Blood Flashcards

(149 cards)

1
Q

tube of blood after centrifugation has nearly half of its volume represented by erythrocytes in the bottom half of the tube, a volume called the

A

hematocrit

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2
Q

Between the sedimented erythrocytes and the supernatant light-colored plasma is a thin layer of leukocytes and platelets called the

A

buffy coat

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3
Q

percent range for each type of leukocyte represented in the buffy coat

A

differential count

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4
Q
  • Is the solvent in which formed elements are suspended
    and proteins and solutes are dissolved
  • 92% plamsa
A

water

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5
Q
  • All proteins serve to buffer against pH changes
  • 7% plasma
A

plasma proteins

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6
Q
  • Exerts osmotic force to retain fluid within the microvasculature
  • Contributes to blood’s viscosity
  • Binds and transports some fatty acids, electrolytes, hormones, and drugs
  • 58% plasma
A

albumin

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7
Q
  • α-Globulins transport lipids and some metal ions
  • β-Globulins transport iron ions and lipids in bloodstream
  • γ-Globulins are antibodies with various immune functions
  • 37% plasma
A

globulins

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8
Q
  • Participates in blood coagulation (clotting)
  • precursor of fibrin
  • 4% plasma
A

fibrinogen

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9
Q
  • Consists of enzymes, proenzymes, hormones, and the complement system
  • 1% plasma proteins
A

regulatory proteins

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10
Q
  • Help establish and maintain membrane potentials, maintain pH balance, and regulate osmosis (control of the percentages of water and salt in the blood)
  • sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, iron, bicarbonate, and hydrogen
A

electrolytes

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11
Q
  • Energy source; precursor for synthesizing other molecules
  • amino acids, glucose, cholesterol, vitamins, fatty acids
A

nutrients

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12
Q
  • Oxygen is needed for aerobic cellular respiration; carbon dioxide is a waste product produced by cells during this process
A

Respiratory gases

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13
Q

Waste products serve no function in the blood plasma; they are merely being transported to the liver and kidneys where they can be removed from the blood

A

wastes

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14
Q
  • condition of having a concentration of erythrocytes below the normal range
  • tissues are unable to receive adequate O2
  • lethargy, shortness of breath, fatigue, skin pallor, and heart palpitations
A

anemia

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15
Q

caused by a homozygous mutation causing an amino acid substitution in hemoglobin, which renders the mature RBCs deformed and slightly rigid and can lead to capillary blockage

A

sickle cell anemia

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15
Q
  • suspended in an isotonic medium are flexible biconcave discs
  • 7.5 μm in diameter, 2.6-μm thick at the rim, but only 0.75-μm thick in the center
  • used by histologists as an internal standard to estimate the size of other nearby cells or structures
A

erythrocytes

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16
Q

shape provides a large surface-to-volume ratio and facilitates gas exchange for erythrocytes

A

biconcave

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17
Q

normal concentration of erythrocytes in blood for women

A

3.9-5.5 million per microliter

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18
Q

normal concentration of erythrocytes in blood for men

A

4.1-6.0 million/μL

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19
Q

In small vessels red blood cells also often stack up in loose aggregates called

A

rouleaux

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20
Q

Nucleus: 3-5 lobes

A

neutrophils

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21
Q

Nucleus: bilobed

A

eosinophils

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22
Q

Nucleus: bilobed or S-shaped

A

basophils

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23
Q

Nucleus: rather spherical

A

lymphocytes

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24
Nucleus: indented or C-shaped
monocytes
25
Specific Granules: faint/light pink
neutrophils
26
Specific Granules: red/dark pink
eosinophils
27
Specific Granules: dark blue/purple
basophils
28
Differential Count: 50-70
granulocytes
29
Differential Count: 1-4
eosinophils
30
Differential Count:
31
Differential Count: 0.5 - 1
basophils
32
Differential Count: 20-40
lymphocytes
33
Differential Count: 2-8
monocytes
34
life span: 1-4d
neutrophils
35
life span: 1-2 wk
eosinophils
36
life span: several months
basophils
37
life span: hours to many years
lymphocytes
38
life span: hours to years
monocytes
39
Kill and phagocytose bacteria
neutrophils
40
Kill helminthic and other parasites; modulate local inflammation
eosinophils
41
Modulate inflammation, release histamine during allergy
basophils
42
Effector and regulatory cells for adaptive immunity
lymphocytes
43
Precursors of macrophages and other mononuclear phagocytic cells
monocytes
44
decreasing adhesion to the wall of venules, by causing the absence of specific granules, or with deficits in certain factors of the azurophilic granules. Individuals with such disorders typically experience more frequent and more persistent bacterial infections
neutrophil defects
45
Neutrophils look for bacteria to engulf by pseudopodia and internalize them in vacuoles called
phagosomes
46
events of neutrophil migration during inflammation
1. Local macrophages activated by bacteria or tissue damage release proinflammatory cytokines 2. Passing neutrophils with appropriate cell surface glycoproteins bind the selectins 3. expression of new integrins on the rolling leukocytes and expression of the integrin ligand ICAM-1 on the endothelial cells. 4. Integrins and their ligands provide firm endothelial adhesion of neutrophils to the endothelium 5. Neutrophils become motile
47
- identified by their multi- lobulated nuclei, with lobules held together by very thin strands - polymorphonuclear leukocytes or polymorphs - diameters ranging from 12 to 15 μm
neutrophils
48
condensed X chromosome appears as a drumstick appendage to a nuclear lobe
neutrophil from a female
49
increase in the number of eosinophils in blood ___ associated with allergic reactions and helminthic infections
eosinophilia
50
- hormones from the adrenal cortex - produce a rapid decrease in the number of blood eosinophils
corticosteriods
51
Basophils and mast cells also are central to immediate or type 1
hypersensitivity
52
group of disorders involving neoplastic proliferation of lymphocytes or the failure of these cells to undergo apoptosis
lymphomas
53
short-lived as macrophages undergo apoptosis or leave the site
acute inflammation
54
- continued recruitment of monocytes - continuous presence of macrophages can lead to excessive tissue damage
chronic inflammation
55
inhibitory effect on platelet function and blood coagulation because they block the local prostaglandin synthesis
aspirin
56
result from abnormally slow blood clotting
bleeding disorders
57
defect in the platelets is a rare autosomal recessive
glycoprotein lb deficiency
58
liquid portion of circulating blood
plasma
59
cells and platelets comprise the
formed elements
60
upon clotting, some proteins are removed from plasma and others are released from platelets, forming a new liquid termed
serum
61
make up the hematocrit portion (~45%) of a blood sample, are enucleated, biconcave discs 7.5 μm in diameter, filled with hemoglobin for the uptake transport, and release of O2
RBC or erythrocytes
62
normal life span of about of erythrocytes
120 days
63
- are broadly grouped as granulocytes or agranulocytes - become active outside the circulation
WBC or leukocytes
64
neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
granulocytes
65
lymphocytes, monocytes
agragranulocytes
66
have specialized lysosomes called azurophilic granules and smaller specific granules with proteins for various cell-specific functions.
granulocytes
67
- most abundant type of leukocyte - polymorphic, multilobed nuclei, and faint pink cytoplasmic granules that contain many factors for highly efficient phagolysosomal killing and removal of bacteria
neutrophils
68
bilobed nuclei and eosinophilic-specific granules containing factors for destruction of helminthic parasites and for modulating inflammation
eosinophils
69
- rarest type of circulating leukocyte - irregular bilobed nuclei and resemble mast cells with strongly basophilic specific granules containing factors important in allergies and chronic inflammatory conditions - histamine, heparin, chemokines, and various hydrolases
basophils
70
- agranulocytes with many functions as T- and B-cell subtypes in the immune system - roughly spherical nuclei with little cytoplasm and few organelles
lymphocytes
71
larger agranulocytes with distinctly indented or C-shaped nuclei
monocytes
72
small (2-4 μm) cell fragments derived from megakaryocytes in bone marrow, with a marginal bundle of actin filaments, alpha granules and delta granules, and an open canalicular system of membranous vesicles
platelets
73
Which biochemical component of the erythrocyte cell surface is primarily responsible for determining blood type
carbohydrate
74
What cell in circulating blood is the precursor to microglia and most antigen-presenting cells?
monocyte
75
What is the approximate life span of a circulating erythrocyte?
4 months
76
Which cell type has cytoplasmic granules that contain heparin and histamine?
basophils
77
A differential cell count of a blood smear from a patient with a parasitic infection is likely to reveal an increase in the circulating numbers of which cell type?
eosinophils
78
Which of the following blood cells differentiate outside of the bone marrow?
t lymphocytes
79
Examination of a normal peripheral blood smear reveals a cell more than twice the diameter of an erythrocyte with a kidney- shaped nucleus. There cells are less than 10% of the total leukocytes. Which of the following cell types is being described?
monocyte
80
A 43-year-old anatomy professor is working in her garden, pruning rose bushes without gloves, when a thorn deeply penetrates her forefinger. The next day the area has become infected. She removes the tip of the thorn, but there is still pus remaining at the wound site. Which of the following cells function in the formation of pus?
Cells with polymorphic, multiply lobed nuclei
81
A 35-year-old woman’s physician orders laboratory blood tests. Her fresh blood is drawn and centrifuged in the presence of heparin as an anticoagulant to obtain a hematocrit. From top to bottom, the fractions resulting from centrifugation are which of the following?
Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes
82
A hematologist diagnoses a 34-year-old woman with idiopathic thrombocytic purpura (ITP). Which of the following symptoms/ characteristics would one expect in this patient?
Abnormal bruising
83
used clinically to increase marrow cellularity and blood cell counts in patients with conditions such as severe anemia or during chemo- or radio- therapy, which lower white blood cell counts
hemopoietic growth factors
84
Origin and differentiative stages of blood cells: platelets
progenitor cell -> megakaryoblast -> promegakaryocyte -> megakaryocyte -> proplatelet -> platelets
85
Origin and differentiative stages of blood cells: eosinophil
progenitor cell -> myeloblast -> promyelocyte -> eosinophilic myelyte -> eosinophilic metamyelocyte -> eosinophil
86
Origin and differentiative stages of blood cells: basophil
progenitor cell -> myeloblast -> promyelocyte -> basophilic myelocyte -> basophilic metamyelocyte -> basophil
87
Origin and differentiative stages of blood cells: neutrophil
progenitor cell -> myeloblast -> promyelocyte -> neutrophilic myelocyte -> neutrophilic metamyelocyte -> neutrophil
88
Origin and differentiative stages of blood cells: monocyte
progenitor cell -> monoblast -> promonocyte -> monocyte
89
- Mitogen for all hemopoietic progenitor cells - Stromal cells of bone marrow
stem cell factor
90
- Mitogen for all erythroid progenitor and precursor cells, also promoting their differentiation - Peritubular endothelial cells of the kidney; hepatocytes
erythropoietin
91
- Mitogen for megakaryoblasts and their progenitor cells - Kidney and liver
thrombopoietin
92
- Mitogen for all myeloid progenitor cells - Endothelial cells of bone marrow and T lymphocytes
Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor
93
- Mitogen for neutrophil precursor cells - Endothelial cells of bone marrow and macrophages
Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor
94
- Mitogen for monocyte precursor cells - Endothelial cells of marrow and macrophages
Monocyte colony-stimulating factor
95
- Regulates activities and cytokine secretion of many leukocytes and other cells - Macrophages and T helper cells
Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
96
- Mitogen for activated T and B cells; promotes differentiation of NK cells - T helper cells
Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
97
- Mitogen for all granulocyte and megakaryocyte progenitor cells - T helper cells
Interleukin-3 (IL-3)
98
- Promotes development of basophils and mast cells and B-lymphocyte activation - T helper cells
Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
99
- Promotes development and activation of eosinophils - T helper cells
Interleukin-5 (IL-5) or eosinophil differentiation factor (EDF)
100
- Mitogen for many leukocytes; promotes activation of B cells and regulatory T cells - Macrophages, neutrophils, local endothelial cells
Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
101
- Major mitogen for all lymphoid stem cells - Stromal cells of bone marrow
Interleukin-7 (IL-7)
102
Granulopoiesis: Formation of granules
myeloblast -> promyelocyte -> myelocyte -> metamyelocyte
103
Granulopoiesis: Formation of granules No cytoplasmic granules
myeloblast
104
Granulopoiesis: Formation of granules First azurophilic granules being secreted in Golgi apparatus
promyelocyte
105
Granulopoiesis: Formation of granules Moderate number of azurophilic granules and initial production of specific granules in Golgi zone
myelocyte
106
Granulopoiesis: Formation of granules Abundant specific granules and dispersed azurophilic granules; Golgi apparatus reduced
metamyelocyte
107
- appearance of large numbers of immature neutrophils (band cells) in the blood - indicating a bacterial infection.
shift to the left
108
increase in the number of circulating neutrophils
neutrophilia
109
erythrocyte maturation
proerythroblast -> basophilic erythroblast -> polychromatophilic erythroblast -> orthochromatophilic erythroblast -> nucleus ejected -> pyknotic nucleus -> erythrocyte
110
Neutrophils exist in at least four anatomically and function- ally distinct compartments
1. granulopoietic 2. storage 3. circulating 4. marginating
111
compartment in bone marrow with developing progenitor cells.
granulopoietic
112
acts as a buffer system, capable of releasing large numbers of mature neutrophils as needed
storage
113
compartment throughout the blood.
circulating
114
cells temporarily do not circulate but rather accumulate temporarily at the surface of the endothelium in venules and small veins.
marginating
115
result from liberation of greater numbers of neutrophils from the medullary storage compartment and is typically followed by a recovery period during which no neutrophils are released
transitory neutrophilia
116
- malignant clones of leukocyte precursors - release of large numbers of immature cells into the blood and an overall shift in hemopoiesis
leukemias
117
leukemias occur in both lymphoid tissue
lympoblastic leukemias
118
leukemias in bone marrow
myelogenous leukemias
119
reduction in the number of circulating platelets
thrombocytopenia
120
deficiencies of folic acid or vitamin B12
ineffective megakaryopoiesis
121
stem cells for blood cell formation
pluripotent
122
occur in the bone marrow of children and adults
hemopoiesis
123
committed to forming each type of mature blood cell
progenitor cells
124
active in hemopoiesis
red bone marrow
125
consists mostly of adipose tissue
yellow bone marrow
126
cords within marrow
erythropoietic islands
127
At the last stage of erythropoiesis cell nuclei are extruded, producing ___ that still contain some polyribosomes but are released into the circulation.
reticulocytes
128
Granulopoiesis includes
1. myeloblasts 2. promyelocytes 3. myelocytes 4. metamyelocytes
129
large nuclei and relatively little cytoplasm
myeloblasts
130
lysosomal azurophilic granules are produced
promyelocytes
131
specific granules for one of the three types of granulocytes are formed
myelocytes
132
characteristic changes in nuclear morphology occur
metamyelocytes
133
Immature neutrophilic metamyelocytes called ___ are released prematurely when the compartment of circulating neutro- phils is deleted during bacterial infections.
band (stab) cells
134
Immature neutrophilic metamyelocytes called ___ are released prematurely when the compartment of circulating neutro- phils is deleted during bacterial infections.
band (stab) cells
135
produce monocytes in red marrow
monoblasts
136
give rise to lymphocytes primarily in the lymphoid tissues in pro- cesses involving acquired immunity
lymphoblasts
137
large polyploid cells of red bone marrow, produce platelets, or thrombocytes
megakaryocytes
138
ends of cytoplasmic processes
proplatelets
139
In which of the following cells involved in erythropoiesis does hemoglobin synthesis begin?
basophilic erythroblast
140
Possess dynamic cell projections from which one type of formed element is released
megakaryocytes
141
Which cytoplasmic components are the main constituents of the dark precipitate that forms in reticulocytes upon staining with the dye cresyl blue?
Polyribosomes
142
Which process occurs during granulopoiesis but not during erythropoiesis?
Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated
143
What fate often awaits granulocytes that have entered the marginating compartment?
Crossing the wall of a venule to enter connective tissue
144
What is the earliest stage at which specific granulocyte types can be distinguished from one another?
Myelocyte
145
Which cell type is capable of further mitosis after leaving the hemopoietic organ in which it is formed?
Lymphocyte
146
Shortly after her birth a baby is diagnosed with a mutation in the erythropoietin receptor gene which leads to familial erythrocytosis (familial polycythemia). During the seventh to ninth months of fetal development, the primary effect on her red blood cell production was in which of the following?
Bone marrow
147
A 54-year-old man presents with recurrent breathlessness and chronic fatigue. After routine tests followed by a bone marrow biopsy he is diagnosed with lymphocytic leukemia. Chemotherapy is administered to remove the cancerous cells, which also destroys the precursor cells of erythrocytes. To reestablish the erythrocytic lineage, which of the following cells should be transplanted?
Basophilic erythroblasts
148
A smear of blood from a 70-year-old leukemia patient reveals a larger than normal population of cells that have large, round nuclei with one or two nucleoli. The cytoplasm of these cells shows azurophilic granules. Which of the following forms of leukemia would you suspect?
Promyelocytic leukemia