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Block 3 Quiz Question Flashcards

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1
Q

The normal pressure in the CRJ 200 Hydraulic system is

A

3000 PSI

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2
Q

(TRUE OR FALSE)

Hydraulic 3 system powers both IB and OB brakes.

A

False

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3
Q

How are the HYD 1 and HYD 2 systems cooled?

A

Air-to-air exchanger in the Ram Air Duct.

Fan cooled on the ground.

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4
Q

With the HYD PUMP switches in AUTO, the HYD 1B and HYD 2B pumps will run when
the pressure in either hydraulic system drops below a preset value.

A

the flaps are out of the 0 position.

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5
Q

(True or False) The HYD 3B pump can be powered by the ADG.

A

True

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6
Q

(True or False) If AC BUS 2 is not powered, the HYD 1A pump will not be powered.

A

False

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7
Q

How can the HYD SOV be closed?

A

Fire button

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8
Q

In the event of a complete electrical failure, what systems will receive power?

A

Landing gear
Brakes
Nose wheel steering
Primary Flight Controls

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9
Q

. (True or False) The fluid from HYD 1 system and HYD 2 system is completely independent (they never mix).

A

True

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10
Q

True or False) IDG 2 must be operating for HYD 1B to operate.

A

True

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11
Q

(True or False) The ACMP 1B will automatically start if the left engine fails.

A

False

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12
Q

With the HYD 3B pump in the AUTO position, when will the pump run?

A

Flaps out of 0

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13
Q

What is the normal hydraulic fluid quantity?

A

45-85%

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14
Q

. (True or False) Hydraulic fluid quantity should be checked with the HYD pumps ON.

A

True

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15
Q

(True or False) If Gen 2 fails, HYD 1B will not be operational with the switch in the AUTO position.

A

True

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16
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the landing gear extension and retraction?

A

Hydraulic 3`

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17
Q

. (True or False) The landing gear is held up in position by mechanical uplocks.

A

True

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18
Q

(True or False) The landing gear position indication is always visible on ED1.

A

False

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19
Q

When will a TOO LOW GEAR aural warning be activated?

A

Radio altitude <500’ AGL

Airspeed less than 190 KIAS

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20
Q

. (True or False) The nose wheel does not have a fusible plug to release excessive air pressure caused by heat build-up

A

True

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21
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Proximity Sensing System?

A

None of the Above

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22
Q

Which wheel brakes are powered by Hydraulic System 3?

A

Inboard

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23
Q

Explain the process for checking the brakes for excessive wear.(/1 pts

A

Utilizing the break wear indicator pins that show wear on the brakes. Must be checked with brakes applied and HYD SYS 2 and 3 systems on

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24
Q

How many brake applications are possible with a total failure of Hydraulic 2 and 3 systems?

A

6 applications

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25
At what temperature is a brake overheat warning triggered?
360C
26
How will you know that a brake has overheated?(/
Break Overheat annunciator will sound when above 6. It will also indicate on EFD
27
(True or False) The Hydraulic 2 and 3 systems must be operative in order for the parking brake to hold.
True
28
What is the minimum speed that anti-skid is operative?
10 KTS
29
Using nose wheel steering, the nose wheel turns  _____ | degrees either side of center.
70
30
Steering with the rudder pedals is limited to  _____ | degrees either side of center.
7
31
(True or False) While the aircraft is on the ground, it is possible to open the nose door from outside the aircraft.
False
32
Which of the following are PRIMARY flight controls on the CRJ 200?
Ailerons Elevator Rudder Spoilerons
33
How many degrees deployment is ¾ deployment for the Flight Spoilers?
33
34
(True or False) The lateral control systems are interconnected and may be disconnected if jammed.
True
35
(True or False) The ailerons are completely “fly-by-wire” control.
False
36
What physically moves the aileron when the flight control column in the cockpit is moved?
Hydraulic Power Control Unit
37
(True or False) When completing the exterior preflight inspection with the APU running and the hydraulic pumps ON, you will not be able to move the ailerons manually.
True
38
What are the required steps in order to handle an aileron control jam?
If an aileron control jam occurs you must use the roll disconnect manually. It allows some control. Twenty seconds after pulling the roll disconnect handle, ROLL SEL lights will illuminate. Then you must select roll priority with ROLL SEL switch light.
39
(True or False)  There is a YAW Control disconnect handle that is used in the case of a rudder jam.
False
40
(True or False)  For longitudinal control, the pilot’s control wheel moves the left half of the elevator and the co-pilots’ control wheel moves the right half.
True
41
(True or False)  After a flap motor failure, the flaps will continue to operate but at half speed.
True
42
What is the maximum flap extension speed for flaps full down?
170 KIAS
43
Which of the following is NOT a flap position in the CRJ 200?
40°
44
What is the maximum speed that the flight spoilers can be deployed?
No Limit
45
(True or False) The flaps may be used during holding procedures.
False
46
What is the maximum altitude for flap extension?
15,000MSL
47
What is the minimum altitude for flight spoiler deployment?
300’ AGL (Manufacturer Limitation) 800’ (UND Limitation)
48
What is the difference between a PCU runaway and a Aileron Jam?  Include pilot response to both
If a PCU runway occurs, the SECU’s command both spoilerons to respond to control wheel inputs. The green ROLL SEL light illuminates and the PLT or CPLT ROLL CMD advisory message is displayed on the EICAS status page. The roll disconnect handle should then be pulled
49
(True or False) Both stall protection switches must be ON for all phases of flight.
True
50
All eight spoiler panels (GLD, FLT SPOILERS, SPOILERONS) will deploy on landing under when which of the following conditions are met:
Both Thrust Levers Idle Weight on wheels (Both mains) RA below 5 feet Wheel speed above 16 KTS
51
When will the GLD retract after landing?
Either thrust lever greater than IDLE 
52
When will a FLAPS FAIL message be indicated on ED1?(/1 pts )   
Indicates that the flap electronic control unit or FECU has failed or that an asymmetric condition exists.
53
During a dual engine failure, explain what will occur to the flight control system and which flight controls will be available and which will not
 All primary flight controls will be available.
54
How many PCUs does the rudder have?
3
55
. Which side of the elevator is the autopilot servo attached?
LEft
56
Which side of the elevator is the Stall Protection System attached?
Right
57
How many PCSs does each aileron have?
2
58
Which flight controls have flutter dampers?
Ailerons | Elevators
59
The CRJ 200 uses ____VAC power and  ____VDCpower.
115 VAC | 28 VDC
60
The CRJ 200 has    _______ AC electrical busses.
6
61
The CRJ 200 has   _______DC electrical busses.
10
62
DC power is supplied by:
5 TRUs
63
Each engine driven generator produces_______KVa up to an altitude of 35,000 ft.
30KVA
64
Each engine driven generator produces_______KVa above 35,000 ft.
25KVA
65
(True or False) Each engine driven generator produces 115 Volt DC power.
FALSE
66
What is/are the purpose(s) of the Generator Control Units (GCU)?
Protects the electrical system from overcurrent. Protects the electrical system from faults. Regulates generator voltage.
67
(True or False) In the event of a malfunction, the GCU will automatically disconnect the faulty generator.
True
68
AC Essential Bus normally receives power from which Bus?
AC Bus 1
69
How can the pilot tell if the AC Essential Bus is not receiving power from its normal source?
AC ESS XFER annunciator illuminates | AC Electrical Synoptic Page
70
Refer to the picture above, what is the most likely cause of the above indications?
AC BUS Short 1
71
Refer to the picture above, how could we get the UTIL BUS 1 and UTIL BUS 2 back online?
Start up the APU and turn the APU Gen ON. 
72
(True or False) It is possible to re-engage an IDG if it is Manually disconnected in flight.
True
73
What does the FAULT light on the IDG button indicate?
Either High Oil Temp or Low Oil Pressure in the IDG 
74
What does the DISC light on the IDG button indicate?
The IDG has automatically been disconnected due to an over torque or over temp condition. The IDG has be manually disconnected by the pilot. The Generator will no longer be available for the duration of the flight.
75
(True or False) The ADG is capable of producing 115Volts AC power.
True
76
. The ADG generator is rated at     ________ KVa.
15KVA
77
The ADG powers which of the following busses when it is deployed?
AC Essential Bus 
78
The ADG will continue to supply electrical power down to an airspeed of _____KIAS.  
100KIAS
79
(True or False) The ADG can be restowed (put away) in flight.
False
80
(True or False) The ADG will deploy on the ground.
False
81
. The TRUs convert 115 Volt AC power to  _____Volt DC.
28 VDC
82
The TRUs are rated at   _____ amps.
100 amps
83
What is the capacity of the Main Battery?
24 Volt 17 amp/hr 
84
What is the capacity of the APU Battery?
24 Volt 43amp/hr 
85
If the DC Service switch is turned ON which of the following busses will receive power?
DC Service Bus 
86
What does the ESS TIE annunciator indicate?
DC Essential Bus is not receiving power from its normal source. 
87
(True or False) The ESS TIE switch/light can only be selected manually.
True

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