Block 4 Flashcards
(55 cards)
1
Q
How is Foot and Mouth Disease transmitted? o Inhalation (aerosol) o Fomites o Artificial insemination o All of the above o None of the above
A
All of the above
2
Q
Foot and Mouth Disease is a notifiable disease. True or False?
A
True
3
Q
Why is Foot and Mouth Disease hard to eradicate? o Non-compliance from farmers o FMD is also seen in wildlife o Antigenic drift of the virus o FMD has been globally eradicated
A
FMD is also seen in wildlife
4
Q
What is the first clinical sign seen in Foot and Mouth Disease of swine? o Lameness o Large vesicles on the snout o Mastitis o Abortion
A
Lameness
5
Q
Which of the following is a characteristic clinical sign in cattle with Foot and Mouth Disease? o Fever o Lameness o Drop in milk production o Smacking sounds
A
Smacking sounds
6
Q
The only treatment for Foot and Mouth disease is euthanasia of infected animals. True or False.
A
True
7
Q
Reoviridae (Blue Tongue Virus, African Horse Sickness, etc.) can be destroyed by lipid solvents and changes in pH. True or False?
A
False
8
Q
How are Reoviridae transmitted? o Arthropods o Fecal-oral o Fomites o Inhalation
A
Arthropods
9
Q
Blue Tongue Virus in a notifiable disease? True or False?
A
True
10
Q
Blue Tongue Virus is non-contagious. True or False?
A
True
11
Q
Blue Tongue Virus affects ruminants (sheep, goats, cattle, deer) and causes which clinical signs?
o Oral erosions and ulcerations
o Swollen and protruding cyanotic tongues
o Coronitis
o All of the above
A
All of the above
12
Q
What is the common cause for death of animals infected with Blue Tongue Virus? o Anorexia o Aspiration pneumonia o Secondary bacterial infections o Euthanasia
A
Aspiration pneumonia
13
Q
When considering a diagnosis of Blue Tongue Virus you should have a differential list of: Foot and Mouth Disease, vesicular stomatitis, malignant catarrhal fever, Bovine Viral Diarrhea, and Actinobacillosis. True or False?
A
True
14
Q
African Horse Sickness can infect all equid species. True or False?
A
True
15
Q
African Horse Sickness has two forms, cardiac and pulmonary form, with the cardiac form being the most lethal. True or False
A
False
the pulmonary form is the most lethal; mortality rate = 95%
16
Q
Feline Calicivirus causes which type of infection in cats? o Gastrointestinal o Reproductive o Respiratory o All of the above
A
Respiratory
Feline Calicivirus is one of two major viruses that cause respiratory disease in cats
17
Q
Feline Calicivirus is transmitted through aerosol and fomites. Items such as food/water bowls, brushes, scratching poles, and cat trees are the main vectors for transmission. True or False?
A
False
humans are the main vectors
18
Q
Which of the following are a diagnostic feature of Feline Calicivirus? o Pneumonia o Conjunctivitis o Pulmonary edema o Mouth ulcerations
A
Mouth ulcerations
19
Q
Which of the following is seen with an infection of Avian Leukosis and Sarcoma? o Lymphoid leukosis o Osteopetrosis o Osteogenic sarcoma o All of the above
A
All of the above
20
Q
A characteristic feature of Ovine Pulmonary Adenomatosis (Jaagsiekte) are pea-sized nodules of the lymph nodes. True or false?
A
False
the pea-sized nodules are seen in the lungs
21
Q
Clinical signs of progressive weight loss, dyspnea, coughing, and nasal discharge are associated with which of the following? o Maedi o Visna o Equine Infectious Anemia o Feline Immunodeficiency Virus
A
Maedi
22
Q
Clinical signs of hind limb weakness, paresis, and paraplegia are associated with which of the following? o Maedi o Visna o Equine Infectious Anemia o Feline Immunodeficiency Virus
A
Visna
23
Q
Caprine Arthritis Encephalomyelitis most commonly affects goats that are less than 6 months old. True or False?
A
False
it affects goats that are 12 months old
24
Q
How is Equine Infectious Anemia transmitted? o Fecal-oral o Aerosol o Fomites o Arthropods
A
Arthropods
25
Feline Immunodeficiency virus is associated with a short subclinical stage followed by clinical signs of fever, weight loss, behavioral changes, etc. True or False?
False
| FIV has a long subclinical stage
26
To prevent and control the spread of Simian Immunodeficiency Virus the same precautions should be taken as with Human Immunodeficiency Virus because they are similar diseases. True or False?
True
27
Swollen lymph nodes, panleukopenia, hemorrhages, and splenomegaly are commonly associated with Bovine Immunodeficiency Virus. True or False?
True
28
```
Which of the following is an important enzyme of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus?
o Reverse transcriptase
o Integrase
o Protease
o All of the above
```
All of the above
29
```
What are the receptors essential for HIV viral penetration into host cells?
o CCR5 and CXCR4 (CD4)
o CCR4 and CXCR5 (CD4)
o CCR4 and CXCR4 (CD4)
o CCR5 and CXCR5 (CD4)
```
CCR5 and CXCR4 (CD4)
30
The number of CD4 T cells a person has differentiates them as a HIV patient from an AIDS patient. True or False?
True
31
CD4 cell counts of below 400 define a person as AIDS positive. True or False?
False
| AIDS patients have a CD4 count of below 200
32
Prions are proteinaceous infectious particles that have the ability to convert normal proteins into abnormal forms. True or False?
True
33
Prions can be inactivated by heat and chemicals. True or False?
False
34
Prion diseases are called Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies and are distinguished by large vacuoles and plaques in brain tissue. True or False?
True
35
```
Which of the following are characteristic of an infection of Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies?
o Loss of motor control
o Encephalitis
o Dementia
o All of the above
```
All of the above
36
The only way that Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies can be transmitted are through ingestion and surgery (e.g. corneal transplants). True or False?
False
| TSE can also be hereditary infections
37
```
Which prion disease was discovered in the Fore tribe in New Guinea and was determined to be caused by endocanibalism?
o Kuru
o Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
o Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
o Gerstmann-Straussler Syndrome
```
Kuru
38
Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE, Mad Cow Disease) is a notifiable disease. True or False?
True
39
```
What is the incubation period for Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy?
o 1 month
o 4-6 months
o 14 months
o 2-8 years
```
2-8 years
40
```
There is evidence that Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy gave rise to which of the following diseases?
o Kuru
o Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
o Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
o Gerstmann-Straussler Syndrome
```
Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
41
Mortality rate of Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy is 100% because there is no treatment. True or False?
True
42
```
What is the incubation period for Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)?
o 1 month
o 4-6 months
o 14 months
o 2-8 years
```
4-6 months
43
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease is transmitted through ingesting BSE contaminated food products. True or False?
False
44
Immunity to a virus depends on which of the following?
o Development of an immune response (IgA)
o Successful vaccine against a virus
o Nature of surface glycoprotein on virus
o All of the above
All of the above
45
The four types of vaccines are as follows: killed/inactive, attenuated/weakened, subunit, and DNA vaccines. True or False?
True
46
```
Which of the following is a problem with vaccine development and success?
o Antigenic drift and shift
o Recombination
o Mutation
o All of the above
```
All of the above
47
In a vaccine what is the function of the adjuvant?
o Adjuvants prevent the vaccines from stinging upon administration
o Adjuvants give vaccines their color
o Adjuvants are immunopotentiators
o All of the above
Adjuvants are immunopotentiators
48
```
Which of the following is the safest available Rabies vaccine for human use?
o Human Diploid Cell Vaccine
o Purified Chick Embryo Cell Vaccine
o Imovax Rabies Vaccine
o None of the above
```
Human Diploid Cell Vaccine
49
Human Papilloma Virus vaccines protect against cervical cancer in women and genital warts in men. True or False?
True
50
The mechanism of action of antiviral drugs is the inhibition of viral replication. True or False.
True
51
The only targets for antiviral drugs are attachment/entry, nucleic acid replication, virus protein processing, virus maturation, and budding. True or False?
True
52
When giving a drug cocktail and the patient develops diarrhea or vomiting there is no need to change the antivirals in the cocktail because not all of the drugs are causing toxicity. True or False?
False
| change the drugs in the cocktail when signs of toxicity develop
53
```
The antiviral drugs Acyclovir, Ganciclovir, Zidovudine, Foscarnet, and Cidofovir are drugs that treat what type of viral infection?
o Herpesvirus
o Influenza virus
o Retrovirus
o All of the above
```
Herpesvirus
54
```
The antiviral drugs Oseltamivir, Zanamivir, Amantadine, Rimantadine, and Ribavirin are drugs that treat what type of viral infections?
o Herpesviruses
o Influenza viruses
o Retroviruses
o All of the above
```
Influenza virus
55
The types of antiretroviral drugs include which of the following?
o Reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and fusion inhibitors
o Reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, fusion inhibitors, and chemokine co-receptor antagonists (CCR5)
o Reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, fusion inhibitors, chemokine co-receptor antagonists (CCR5), and integrase inhibitors
o Reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, fusion inhibitors, chemokine co-receptor antagonists (CCR5), integrase inhibitors, and neuraminidase inhibitors
Reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, fusion inhibitors, chemokine co-receptor antagonists (CCR5), and integrase inhibitors
