blood Flashcards

(88 cards)

1
Q

name the 6 functions of blood

A

delivery of nutrients, removal of wastes, delivery of hormones, acid-base balance, body temp regulation and osmotic balance

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2
Q

what is the general composition of plasma?

A

90% water, 9% proteins, 1% inorganic salt

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3
Q

what are the 3 main protein types of plasma?

A

albumin, globulin and fibrinogen

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4
Q

what is serum?

A

plasma (minus fibrinogen)

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5
Q

what type of stain is used for blood smears?

A

Romonosky-type stains (Wright or Giemsa)

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6
Q

define hematocrit

A

hematocrit is the layer of packed erythrocytes after centrifugation of whole blood

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7
Q

what are the normal hematocrit values for males and females?

A

males-39-50%

females- 35-45%

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8
Q

describe polycythemia

A

increased hematocrit, can be seen in people living at high altitudes

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9
Q

described hypocythemia

A

decrease in hematocrit, indicates anemia

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10
Q

what are the features of a mature erythrocyte?

A

no nucleus, organelles or inclusions; biconcave disc

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11
Q

why are RBCs in biconcave disc shape?

A

to maximize surface area to volume ration that helps with gas exchange also puts more hemoglobin closer to the membrane

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12
Q

what is the normal diameter of an RBC?

A

7 um

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13
Q

what is the size of a macrocytic cell?

A

over 9 um

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14
Q

what is the size of a microcytic cell?

A

under 6 um

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15
Q

what is another term for the plasma membrane of a RBC?

A

plasmalemma

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16
Q

what cytoskeletal elements (3) allow RBC to maintain their flexibility?

A

actin, ankyrin and spectrin

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17
Q

why do some RBC exhibit central pallor?

A

lack of hemoglobin

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18
Q

what is it called when the central pallor is too large?

A

hypochromia

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19
Q

what is the main energy source for RBCs?

A

glucose via glycolysis

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20
Q

what is an anaerobic form of metabolism used by RBCs?

A

hexose monophosphate shunt

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21
Q

describe reticulocytes

A

young erythrocytes with some rRNA in their cytoplasm

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22
Q

what is the normal percentage of reticulocytes in blood?

A

1%

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23
Q

what might a high reticulocyte count indicate?

A

indicates anemia and also indicates that bone marrow is working to correct the anemia

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24
Q

what is the predominant form of hemoglobin in tissues?

A

carbaminohemoglobin

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25
what is the predominant form of hemoglobin in the lungs?
oxyhemoglobin
26
what is carboxyhemoglobin?
irreversible binding of CO with hemoglobin
27
what mutation is responsible for sickle cell anemia?
point mutation of the beta-golbin chain that results in glu-->val substitution
28
what special stain is needed to see reticulocytes?
methylene blue or cresyl blue
29
how long are reticulocytes present in peripheral blood until they mature?
about 1 day
30
what type of granules can be seen in all types of leukocytes?
non-specific granules called azurophilic granules
31
what do azurophilic granules contain?
acid phosphatase, lysosomal enzymes and myeloperoxidase
32
what is the most common type of leukocyte?
neutrophils (55%)
33
what is the main function of neutrophils?
phagocytize small particles and bacteria
34
describe the typical neutrophil appearance
3-5 lobed nucleus, 3 types of granules
35
what are the 3 types of granules in a neutrophil?
Azurophilic, specific and tertiary
36
what are precursor neutrophils called?
stab or band cells
37
what does the presence of increased band cells suggest?
bacterial infection
38
what indicates the age of a neutrophil?
number of lobes in the nucleus
39
what is another name for increased band cells?
left shift
40
what is hyper segmentation?
over 5 lobes of the nucleus in a neutrophil
41
what is a barr body?
small nuclear appendage present in females that is indicative of the x-chromosome
42
what do the specific granules of neutrophils contain? (4)
alk phos, collagenase, lactoferrin and lysozyme
43
what is the function of lactoferrin?
binds iron, to deprive bacteria of iron
44
what is the function of collagenase?
breaks up collagen so neutrophil can move through connective tissue
45
what is the function of lysozyme in neutrophils?
cleaves bacterial cell wall component peptidoglycan (gram-positive)
46
what is the purpose of tertiary granules in neutrophils?
contain proteins that help neutrophils move through tissue
47
what is the percentage of eosinophils in the blood?
2-5%
48
what are the 3 main functions of eosinophils?
phagocytosis of antigen-antibody complexes, moderate allergic reactions through histaminase, reaction to parasites
49
what is the typical appearance of an eosinophils nucleus?
bi-lobed
50
what do the eosinosphilic granules contain in their core?
major basic protein
51
what aa is prevalent in major basic protein?
arginine is prevalent, which gives the cell an eosinophilic (pink) appearance
52
what comprises the externum of eosinophiic granules? (7)
acid phosphatase, arylsulfatase, RNase, phospholipase, peroxidase, cathepsin, glucoronidase
53
what percentage of the WBCs is basophils?
0-1%
54
what is the structure of a basophil?
2-3 lobed nucleus that is often obscured by large basophilic granules
55
what is contained in basophilic granules? (3)
heparin, histamine and leukotrienes
56
what is the function of basophils?
participate in inflammatory response, assist mast cells
57
what percentage of WBCs are lymphocytes?
30-35% (most numerous agranulocyte)
58
why do some lymphocytes appear "small"?
small lymphocytes have a spherical nucleus, heterochromatin, thin cytoplasm representing an inactive cell
59
why do some lymphocytes appear "medium" or "large"?
medium/large lymphocytes have more cytoplasm and euchromatin and are active
60
where are b-cell and t-cells derived, respectively?
b cells- bone marrow | t cells- thymus
61
what is the function of b cells?
recognize antigens and differentiate into plasma cells that produce antibodies
62
what other type of cells will b cell differentiate into aside from plasma cells?
memory cells
63
what type of immunity is conveyed by T cells?
cell-mediated immunity (secrete lymphokines that moderate phagocyte function)
64
name the 4 types of T cells
1- cytotoxic t cell 2- memory t cell 3- helper t cell 4- suppressor t cell
65
what is the function of cytotoxic t cells?
recognize antigens on cell's surface
66
what is the function of helper t cells?
release lymphokines to help direct the immune response
67
what is the function of suppressor t cells?
suppress the activity of b cells (help to prevent development of autoimmunity)
68
what are Null Cell?
lymphocytes without surface markers that might be stem cells or natural killer cells
69
what is the largest WBC?
monocyte
70
what is the percentage of monocytes in WBCs?
3-8%
71
what are monocytes in the tissue?
monocytes differentiate into macrophages in the tissue
72
what are the functions of monocytes?
phagocytosis and interaction with lymphocytes to help with antigen recognition
73
what is the shape of a monocyte nucleus?
kidney-bean or "fetus" shaped
74
what are monocytes the precursor to?
all cells of the mononuclear phagocytic system
75
what are the precursors of platelets?
megakaryocytes
76
what are the 4 zones of organization of a platelet?
1- peripheral zone 2- structural zone 3- organelle zone 4- membrane zone
77
describe the peripheral zone of a platelet
cell membrane with glycocalyx; absorbs clotting factors
78
describe the structural zone of a platelet
cytoskeletal elements
79
describe the organelle zone of a platelet
cellular organelles + 3 granules
80
describe the membrane zone of a platelet
forms channels to allow communication between other compartments
81
describe the alpha granules of a platelet
contain fibrinogen, PDGF, other proteins
82
describe the delta granules of a platelet
contain Ca, ATP/ADP and serotonin
83
describe the gamma granules of a platelet
contain lysosomal enzymes
84
what signals the start of clot formation?
exposure of the underlying endothelial connective tissue to platelets
85
what signals other platelets to aggregate?
ADP
86
what is the role of serotonin in clot formation?
causes contraction of smooth muscle to reduce blood flow
87
what allows for thrombus contraction?
actin, myosin and ATP
88
what is the function of PDGF in clot formation?
stimulates the proliferation of fibroblasts and smooth muscle