (EL) for Asbestos
1.0 f/cc averaged over 30 min sampling period
89
What is the personnel notification requirements of asbestos exposure?
Physician's Written Opinion
90
How is the Physician's Written Opinion distributed and what should it not include?
Copy goes to the employee and employees command within 30 days.
Should not contain non-pertinent medical information
91
What are documents that need to be included in the AMSP?
1. SF 600 (Medical Matrix)
2. OPNAV 5100/15 Part IV
3. DD 2493-1
4. DD 2493-2
5. NAVMED 6260/5
6. NAVMED 6260/7
7. Physician's Written Opinion
92
SF 600
Preprinted Medical Matrix
93
OPNAV 5100/15 Part IV
Medical Department Determination
94
DD 2493-1
Initial Medical Questionnaire
95
DD 2493-2
Periodic Medical Questionnaire
96
NAVMED 6260/5
Periodic Health Evaluation, History and Physical Examination
97
NAVMED 6260/7
AMSP X-ray Interpretation for Pneumoconiosis
98
The Hearing Conservation Report to the Safety Officer should include what information?
All permanent threshold shifts toward deteriorated hearing and include:
1. Name
2. Rank
3. Work Center
4. Time Onboard
99
What are the elements of the Hearing Conservation Program?
a. Survey work environments
b. Modify work environments
c. Ensure periodic hearing tests are conducted
d. Provide training
100
NAVMED 6260/2
Hazardous Noise Warning Decal (8"x10")
101
Where should the NAVMED 6260/2 be placed?
Posted to the Outside doors/ hatches leading into a hazardous noise area
102
Where should the NAVMED 6260/2 be placed on a weather deck?
To INSIDE of hatches
103
What is the NAVMED 6260/2A used for?
Hazardous noise label (2"x2") labels smaller individual pieces of equipment that produce a hazardous noise
104
What are the hearing tests and medical surveillance in the Hearing Conservation Program?
a. Reference Hearing Test
b. Monitoring Hearing Test
c. Termination Hearing Test
105
DD 2215
Reference Audiogram
106
DD 2216
Monitoring Audiogram
107
Which noise level requires hearing protection?
85 db or higher
108
Noise levels above 104 db require?
Double hearing protection and placement in the HCP
109
Record of noise measurements shall be kept by the measuring activity for?
50 years
110
What defines a Significant Threshold Shift?
A change in hearing threshold relative to the current reference audiogram of an average of 10 dB or more at 2000, 3000, and 4000Hz in either ear
111
A positive STS indicates?
Poorer hearing
112
T/f If an STS is positive, the hearing levels are poorer than the reference audiogram
True
113
How long should you wait to retest after a positive STS?
14 hrs in a noise free environment
114
What should be done if first retest showed STS and if frequencies below 3000 Hz are involved?
Screen for any medical issues through otoscope and tympanometry
1. Record findings on an SF600
2. If findings are abnormal, health care evaluation must be obtained and individual followed until cleared medically
3. If findings are normal, perform a second retest
115
T/f Second retest be administered on the same day as the first retest
True
116
What should happen if the retest doesn't indicate STS?
Return to annual monitoring
117
What should you do if the second retest shows STS?
a. Hearing protection is evaluated
b. Results are forwarded to and audiologist and physician
c. Result of the second retest are used to re-establish a reference audiogram
118
When should Supervisors be notified in writing and what form is used?
Within 21 days of positive STS
| DD2216 will suffice
119
What are the primary means of protection in Noise Abatement strategies?
Engineering Controls
120
Controlling work schedules, and labeling noise hazardous areas are an example of what type of noise abatement strategy?
Administrative controls
121
4 Noise Abatement Strategies
a. Engineering Controls
b. Administrative controls
c. Substitution of less noisy operations
d. Personal Hearing Protection Devices
122
This person appoints the respiratory protection manager
CO
123
Main duties of a Respiratory Protection Officer
a. Ensure accurate guidance exists for respiratory protection
b. Develops and maintains a list of personnel in program
c. Provides guidance to supply officer on proper respirator types and adequate stock levels
d. Ensures respirator training for USERS, ISSUERS, and SUPERVISORs
e. Monitors program effectiveness
f. Ensures proper fit testing is performed
124
Ensures personnel who use respirators obtain training, fit-testing and received medical qualification
Department Heads/DIVOs
125
Requirements for Respirator Use
a. Personnel have been confirmed by MDR, and have no deployment limiting medical conditions
b. If IMR can't be confirmed, formal respirator certification using Medical Matrix exam (716) must be used
c. Examiner
d. Disposition
126
Who can be an Examiner for Respiratory Use certification?
Physician, RN, PA, Prev Med Tech, or an IDC
127
What are the three dispositions for Respirator use exams?
1. Medically qualified w/o restriction
2. Medically qualified w/ restrictions
3. Not medically qualified (MDR must sign)
128
Any material dispensed from a pressurized container using a gas propellant
Aerosal
129
A material tha under normal conditions of temperatures and pressure tends to occupy the space uniformly
Gas
130
What is considered an Oxygen Deficient Atmosphere?
Below 19.5%. Must be 19.5% by volume to use an air-purifying respirator
131
Respirators that remove air contaminants by filtering, or absorbing them as the air passes through the cartridge
Air purifying respirators
132
What are surgical masks used for in the respiratory program?
Should NEVER be used as an air-purifying respirator. MEDICAL and DENTAL use only. They do not provide protection agains air contaminants
133
T/f Military Gas Masks can be used in place of an Air purifying respirator
False. They are used for CBRNE only
134
Used to protect against an aerosol containing a volatile organic solvent and adds another level of protection
Pre-filters
135
Protects the user by supplying oxygen to ensure maintenance of life and the the environment is immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH)
Atmosphere Supplying Respirators
136
Under what circumstances are Atmosphere Supplying Respirators used?
When an environment is Immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH) or the contaminant has no warning property.
137
What are the 3 types of Air-line respirators?
Demand
Pressure Demand
Continuous Flow
138
This type of air-line respirator maintains continuous positive pressure within the face-piece, thus preventing contaminant leakage into the face piece
Pressure Demand
139
This type of air-line respirator supplies air to the user on demand (inhalation) which creates a negative pressure within the face piece
Demand
140
This type of air-line respirator provides a continuous positive pressure and flow of air within any of the breathing zone containment, thus preventing contaminant leakage into the containment.
Continuous Flow
141
This respirator consists of a face-piece, helmet, hood, a breathing tube and a source of air or oxygen all of which is carried by the wearer
Self-contained breathing apparatuses (SCBAs)
142
What are the two categories of SCBAs?
Closed-circuit (Rebreathing)
| Open-circuit
143
Exhaled air is expelled to the atmosphere and air is provided to the user from a compressed air cylinder
Open circuit SCBA
144
Carbon dioxide in exhaled breath is removed prior to re-breathing.
Closed-circuit SCBA
145
What are the different types of Open-circuit SCBAs?
1. Demand
2. Pressure demand
3. Emergency Escape Devices
4. Emergency Escape Breathing Device (EEBD)
146
This type of open-circuit SCBA must never be used for entry into a hazardous atmosphere
Emergency Escape Breathing Device (EEBD)
147
What is the measurement of iodine to water and time for the sanitation of the respirator face piece?
2 minutes in a water solution of iodine (0.8 ml of Iodine per L of water)
148
What temperature of water is used to sanitize a face piece?
110 - 122 F
149
What are the storage requirements of respirators?
1. Place respirator in a clean plastic bag or other container and seal
2. Zip lock plastic bag is preferred
3. Ensure the respirator is completely dry before sealing to prevent mildew
4. Store FLAT in a clean, dry, uncontaminated area without crowding which may distort the respirator face view
150
Respirator testing that may performed by using Isomyl acetate (banana oil), Saccharin mist, and Irritant smoke (Preferred method)
Qualitative Fit Testing
151
This type of respirator fit testing can only be performed by shore activities
Quantitative Fit Testing
152
X-Small Ear Plug?
White
153
Small Ear Plug
Green
154
Medium Ear Plug
Orange
155
Large Ear Plug
Blue
156
X-large Ear Plug
Red
157
What is the name of the single flange ear plugs the navy uses?
Ear Defender V-51R
158
What is the name of the triple flange ear plug the Navy uses?
Comfit, Triple Flange
