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Human Anatomy - Practice Exams > Block 3: Practice Exam #1 > Flashcards

Block 3: Practice Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following are components of the Erector Spinae group EXCEPT:

A) Iliocostalis

B) Longissimus

C) Semispinalis

D) Spinalis

A

semispinalis

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2
Q

The function of the multifidus muscle is:

A) Extension

B) Eccentric contraction controlling lateral bending

C) Rotation of vertebral bodies

D) All of the above are functions of multifidus

A

All of the above are functions of multifidus

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3
Q

Which of the following does NOT have an insertion into the head?

A) Iliocostalis

B) Longissimus

C) Semispinalis

D) Spinalis

A

Semispinalis

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4
Q

The erector spinae muscles are innervated by which nerve?

A) dorsal primary rami of different levels

B) dorsal root ganglia

C) intercostals nerves

D) ventral primary rami of different levels

A

dorsal primary rami of different levels

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5
Q

The brain and the spinal cord comprise the _____________ nervous system.

A) autonomic

B) central

C) efferent

D) peripheral

A

central

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6
Q

If you pierced the posterior aspect of the spine, with a needle, all the way through to the spinal cord which of the following ligaments would NOT be pierced by the needle?

A) anterior longitudinal ligament

B) interspinous ligament

C) ligamentum flavum

D) supraspinous ligament

A

anterior longitudinal ligament

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7
Q

A fracture of the pars interarticularis in a lumbar vertebrae producing a collar on the “neck” of the “Scotty dog” is called:

A) lumbololysis

B) spondylolysis

C) spondylolithesis

D) spondylosis

A

spondylolysis

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8
Q

In a radical neck dissection, a surgeon accidentally cuts the hypoglossal nerve. Upon regaining consciousness the patient is asked to extend his/her tongue. What would you expect to happen?

A) the tongue points to the lesioned side

B) the tongue points away from the lesioned side

C) the tongue points in the middle

D) the tongue is unaffected and able to protrude normally

A

the tongue points to the lesioned side

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT innervated by a branch of the facial nerve?

A) levator anguli oris

B) levator labii superioris

C) zygomaticus minor

D) All of the above are innervated by the facial nerve

A

All of the above are innervated by the facial nerve

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10
Q

The maxillary portion (V2) of the trigeminal nerve exits the cranial cavity via the:

A) foramen ovale

B) foramen rotundum

C) foramen spinosum

D) superior orbital fissure

A

foramen rotundum

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11
Q

Both the lateral pterygoid muscle and the medial pterygoid muscle arise from the:

A) condylar process of the mandible

B) ramus of the mandible

C) sphenoid bone

D) zygomatic arch

A

sphenoid bone

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12
Q

A fly wanders into your eye causing you to blink. The sensation of a foreign object in your eye was carried to the brain via cranial nerve _________________ and the blink response was mediated via cranial nerve _______________________.

A) III, VII

B) III, V(V1)

C) V(V1), III

D) V(V1), VII

A

V(V1), VII

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13
Q

The MOST distinctive feature of the second cervical vertebra is the:

A) absence of the spinous process

B) lack of ligamentous attachments

C) odontoid process (Dens)

D) transverse process without foramina

A

odontoid process (Dens)

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14
Q

Which of the following is the nerve to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid?

A) axillary nerve

B) dorsal primary rami

C) spinal accessory nerve

D) vagus nerve

A

spinal accessory nerve

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15
Q

A cervical vertebra can be differentiated from a lumbar vertebra by the presence of:

A) bifid spinous process

B) cartilaginous body

C) narrow vertebral canal

D) presence of articulating surfaces

A

bifid spinous process

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16
Q

The chief peculiarity of the first cervical vertebra is:

A) bifid spinous process

B) no body

C) no transverse foramen

D) no transverse process

A

no body

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17
Q

The basilar artery terminates into what two branches?

A) anterior cerebral arteries

B) anterior communicating arteries

C) posterior cerebral arteries

D) posterior communicating arteries

A

posterior cerebral arteries

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18
Q

The median atlantoaxial joint allows which of the following head motions:

A) abduction/adduction

B) flexion/extension

C) lateral bending

D) rotation

A

rotation

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19
Q

Which ligament attaches directly to the Dens?

A) apical ligament

B) cruciform ligament

C) inferior longitudinal ligament

D) superior longitudinal ligament

A

apical ligament

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20
Q

The tough outer layer of connective tissue covering the spinal cord is called the:

A) arachnoid mater

B) dura mater

C) pia mater

D) tectorial membrane

A

dura mater

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21
Q

Spinal nerves exit the spinal column through the:

A) foramen magnum

B) intervertebral foramen

C) transverse foramen

D) vertebral foramen

A

intervertebral foramen

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22
Q

All of these ligaments help limit trunk flexion EXCEPT:

A) anterior longitudinal ligament

B) interspinous ligament

C) posterior longitudinal ligament

D) supraspinous ligament

A

anterior longitudinal ligament

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23
Q

Which is a characteristic of the posterior aspect of the atlas?

A) spinous process

B) sulcus of the vertebral artery

C) transverse foramen

D) transverse process

A

sulcus of the vertebral artery

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24
Q

Paralysis of the posterior belly of the digastric muscle would result from a lesion of which of the following nerves?

A) accessory nerve

B) ansa cervicalis

C) facial nerve

D) trigeminal nerve

A

facial nerve

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25
Q

A patient is unable to close her lips. Which of the following muscles is paralyzed?

A) lateral pterygoid

B) levator labii superioris

C) orbicularis oris

D) zygomaticus minor

A

orbicularis oris

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26
Q

Fracture through the foramen rotundum would cause a lesion of which of the following
nerves?

A) mandibular nerve (V3)

B) maxillary nerve (V2)

C) ophthalmic nerve (V1)

D) optic nerve

A

maxillary nerve (V2)

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27
Q

The anterior longitudinal ligament:

A) ends superiorly as the tectorial membrane

B) extends from the coccyx to the atlas

C) lies between the intervertebral disk and the dura

D) limits flexion of the vertebral column

A

extends from the coccyx to the atlas

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28
Q

The hypoglossal canal is a feature of which bone?

A) occipital

B) parietal

C) sphenoid

D) temporal

A

occipital

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29
Q

The superior orbital fissure contains all of the following EXCEPT:

A) abducens

B) ophthalmic nerve (V1)

C) optic nerve

D) trochlear nerve

A

optic nerve

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30
Q

All of the following statements concerning the vagus nerve are correct EXCEPT:

A) it contains parasympathetic fibers

B) it exits the skull via the foramen magnum

C) it innervates organs in the thorax

D) it innervates organs in the abdomen

A

it exits the skull via the foramen magnum

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31
Q

The presence of transverse foramen are unique to which vertebrae?

A) cervical

B) thoracic

C) lumbar

D) sacral

A

cervical

32
Q

Which of the following is NOT a suprahyoid muscle?

A) digastric

B) mylohyoid

C) geniohyoid

D) omohyoid (superior belly)

A

omohyoid (superior belly)

33
Q

The anterior triangle of the neck is bordered by the mandible superiorly, medially by the
cervical mid-line and laterally by the ________________________.

A) anterior border of sternocleidomastoid

B) posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid

C) anterior border of the trapezius

D) posterior border of the trapezius

A

anterior border of sternocleidomastoid

34
Q

The internal carotid artery contributes to the circle of Willis through which artery?

A) anterior communicating

B) basilar

C) middle cerebral

D) posterior cerebral

A

middle cerebral

35
Q

The terminal branch of the external carotid artery is the :

A) internal carotid artery

B) middle meningeal artery

C) superficial temporal artery

D) vertebral artery

A

superficial temporal artery

36
Q

The medial inferior portion of the orbit of the eye is made up of the:

A) frontal

B) maxilla

C) temporal

D) zygomatic

A

maxilla

37
Q

The frontal bone articulates with the parietal bones through the:

A) anterior fontanelle

B) coronal suture

C) lambda suture

D) sagittal suture

A

coronal suture

38
Q

The foramen ovale is a characteristic of the:

A) ethmoid bone

B) occipital bone

C) sphenoid bone

D) temporal bone

A

sphenoid bone

39
Q

The olfactory nerve is most closely associated with which bone?

A) ethmoid bone

B) occipital bone

C) sphenoid bone

D) temporal bone

A

ethmoid bone

40
Q

The rectus capitis posterior major is supplied by the

A) dorsal primary rami of C1

B) dorsal primary rami of C3

C) greater occipital nerve

D) lesser occipital nerve

A

dorsal primary rami of C1

41
Q

Your aunt calls long distance to say that her neighbor’s 5 year old son has a condition
called torticollis or “wryneck” and that his head is drawn to the right and rotated so that his chin is to the left. The position of his head indicates contraction of what muscle?

A) left sternocleidomastoid

B) left trapezius

C) right sternocleidomastoid

D) right trapezius

A

right sternocleidomastoid

42
Q

Most people have ________ cervical and __________ lumbar vertebrae.

A) 6; 5

B) 7;5

C) 7;6

D) 8; 5

A

7;5

43
Q

Which statement is TRUE about the true muscles of the back?

A) iliocostalis is the most medial of the three columns of erector spinae muscles

B) longissimus has a lumborum portion

C) the erector spinae flexes the vertebral column

D) they are innervated by many levels of the spinal cord through the dorsal primary rami

A

they are innervated by many levels of the spinal cord through the dorsal primary rami

44
Q

With regard to the vertebral column, which statement is TRUE:

A) excessive lordosis is an abnormal increase in the concavity of the lumbar vertebral column

B) the sacrum is formed from three fused vertebrae

C) the spinous process of a typical thoracic vertebrae tends to be square in shape

D) the supraspinous ligament courses from one adjacent lamina to another

A

the spinous process of a typical thoracic vertebrae tends to be square in shape

45
Q

Motor innervation of the facial muscles attaching to the upper lip is from the ________
branch of the facial nerve (CN VII), while cutaneous innervation from the upper lip is carried through the ______________ branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V).

A) buccal; mandibular

B) buccal; maxillary

C) mandibular; maxillary

D) zygomatic; mandibular

A

buccal; maxillary

46
Q

Which of the following innervates the muscle responsible for moving the eye down and out?

A) abducens nerve (CN VI)

B) oculomotor nerve (CN III)

C) trigeminal nerve, ophthalmic division (V1)

D) trochlear nerve (CN IV)

A

abducens nerve (CN VI)

47
Q

A blow to the pterion region of the skull could damage the:

A) facial artery

B) middle cerebral artery

C) middle meningeal artery

D) occipital artery

A

middle meningeal artery

48
Q

The tectorial membrane is continuous with the:

A) anterior longitudinal ligament

B) dura mater

C) ligamentum nuchae

D) posterior longitudinal ligament

A

posterior longitudinal ligament

49
Q

Which muscle originates on a transverse process and inserts on a spinous process up to three levels above its origin?

A) long rotator

B) multifidus

C) short rotator

D) spinalis

A

multifidus

50
Q

Which of the following nerves does NOT travel through the jugular foramen?

A) glossopharyngeal

B) hypoglossal

C) spinal accessory

D) vagus

A

hypoglossal

51
Q

Which cranial nerve does NOT exit the skull?

A) facial

B) trigeminal

C) trochlear

D) vestibulocochlear

A

vestibulocochlear

52
Q

The spinal contributions to the phrenic nerve are?

A) C1, C2, C3

B) C3, C4, C5

C) C5, C6, C7

D) L4, L5, S1

A

C3, C4, C5

53
Q

The parietal bones are separated from the occipital bone by the _________ suture.

A) coronal

B) lamboid

C) sagittal

D) squamous

A

lamboid

54
Q

The zygomatic arch is comprised of processes from the zygomatic bone and the _______ bone.

A) ethmoid

B) frontal

C) parietal

D) temporal

A

temporal

55
Q

Which of the suprahyoid muscles is NOT innervated by a cranial nerve?

A) digastric

B) geniohyoid

C) mylohyoid

D) stylohyoid

A

geniohyoid

56
Q

Which infrahyoid muscle has an origin on the superior medial aspect of the scapula?

A) levator scapulae

B) omohyoid

C) sternohyoid

D) trapezius

A

omohyoid

57
Q

Which of these structures is NOT found in the anterior triangle of the neck?

A) brachial plexus

B) common carotid artery

C) internal jugular vein

D) vagus nerve

A

brachial plexus

58
Q

If a benign tumor is found where the common carotid artery usually bifurcates, it would be located at the level of the

A) angle of the mandible

B) cricoid cartilage

C) jugular notch

D) thyroid cartilage

A

thyroid cartilage

59
Q

A man is unable to open his jaw because of paralysis of which of the following muscles?

A) lateral pterygoid

B) masseter

C) medial pterygoid

D) temporalis

A

lateral pterygoid

60
Q

The tongue of a patient deviates to the left on protrusion. Which of the following nerves is injured?

A) left glossopharyngeal

B) left hypoglossal

C) right glossopharyngeal

D) right hypoglossal

A

left hypoglossal

61
Q

The anterior scalene muscle

A) descends posterior to the subclavian artery

B) inserts on the second rib

C) is innervated by the phrenic nerve

D) runs anterior to the brachial plexus

A

runs anterior to the brachial plexus

62
Q

Following resection of a primary tongue tumor, a patient has lost general sensation on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue. This is probably due to injury to branches of which of the following nerves?

A) facial

B) glossopharyngeal

C) hypoglossal

D) trigeminal

A

trigeminal

63
Q

When the middle meningeal artery is ruptured but the meninges remain intact, blood enters which space?

A) epidural space

B) subarachnoid space

C) subdural space

D) subpial space

A

subdural space

64
Q

Which of the following conditions results from severance of the abducens nerve?

A) lateral deviation of the eye

B) loss of ability to dilate the pupil

C) medial deviation of the eye

D) ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid)

A

medial deviation of the eye

65
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves is necessary for elevation of the eyeball?

A) abducens (CN VI)

B) oculomotor (CN III)

C) trigeminal (CN V)

D) trochlear (CN IV)

A

oculomotor (CN III)

66
Q

Which of the following muscles remain functional after a complete interruption of cranial nerve III (oculomotor)?

A) ciliary muscle

B) lateral rectus

C) medial rectus

D) superior rectus

A

lateral rectus

67
Q

The mandibular division of trigeminal nerve conveys cutaneous sensory information from:

A) cheek bone

B) forehead

C) the lower lip

D) the upper lip

A

the lower lip

68
Q

Which nerve travels with the vestibulocochlear nerve into the internal auditory meatus before exiting the skull?

A) abducens

B) facial

C) hypoglossal

D) trigeminal

A

facial

69
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT carry motor fibers to skeletal muscles?

A) facial

B) glossopharyngeal

C) hypoglossal

D) trigeminal (V2)

A

trigeminal (V2)

70
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the cruciform ligament?

A) alar band

B) inferior longitudinal band

C) superior longitudinal band

D) transverse band

A

alar band

71
Q

The odontoid process articulates with the __________ of the atlas.

A) fovea dentis

B) lateral mass

C) occipital condyle

D) superior facet

A

fovea dentis

72
Q

The lateral border of the suboccipital triangle is formed by the:

A) obliquus capitis inferior

B) obliquus capitis superior

C) rectus capitis posterior major

D) rectus capitis posterior minor

A

obliquus capitis superior

73
Q

Areas for rib articulations are unique characteristics of the:

A) cervical spine

B) lumbar spine

C) sacral spine

D) thoracic spine

A

thoracic spine

74
Q

Damage to the oculomotor nerve (CN III) would result in the orienting the eye in which position?

A) Down and In

B) Down and Out

C) Up and In

D) Up and Out

A

down and out

75
Q

If the glossopharyngeal nerve carries the afferent fibers for the “Gag” reflex, which nerve carries the efferent fibers?

A) Facial

B) Hypoglossal

C) Trigeminal

D) Vagus

A

vagus

Human Anatomy - Practice Exams (11 decks)

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