Block I And II Review Flashcards

(117 cards)

1
Q

Where are Nm receptors found

A

Somatic skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where does succinylcholine work

A

Nm receptors on skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bethanechol

A
  • bowels and bladder
  • used for pts with urinary retention and gastric atony
  • M agonist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pyridostigmine

A
  • Tx for MG
  • works on No receptor
  • doesn’t enter CNS, no convulsions
  • Achase inhibitors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Autoimmune disease where Ab to the Na receptors are produced; it causes weakness in skeletal muscles especially in the facial area

A

MG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Toxicity of Achase inhibitors

A

DUMBBEELSS: diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchoconstriction, bradycardia, excitation (of skeletal muscle and CNS), emesis, lacrimation, salivation, and sweating

Toxicity resembles too much parasympathetic stimulation + sweating + nicotinic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment for Achase inhibitors

A

Atropine
-blocks M, doesn’t stop any Nm

Pralidoxime used in extreme cases to keep diaphragm from stoping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Atropine

A
  • M blocker
  • belladonna alkaloid
  • central and PNS
  • used for Achase inhibitor poisoning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tropicamide

A
  • shorter half life
  • dilated eye exam
  • M blocker
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Succinylcholine

A
  • Nm blocker that persistently stimulates skeletal muscle until it causes paralysis (depolarizing)
  • can cause hyperkalemia
  • can cause malignant hyperthermia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Epi

A
  • a1,a2,B1,B2 agonist
  • low dose: beta, decrease BP
  • high doses: alpha, increase BP
  • used for anaphylaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Phenylephrine

A

A1 agonist

  • increases BP, reflex Brady
  • dilated eye exam
  • nasal decongestant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Prazosin

A
  • blocks a1a receptors
  • used for BPH and HTN
  • may cause orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

No specific B blockers

A

N-Zolols

-bad for COPD and vasospatic angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

B1 specific blockers

A

A-Molols

-atenolol and metoprolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Alpha 1 and B blockers

A

Labetolol and carvedolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Sotalol

A

B blocker, K channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Clinical uses of B blockers

A
Glaucoma
HTN (2nd line)
CHF (1st line)
SVTs
Stable angina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vasospastic angina and B blockers

A

Never use!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the best combo for CHF

A

ACEI and BBlocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Adverse effects of B blockers

A
  • bronchoconstriction
  • hypotension, bradycardia, fatigue, drowsiness
  • increased plasma lipids;TGs and LDLs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drugs for HTN increase lipids?

A

B blockers and Thiazieds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which drugs could cause increased GI motility

A

Bethanechol

Pyridostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which drugs could decrease GI motility

A

Atropine

Tropicamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which drugs lower BP
Prazosin Atenolol,metoprolol M agonist (bethanechol) Epi in low doses
26
What drugs would raise BP
Epi in high doses | Phenylephrine
27
Competitive antagonism
Right shift | -maximal effect is not decreased
28
Non competitive antagonism
Maximal effect is shifted down
29
Potentiation
Curve shifts left | Allosteric agonist
30
Refers to the concentration required to produce 50% of that drugs maximal response (EC50)
Potency | -the graph most left is the most potent
31
Reflects the upper limit response relation on the response axis (Emax)
Efficacy | -height, tallest curve
32
When pH is less than PKA, the protonated forms __________ dominate
HA and BH+
33
When pH is greater than PJa, the deprtonates form ________ predominate
A- and B
34
Increased urine pH
Acid is ionized, gets eliminated
35
Decreased urine pH
Base gets ionized, gets eliminated
36
Weeks acid overdoes
Bicarbonate
37
Weak base overdoes
NH4Cl
38
What do we want to manipulate to correct ph balance
Urine ph
39
Stomach ph
1
40
Small intestine ph
6
41
Blood ph
7.4
42
Urine ph
5-8
43
What does a p450 inducer do to active drug
Enhances metabolism | -decreases drug effect
44
What does a P450 inhibitor do to active drug
Increases drug effects and toxicity, stops metabolism
45
What does a P450 inducer do to a prodrug
Makes it moire active, increase effect
46
What does a p450 inhibitor do to prodrug
Decrease effect, stays inactive
47
CYP inducers
Benzopyrenes Chronic ethanol Carbamazepine Rifampin
48
CYP inhibitors
Cimetidine Erythromycin Grapefruit juice
49
A patient is taking warfarin and is later Rxed cimetidine fro peptic ulcers, what happens?
Increased warfarin toxicity=bleeding
50
First order elimination
- most drugs - constant fraction eliminated - constant half life
51
Zero order elimination
- phenytoin - ethanol - aspirin - constant amount elimainted - half life not constant
52
Steady state
4-5 half lives | Function of a drugs half life
53
Half way to steady state
One half life
54
75% to steady state
2 half lives
55
Maintainece dose has to do with: clearance or Vd?
Clearance
56
Loading dose has to do with: clearance or volume of distribution?
Vd
57
Normally, acetaminophen has a Vd=70L and Cl=350mL/min. If acetaminophen was administered to a patient with 50% normal rental function, what parameter would differ from normal
Md would be lower
58
A 55 year old women with HTN is to be started on a thiazides diuretic. Thiazides A in a does of 5 Mg produces the same decrease in BP as 500mg of thiazide B, which two statements are accurate about these drugs
- both drugs have equal efficacy | - A is about 100x more potent than B
59
We start an IV infusion of a drug using a pump that ensures that rate of delivery of drug over time is constant. Which of the following factors determines how long it takes for the drug to reach steady state concentration in the blood
Half life
60
A patient is admitted for treatment of drug overdoes. It is observed that when the urine pH is acidic the renal clearance of the drug is less than the GFR. When the urine pH is alkaline, the clearance is greater than the GFR. The drug is probably a
Weak acid
61
Dopamine via D1 receptors, epinephrine via B2 receptors, and histamine via H2 receptors are important transmitters. When these ligand interact with their cellular receptors, how do they mainly elicit their responses
Activating adenlyl cyclase
62
Initial fluid loss, long term vasodilation via hyperpolarization of smooth muscle
Thiazides | HCTZ
63
What CCBs are good for the heart
Verapamil
64
Which CCB is good for both heart and vessels
Diltiazem
65
Which CCB is good for the vessels
Amlodipine
66
What does amlodipine do
Vasodilator, reflex tachycardia
67
Decreases production of ang II, decreased aldosterone, vasodilation
ACEI Lisinopril -blocks ACE
68
ACEI and bradykinin
Causes dry cough
69
What accumulates when you take lisinopril
ANG I
70
Block the action of Ang II, decrease aldosteron, vasodilation
ARBs | Losartan
71
What happens in cardiac failure to compensate?
Increase Blood volume Increase end diastolic volume (Preload) Increase HR Increase arteriolar constriction (AFTERLOAD)
72
What do we want to do to decrease preload in CHF
HCTZ, furosemide, lisinopril, losartan Lisinopril and losartan act like diuretics because they stop aldosterone so lose Na+ and water, can also dilate veins
73
What do we want to do to decrease heart rate in CHF
Metoprolol | B blocker to control HR
74
What do we want to do to decrease afterload in CHF
Lisinopril, losartan | -dilates arterioles
75
What drug do we give for CHF that is a positive inotrope that will help improve contractility
Digoxin
76
Which drug for CHF has a very low TI
Digoxin
77
Cardiac remodeling in CHF
Fibrosis of the heart, want to stop this
78
What drugs do we use to stop cardiac remodeling via aldosterone in CHF
Lisinopril, losartan, spironolactone
79
Which drug stops aldosteron production and can help fight cardiac remodeling in CHF
Lisinopril and losartan
80
Which drug blocks aldosteron receptors and can help stop cardiac remodeling in CHF
Spironlocatone
81
When is digoxin used
CHRONIC CHF
82
MOA of digoxin
Inhibits Na-K ATPas Blocks pump= Na increase Increases Na/Ca exchange Brings more Ca in and goes to SR=stronger cardiac contractions
83
Fast response AP
Atrial and ventricular muscle, Perkinje fibers
84
What kind of drugs would you want to treat ventricular tachycardia
Drugs that ablock Na, K channels | -amiodarone
85
Slow response AP
SA and AV nodes, supraventricular arryhtmias
86
What kind of drugs to treat SVTs
Drugs that block Ca, beta blockers
87
What CCB would you use for AVTs
Diltiazem
88
What beta blockers would you use to treat SVT
Atenolol and metoprolol | -cause Ca channels to stay closed -decreased phase 4
89
SVTs and digoxin
Has a PNS affect-slow HR down | -decrease phase 4 and 0
90
Patient taking antiarrhymic drug, monitored for thyroid drug, which drug are they probably on
Amiodarone - iodine - thyroid problems - blue skin - eyes, liver, lungs
91
Three classes of drugs effective for angina either alone or in combination for stable angina
Nitrates (nitroglycerin) BBlockers CCB (amlodipine or diltiazem)
92
What kind of drug would you use prophylatcically for angina
BBlocker every day
93
How do nitrates work on angina
Venodilation thereby decreasing preload
94
How do BBlockers work on angina
Decrease the oxygen demands of the heart
95
How do CCB work for angina
Cause vasodilation of smooth muscle or decrease HR
96
Patients with variant angina, what are they preferred classes of drugs
Nitrates | CCB
97
What kind of angina should you only use BBlockers in
Stable (not vasospasm)
98
What is the drug of choice for acute angina attack
Nitroglycerin under the tongue
99
MOA of statins
HmG CoA reductase inhibitors | -rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis
100
Side effect of statins
Mild muscle pain
101
What is the drug of choice for hyperlipidemia
Atorvastatin
102
Most common antiplatelt drug
Aspirin
103
MOA of aspirin
Inhibits COX to stop TXA2 | Stops platelets from aggregating
104
What drug is common to use in mini strokes
Aspirin
105
Anticoagulant drugs
Warfarin | Rivaroxaban
106
Synthesis inhibitor of vit K
Warfarin
107
What coagulation factors are affected by warfarin
Vit K dependent factors | 2,7,9,10
108
What do you give someone who has had too much warfarin
Vit K
109
MOA of rivaroxaban
Blocks factor Xa, rapid onset
110
Site of action of acetazolamide
Proximal convuluted tubule
111
Site of action of furosemide
Ascending loop of Henle
112
Site of action of thiazides
Distal convoluted tubule
113
Site of action of sprinolactone
Collecting duct
114
MOA of CAIs (acetazolamide)
PCT - block CA, cant get bicarbonate - H from the bicarbonate cant swap with the Na to get in the cell - blocks Na from getting in
115
MOA of thiazides (HCTZ)
DCT - block Na/CL transporter - saves Ca
116
MOA of loops (furosemide)
Block the Na/L/CL pump | -also lose Ca and Mg
117
MOA of spironolactone
Blocks aldosterone receptors - not affecting Na - K sparing