Block 1 Flashcards
(125 cards)
1
Q
Coordination of immune respond by innate cytokines
What is the purpose of the hypothalamus?
A
Increase body temp
2
Q
(Innate/Adaptive) immunity is nonspecific
A
Innate
3
Q
What does mast cell’s granules contain?
A
Histamines
4
Q
In the ROS/RNS system, as a result of superoxide dismutase, what is created?
A
Hydrogen peroxide
5
Q
Which antibodies are found in group O RBCs?
A
Anti-A and Anti-B
6
Q
What is found on the signaling tails of CD3?
A
ITAM
7
Q
In the ROS/RNS system, as a result of NADPH oxidase, what is created?
A
Superoxide
8
Q
Which antibodies are found in group AB RBCs?
A
None
9
Q
When complement pathway is activated, what happens?
A
- Opsonization of pathogens
- Direct killing of pathogens
- Recruitment of phagocytic cells
10
Q
What are the main pathways to activate the complement system?
A
- Classical
- MB-Lectin
- Alternative
11
Q
What happens after ZAP-70 is phosphorylated?
A
PLC gamma 1 is activated and then PIP2 is hydrolyzed
12
Q
Th1
Th2
Cell-mediated immunity
Humoral immunity
Match please!
A
Th1 w/ cell-mediated
Th2 w/ humoral
13
Q
What receptors recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)?
A
Innate recognition receptors called pattern recognition receptors
14
Q
Coordination of immune respond by innate cytokines
Which cytokines allow the different organs to initiate their respective duties?
A
- IL-1B
- IL-6
- TNF-a
15
Q
What does eosinophil’s granules contain?
A
Cationic proteins that can damage membranes of parasites
16
Q
Which genes are found in Class I regions?
A
HLA-A, B, C
17
Q
Where does the acute-phase response take place at?
A
Liver
18
Q
What phosphorylates ITAM modules found on CD3 and zeta chains to initiate TCR signaling?
A
Lck (kinase)
19
Q
What causes Gaucher’s Disease?
A
Deficiency in glucosylceramidase
20
Q
What does primary follicles in the spleen do?
A
Contain B cells not yet stimulated by antigens
21
Q
How do you treat myeloperoxidase deficiency?
A
Anti-fungals
22
Q
How do follicular dendritic cells activate naive B cells??
A
Hold antigens on cell surface
23
Q
Once Lck phosphorylates ITAM, what else is phosphorylated?
A
ZAP-70
24
Q
What happens when TNF-a is released in the blood stream?
A
Systemic edema, neutropenia, decreased blood volume which leads to multiple organ failure
25
Which leukocyte has granules that contains cationic proteins?
Eosinophils
26
MHC class II antigens are derived where?
Extracellular proteins or proteins in endocytic vesicles
27
Why does lymphocyte activation require a second co-stimulatory signal?
W/o second signal, it will be unable to respond to antigen in the future
28
Which genes are found in Class II regions?
DP, DQ, DR
29
Explain the immunological synapse powerpoint slide
PKC attaches to MHC thru low affinity
`
LFA-1 attaches to ICAM-1 to increase that affinity
30
Why are dendritic cells used for cancer vaccines?
Elicit strong T cell response due to:
1. captured DCs in vivo
2. antigens coupled to antibodies that bind to DCs
3. vaccines composed of ex-vivo generated DCs that are bound with antigens
31
Treg cells
1. Inhibits dendritic cells which lacks T cell activation
32
(Innate/Adaptive) immunity is specific
Adaptive
33
What is the cause of Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome?
Lack of MHC I or II expression
34
With a release of soluble mediators such as bradykinin, what kind of inflammatory symptom could you expect?
Pain
35
In the ROS/RNS system, as a result of myeloperoxidase, what is created?
Hypochlorous acid
36
Which antigens are found in group O RBCs?
None
37
What is the MOA of Sirolimus?
Inhibits IL-2 receptor signal transduction
38
What is the part of the antigen that the antibody or T cell receptors recognize called?
Epitope
39
What happens once PIP2 is hydrolyzed?
1. DAG moves and activates PKC which turns an inactive protein to an active one which increases cellular response
2. IP3 is activated and signals cytosolic calcium to influx which increase cellular response
40
What do natural killer cells do?
Kill virally infected or cancerous target cells WITHOUT previous exposure to them aka innate immunity
41
TFH cells
1. Activate B cells
| 2. Isotype switching and affinity maturation
42
Which dendritic cell is the best for activating naive B cells?
Follicular
43
How does the ROS connect to the RNS?
Superoxide to Peroxynitrite (NO3-)
44
TH17 cells
1. Comes from stromal and epithelial cells
2. Activates neutrophils
3. Extracellular bacteria
45
TAP proteins are required for loading MHC Class (I/II)
MHC Class I
46
Which leukocyte resembles basophils that come from a different lineage?
Mast cell
47
CD8 is found where?
Cytotoxic T cells
48
MHC class I antigens are derived where?
Cytoplasmic proteins
49
What does basophil's granules contain?
Histamines + cytokines
50
Where do T cells learn to become MHC (HLA) restricted and tolerant of self-antigens?
Thymus
51
Which dendritic cell is the best for producing type I IFN (a + B), which are important anti-viral cytokines?
Plasmacytoid
52
Adaptive immunity is also known as _______ immunity
Acquired
53
Which cells are considered the most effective antigen presenting cell in the body and is the most potent phagocytic cell?
Dendritic cell
54
Because of chronic granulomatous disease, patients are susceptible to what?
Recurrent bacterial + fungal infections
55
Where is Lck found?
Cytoplasmic tails of CD4 and CD8 co-receptor molecules
56
What is DiGeorge Syndrome?
Pt that lack a thymus
57
What proteins are required for loading MHC class I proteins w/ self antigen?
TAP proteins
58
CD3 is found where?
All T cells
59
When a bacterium is coated via the complement receptor and is bound to a fragment, what needs to be activated for phagocytosis?
C5a
60
Coordination of immune respond by innate cytokines
What allows the body temp to increase?
1. Hypothalamus
| 2. Fat + muscle
61
What is an epitope?
Part of the antigen that antibody or T cell receptors recognize
62
Which dose should you give to increase immunogenicity?
Intermediate, not too big nor small
63
What kind of composition would increase immunogenicity?
Complex, not simple
64
What are the subgroups of CD4+ T cells?
1. Th1
| 2. Th2
65
Defects in NADPH oxidase system leads to what disease?
Chronic granulomatous disease
66
What is the purpose of an eosinophil?
Kill parasites and participates in allergic rxn
67
If there is an intracellular virus, which MHC class would be activated?
MHC class I (CD8 T cells)
68
What is the purpose of a neutrophile?
First responders
69
Who are the first responders to an infection?
Neutrophiles
70
What are the primary lymphoid organs?
1. Bone marrow
| 2. Thymus
71
Lysozymes digest cell walls of (G+/G-)
G+, they have no LPS
They can attack G-, but they have a harder time
72
Do T cells recognize short or complex peptide sequences>
short
73
Defects in _________ leads to chronic granulomatous disease
NADPH oxidase system
74
Coordination of immune respond by innate cytokines
Which organ is responsible for the activation of complement?
Liver
75
Which dendritic cell is the best for activating naive T cells?
Conventional
76
What causes leukocyte adhesion deficiency?
Deficiency in CD18
77
What happens when TNF-a is released in the tissue?
Phagocytosis of bacteria, stuff is drained where it's supposed to
78
Which route would increase immunogenicity?
SubQ = best
| IV or intragastric = worst
79
Coordination of immune respond by innate cytokines
What do dendritic cells initiate?
Adaptive immune response
80
What causes X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency?
Absence of common cytokine receptor gamma
81
What is the function of the white pulp found in the spleen?
Contains lymphoid tissue w/ T cells
82
MHC class II is expressed on which cells?
1. DCs
2. Macrophages,
3. B cells
4. Thymic epithelial cells
83
In the ROS/RNS system, what creates hypochlorous acid?
Myeloperoxidase
84
Innate immunity is also known as ______ immunity
Natural
85
Lck phosphorylates ______ modules found on CD3 and zeta chains to initiate TCR signaling
ITAM
86
In the processing and presentation of antigen via MHC class II, proteins are internalized and taken where? And afterwards?
Endoplasmic reticulum, them golgi, then EXOcytic vesicle then on CD4 helper T cell
87
What phosphorylates ITAM to initiate TCR signaling?
Lck
88
Which antibodies are found in group A RBCs?
Anti-B
89
What is the function of the red pulp found in the spleen?
Destroys old RBCs
90
What does the secondary follicles do?
Consist of antigen-stimulated proliferating B cells
Forms plasma and memory cells when exposed to an antigen
91
If there is an extracellular bacteria, which MHC class would be activated?
MHC class II (CD4 T cells)
92
MHC class I is expressed on which cells?
All nucleated cells
93
Coordination of immune respond by innate cytokines
As a result of the hypothalamus and fat/muscle, what is the end result?
Decreased viral and bacterial replication, increased antigen processing and increased specific immune response
94
What are the secondary lymphoid organs?
1. Spleen
2. Lymph nodes
3. MALT
4. CALT
95
When a bacterium is detected, the complement receptors coat it with what?
C3b
96
CD4 is found where?
T helper cells
97
(Native/Denatured) form would provide increased immunogenicity
Denatured
98
What are the main barriers to infection?
1. Skin
2. Gut
3. Lungs
4. Eyes/nose/oral cavity
99
MHC diversity is based on what 3 things?
1. Heterozygosity
2. Allelic polymorphisms
3. SNPs
100
Coordination of immune respond by innate cytokines
What is the purpose of fat + muscle?
Protein and energy mobilization to increase body temp
101
When a bacterium is coated via the complement receptor, the coated bacterium binds to what?
CR1
102
What does the thymus do?
Matures T lympocytes
103
What happens to calcium once it is influxed into the cytoplasm (after IP3 is activated, etc)
Activates calmodulin, which activates calcineurin with the help of NFAT. NFAT goes into a nucleus and produces IL-2 mRNA
104
TH2 cells
1. Comes from bone marrow and goblet cells
| 2. Activates eosinophils, mast cells, and basophils
105
What does the bone marrow do?
Main source of hematopoietic stem cells which develop into erythrocytes, granulocytes, monocytes, etc
106
What is the major function of the spleen?
Trap antigens + microbes circulating in the blood (filters)
107
In the processing and presentation of antigen via MHC class II, what cuts off the CLIP?
MHC-DM
108
What is the purpose of a basophil?
Participates in allergic or parasitic responses
109
What must be breached in order to establish infection?
Epithelial surfaces
110
The proteasome is vital in which MHC class processing?
MHC class I
111
(Innate/Adaptive) immunity breaks down to humoral and cell-mediated
Adaptive
112
What happens after the phosphorylation of ITAM?
ZAP-70 comes along and is then phosphorylated by Lck
113
In the ROS/RNS system, what creates superoxide?
NADPH oxidase
114
How do you treat Gaucher's Disease?
Enzyme replacement therapy
115
Which antigens are found in group AB RBCs?
Both A + B
116
What is the purpose of the proteasome?
Removes damaged proteins from cytoplasm; required for degrading proteins to be presented on MHC class I
117
Coordination of immune respond by innate cytokines
What initiates adaptive immune response?
Dendritic cells
118
What is the highest % proportion of leukocytes in the blood? Lowest?
Highest - Neutrophiles
Lowest - Basophil
119
TH1 cells
1. Intracellular bacteria
| 2. Activates macrophages
120
Do B cells recognize short or complex peptide sequences?
complex
121
Mast cells resemble which leukocyte but come from a different lineage?
Basophils
122
In the ROS/RNS system, what creates nitric oxide?
Inducible nitric oxide synthase
123
In the ROS/RNS system, how does it get back to oxygen + water?
When hydrogen peroxide is catalyzed via catalae or gluthione peroxidase
124
What is the MOA of Tacrolimus?
Inhibits calcineurin (reduces IL-2 production)
125
What is the MOA of cyclosporine?
Inhibits calcineurin (reduces IL-2 production)
