Blood and Lymph Exam Flashcards
(197 cards)
1
Q
_______ is a blue-black discoloration from hemorrhage under the skin
A
Ecchymosis
2
Q
_____ is the term used to describe swelling from blockage of lymph circulation
A
Lymphedema
3
Q
Tiny hemorrhages into the skin creating a polka-dot appearance are called ____
A
petechiae
4
Q
_____ is caused by hemorrhages into the skin, mucous membranes, or internal organs
A
Purpura
5
Q
The patient with ______ has an increased risk for bleeding because of a lack of platelets
A
thrombocytopenia
6
Q
These destroy pathogens in the lymph from the extremities before the lymph is returned to the blood
A
Lymph nodes
7
Q
These collect tissue fluid from intercellular spaces
A
Lymph capillaries
8
Q
These prevent backflow of lymph in larger lymph vessels
A
Valves
9
Q
These destroy pathogens that penetrate mucous membranes
A
Lymph nodules
10
Q
This empties lymph from the lower body and upper left quadrant into the left subclavian vein
A
Thoracic duct
11
Q
May become any kind of blood cell
A
Stem cell
12
Q
Essential for chemical clotting
A
Calcium ions
13
Q
Release histamine
A
Basophils
14
Q
A hematopoietic tissue
A
Red bone marrow
15
Q
May become cells that produce antibodies
A
Lymphocytes
16
Q
Large phagocytic cells
A
Macrophages
17
Q
Promotes absorption of vitamin B12
A
Intrinsic factor
18
Q
Its fragments become platelets
A
Megakaryocyte
19
Q
Carries oxygen in RBCs
A
Hemoglobin
20
Q
Pulls tissue fluid into capillaries to maintain blood volume
A
Albumin
21
Q
What is the mineral necessary for chemical clotting?
a) Iron
b) Sodium
c) Potassium
d) Calcium
A
d) Calcium
22
Q
Through which of the following does lymph return to the blood?
a) Carotid arteries
b) Aorta
c) Inferior vena cava
d) Subclavian veins
A
d) Subclavian veins
23
Q
Which of the following is a normal hemoglobin value?
a) 38% to 45%
b) 12 to 18 g/100 mL
c) 48 to 54 mg %
d) 27 to 36 g/dL
A
b) 12 to 18 g/100 mL
24
Q
Which laboratory study is monitored for the patient receiving heparin therapy?
a) International normalized ratio (INR)
b) Prothrombin time
c) Partial thromboplastin time
d) Bleeding time
A
c) Partial thromboplastin time
25
Which blood product replaces missing clotting factors in the patient who has a bleeding disorder?
a) Platelets
b) Packed red blood cells
c) Albumin
d) Cryoprecipitate
d) Cryoprecipitate
26
Which of the following items are transported in blood plasma? (Select all that apply)
a) Oxygen
b) Nutrients
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hormones
e) Wastes
f) Electrolytes
b, c, d, e, f
27
A patient is on warfarin (Coumadin) therapy and has an INR of 1.6. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
a) Observe the patient for abnormal bleeding
b) Notify the physician and expect an order to increase the warfarin dose
c) Advise the patient to double today's dose of warfarin
d) Administer vitamin K per protocol
b) Notify the physician and expect an order to increase the warfarin dose
28
Which gauge intravenous cannula should the nurse choose when preparing to initiate a blood transfusion?
a) 18
b) 22
c) 24
d) 28
a) 18
29
A patient is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells reports chest and back pain. How do you respond?
a) Do a complete head-to-toe examination
b) Ask the patient to rate the pain on a 0-10 scale
c) Stop the transfusion or call the RN STAT depending on agency policy
d) Administer an analgesic, as needed (PRN)
c) Stop the transfusion or call the RN STAT depending on agency policy
30
The nurse is preparing to assist the physician with a bone marrow biopsy. Which of the following interventions is most important for the nurse to do before the procedure?
a) Explain the procedure to the patient's family
b) Administer an analgesic to the patient
c) Observe the patient for bleeding
d) Drape the biopsy site
b) Administer an analgesic to the patient
31
The nurse is providing care for patients on a medical surgical unit. Which of the following patients is at increased risk for infection?
a) A 57 year-old whose white blood cell count = 6,500/mm3
b) A 63 year-old with a platelet count = 110,000/mm3
c) A 49 year-old with a hematocrit = 44%
d) An 88 year-old with neutrophil count of 32%
d) An 88 year-old with a neutrophil count of 32%
32
T/F - Anemia is a reduction in white blood cells
False
33
T/F - Hemolysis is the destruction of red blood cells
True
34
T/F - Pancytopenia is reduced numbers of all blood cells
True
35
T/F - Polycythemia is the production of excess blood cells
True
36
T/F - Phlebotomy is the excision of a vessel
False
37
T/F - Disseminated intravascular coagulation involves accelerated clotting throughout the circulation
True
38
T/F - Thrombocytopenia is an increase in platelets
False
39
T/F - Hemarthrosis is bleeding into the muscles
False
40
T/F - Leukemia literally means "white blood"
True
41
T/F - Cancer of the lymph system is called lymphemia
False
42
T/F - Abnormalities in B cells and T cells can result in lymphoma
True
43
T/F - Enlargement of the spleen is called splenomegaly
True
44
Which of the following foods will best help provide dietary iron for a patient who has iron-deficiency anemia?
a) Fresh fruits
b) Lean red meats
c) Dairy products
d) Breads and cereals
b) Lean red meats
45
A 50 year-old African American patient is diagnosed with anemia. Where can the nurse best observe for pallor?
a) Scalp
b) Axillae
c) Chest
d) Conjunctivae
d) Conjunctivae
46
Which of the following is an early sign of anemia?
a) Palpitations
b) Glossitis
c) Pallor
d) Weight loss
a) Palpitations
47
For which of the following problems should the nurse monitor in the patient with multiple myeloma?
a) Uncontrolled bleeding
b) Respiratory distress
c) Liver engorgement
d) Pathological fractures
d) Pathological fractures
48
Which of the following interventions can help minimize complications related to hypercalcemia?
a) Encourage 3 to 4 L of fluid daily
b) Have the patient cough and deep breathe every 2 hours
c) Place the patient on bedrest
d) Apply heat to painful areas
a) Encourage 3 to 4 L of fluid daily
49
A patient is admitted for a splenectomy. Why is an injection of vitamin K ordered before surgery?
a) To correct clotting problems
b) To promote healing
c) To prevent postoperative infection
d) To dry secretions
a) To correct clotting problems
50
A 27 year-old African American man is admitted in sickle cell crisis. Which of the following events most likely contributed to the onset of the crisis?
a) He started a new job last week
b) He walked home in a cold rain yesterday
c) He had seafood for dinner last night
d) He has not exercised for a week
b) He walked home in a cold rain yesterday
51
A patient has hand-foot syndrome related to sickle cell anemia. What findings does the nurse expect to see as the patient is examined?
a) Unequal growth of fingers and toes
b) Webbing between fingers and toes
c) Purplish discoloration of hands and feet
d) Deformities of the wrists and ankles
a) Unequal growth of fingers and toes
52
The nurse has taught a patient with thrombocytopenia how to prevent bleeding. Which of the following is the best evidence that the teaching has been effective?
a) The patient states the importance of avoiding injury
b) The patient can list signs and symptoms of bleeding
c) The patient uses an electric razor instead of a safety razor
d) The patient lists symptoms that should be reported to the doctor
c) The patient uses an electric razor instead of a safety razor
53
Which of the following conditions places a patient at risk for respiratory complications following splenectomy?
a) A low platelet count
b) An incision near the diaphragm
c) Early ambulation
d) Early discharge
b) An incision near the diaphragm
54
Patients are at risk for overwhelming postsplenectomy infection (OPSI) following splenectomy. Which of the following symptoms alerts the nurse to this possibility?
a) Bruising around the operative site
b) Irritability
c) Pain
d) Fever
d) Fever
55
A nurse is caring for a patient admitted with gastrointestinal tract bleeding and a hemoglobin level of 6 g/dL. The patient asks the nurse why the low hemoglobin causes shortness of breath. Which response is the best?
a) "Anemia prevents your lungs from absorbing oxygen effectively."
b) "You do not have enough hemoglobin to carry oxygen to your tissues."
c) "You don't have enough blood to feed your cells."
d) "You have lost a lot of blood, and that has damaged your lungs."
b) "You do not have enough hemoglobin to carry oxygen to your tissues."
56
A patient with a history of hemophilia A arrives in the emergency department with a "funny feeling" in his elbow. The patient states that he thinks he is bleeding into the joint. Which response by the nurse is correct?
a) Palpate the patient's elbow to assess for swelling
b) Notify the physician immediately and expect an order for factor VIIII
c) Prepare the patient for an x-ray examination to determine whether bleeding is occurring
d) Apply heat to the patient's elbow and wait for the physician to examine the patient
b) Notify the physician immediately and expect an order for factor VIII
57
A patient with a new diagnosis of lymphoma is experiencing fatigue. Which of the following is the best way to assess the fatigue?
a) Observe the patient's activity level
b) Monitor for changes in vital signs
c) Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit values
d) Have the patient rate the fatigue on a scale of 0 to 10
d) Have the patient rate the fatigue on a scale of 0-10
58
A patient diagnosed with lymphoma is being discharged from the hospital. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
a) "It is important to avoid crowds to reduce your risk of infection."
b) "Taking a walk outside will help reduce your stress level."
c) "It is important for you to increase your dietary intake of iron."
d) "Your disease often affects the eyes, so television viewing should be minimized."
a) "It is important to avoid crowds to reduce your risk of infection."
59
A patient is having difficulty coping with a new diagnosis of leukemia. Which response by the nurse is most helpful?
a) "Don't worry. You'll be okay."
b) "The treatments you are receiving will make you feel better very soon."
c) "Who do you usually go to when you have a problem?"
d) "Have you made end-of-life decisions?"
c) "Who do you usually go to when you have a problem?"
60
What discharge teaching is most important to help the patient who has had a splenectomy prevent infection?
a) Avoid showering for 1 week
b) Sleep in a semi-Fowler's position
c) Receive vaccines against infection
d) Stay on antibiotics for life
c) Receive vaccines against infection
61
____ is the study of blood and its parts, functions and abnormalities
Hematology
62
_____ includes the lymph nodes and nodules that destroy pathogens
The lymphatic system
63
What are the functions of blood??
Transportation of O2, nutrients and cellular waste products
Regulation of body temp, pH, and fluid balance
Production of cells that offer body protection
64
Blood brings in ___ and carries ___ away
O2, CO2
65
Our body holds _ to _ L of blood
4 to 6
66
46-63 %
Plasma
67
38%-48%
Formed elements
68
What are erythrocytes?
Red blood cells
69
What are leukocytes?
White blood cells
70
What are thrombocytes?
Platelets
71
What is a normal pH?
7.35-7.45
72
What is the life span of an RBC?
80 to 120 days
73
4 to 7 million/mm3
Red blood cells
74
5,000 to 10,000/mm3
White blood cells
75
What is the lifespan of a white blood cell?
13-20 days
76
150,000 to 400,000/mm3
Platelets
77
What are the lifespan of platelets?
8-11 days
78
Blood cells are produced by _______, a blood producing tissue found in flat and irregular bones
red bone marrow
79
What are other blood producing tissues?
Lymph tissue of the lymph nodes, lymph nodules, spleen, thymus
80
__% of plasma is water
91
81
What is the function of plasma?
It is the transport mechanism for nutrients, waste, hormones, CO2 and antibodies
82
___ is a product produced after the phagocytation of the RBCs.
Bilirubin
83
____ acid and vitamin ___ are necessary for RBC production
Folic, B12
84
The rate of production of RBCs is influenced by the __ ___ ____
blood oxygen level
85
If there is hypoxia, the kidneys secrete _______ which increases the rate of RBC production and thus the O2 carrying capacity of the blood
erythropoetin
86
12-18 g
Hemoglobin
87
38-54%
Hematocrit
88
What is MCV? What does it do?
mean corpuscular volume.
| It measures the size on a RBC count
89
What is MCH? What does it do?
mean corpuscular hemoglobin
| It measures the color
90
What is the function of a white blood cell?
Fight infection, produce, transport and distribute antibodies
91
```
What does "Never let monkeys eat bananas" stand for?
N
L
M
E
B
```
```
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils
```
92
What do lymphocytes do?
React to viral infections
93
What do monocytes do?
Turn into macrophages and phagocytize pathogens and dead tissue
94
What do neutrophils do?
They phagocytize pathogens
| and they are the most numerous WBC
95
What do eosinophils do?
They respond to parasitic infections
96
What do basophils do?
They release histamine during an allergic reaction
97
What are bands?
Baby neutrophils
98
What are segs?
Adult neutrophils
99
Heparin and antithrombin are in our system to prevent what?
excessive clotting
100
What diseases cause an accelerated destruction of RBCs?
malaria and sickle cell anemia
101
What are the major paired groups of lymph nodes?
Cervical, axillary, and inguinal
102
In the fetus, the ____ produces red blood cells
spleen
103
____, ____, and ____ ____ can accompany cancers of the lymph system
fatigue, malaise and weight loss
104
____ ____ anemia occurs mostly in African Americans but also affects people of Mediterranean or Asian ancestry
sickle cell
105
PT
prothrombin time
106
INR
international normalized ratio
107
PTT
partial thromboplastin time
108
TCT
thrombin clotting time
109
What is a direct antiglobulin test also known as?
Coombs' test
110
An accurate bone marrow specimen in an adult can be obtained from where?
sternum
the spinous process of the vertebrae
anterior or posterior iliac crest
111
Less than 1.3
INR
112
Male: 9.6 to 11.8 seconds
Female: 9.5 to 11.3 seconds
PT
113
30-45 seconds
PTT
114
10 to 15 seconds
TCT
115
2.5-9.5 minutes
bleeding time
116
Fewer than 10 petechiae appearing in a 2-inch circle after application of blood pressure cuff at 100 mmHg for 5 minutes
capillary fragility test
117
What are packed red blood cells used for?
Severe anemia or blood loss
118
What are frozen red blood cells used for?
Autotransfusion (blood taken from patient and saved for future surgery), prevention of febrile reactions
119
What is fresh frozen plasma used for?
Provides clotting factors for bleeding disorders; occasionally used for volume replacement
120
What are cryoprecipitates used for?
Bleeding caused by specific missing clotting factors
121
_____ _____ is caused by rapid transfusion in a short period, particularly in older and debilitated patients. Usual signs and symptoms include chest pain, cough, frothy sputum, distended neck veins, crackles and wheezes in the lung fields, and increased heart rate
circulatory overload
122
The most deadly, and fortunately, the rarest of the possible reactions from a blood transfusion is?
an acute hemolytic reaction
123
What are the symptoms of an acute hemolytic reaction?
Back pain, chest pain, chills, fever, SOB, nausea, vomiting, or a feeling of impending doom
124
What is the most common reaction from a blood transfusion?
Febrile reaction
125
Clotting factors such as prothrombin are produced by which structure?
a) Red bone marrow
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Lymph nodes
b) Liver
126
Which of the following best describes the function of erythropoietin?
a) Increases production of platelets to promote clotting
b) Decreases production of platelets to prevent abnormal clotting
c) Increases RBC production to correct hypoxia
d) Decreases RBC production to prevent hypoxia
c) Increases RBC production to correct hypoxia
127
Why is the return of tissue fluid to the blood important?
a) To maintain blood clotting
b) To maintain blood volume
c) To promote white blood cell formation
d) To promote red blood cell formation
b) To maintain blood volume
128
Which of the following is the portion of the blood in which cellular elements are suspended?
a) Cytoplasm
b) Platelets
c) Plasma
d) Hemoglobin
c) Plasma
129
Which of the following actions should the nurse take when caring for a patient with a platelet count of 23,000/mm3?
a) Request an order for an anticoagulant
b) Protect the patient from injury
c) Encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids
d) No action is necessary. This is a normal level
b) Protect the patient from injury
130
A nurse is assessing a patient and finds small red-purple dots all most of his skin surfaces. The patient says that he has not noticed them before. Which action should the nurse take first?
a) Report the findings immediately to the registered nurse or physician
b) Document the findings objectively in the medical record
c) Assist the patient to apply lotion
d) Administer an antihistamine as needed
a) Report the findings immediately to the registered nurse or physician
131
Which of the following checks should be done before starting a blood transfusion? (Select all that apply)
a) Ask the patient to state his or her name
b) Verify the correct room number
c) Check the patient's arm band
d) Check the identifying information on the unit of blood
e) Check the temperature of the blood
f) Check the expiration date on the unit of blood
a, c, d, f
132
A nurse is monitoring a patient during a blood transfusion. After the blood has been hanging for 30 minutes, the patient's temperature rises from 98.6 degrees F (37.0 degrees Celsius) at baseline to 101.0 degrees F (38.3 degrees Celsius). The patient also experiences severe chills. Which action should the nurse take first?
a) Document the vital signs in the medical record
b) Administer acetaminophen for the fever
c) Notify the physician of the change
d) Stop the transfusion and hang normal saline solution
d) Stop the transfusion and hang normal saline solution
133
Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to find in a patient who has anemia?
a) Pain
b) Dyspnea
c) Vision changes
d) Skin rash
b) Dyspnea
134
Which of the following activities is contraindicated for the patient with sickle cell anemia?
a) Riding in an elevator
b) Taking a long car trip
c) Running in a marathon
d) Listening to a concert
c) Running in a marathon
135
Which explanation for bleeding should the nurse give to the family member of a patient with DIC?
a) "He is bleeding because he does not have enough RBCs."
b) "He is bleeding because his white cells are depleted."
c) "He is bleeding because his blood pressure is so high that it forces blood from mucous membranes."
d) "He is bleeding because his body's clotting factors have all been used up."
d) "He is bleeding because his body's clotting factors have all been used up."
136
Which instruction will help the mother of a child with hemophilia prevent bleeding episodes?
a) "Your son should avoid contact sports."
b) "Your son will have to avoid all potentially irritating foods."
c) "Your son must never shave."
d) "Your son should always live near a major hospital system."
a) "Your son should avoid contact sports."
137
Which of the following nursing interventions are appropriate for a patient with thrombocytopenia? (Select all that apply)
a) Avoid intramuscular injections
b) Keep visitors who are ill away from the patient
c) Encourage 4 L of fluid daily
d) Avoid use of aspirin and NSAIDs
e) Allow rest between activities
f) Encourage use of shoes or slippers
a, d, f
138
Stage III Hodgkin's disease is defined as which of the following?
a) Lymphatic involvement on both sides of the diaphragm
b) Localized involvement of more than two adjacent or nonadjacent regions on one side of the diaphragm
c) Diffuse involvement of one or more extralymphatic organs or tissues such as the bone marrow or liver
d) Localized involvement of a single lymph node site, usually located in the cervical or supraclavicular area
a) Lymphatic involvement on both sides of the diaphragm
139
Which circumstance places the patient at most risk for respiratory complications following a splenectomy?
a) Disturbance of clotting factors
b) Nothing by mouth (NPO) status
c) Need for frequent dressing changes
d) Location of surgical incision
d) Location of surgical incision
140
In these blood types, an antigen is present
A, B, AB
141
In this blood type, no antigen is present
O
142
D antigen is present on RBC
Rh +
143
D antigen is not present on RBC
Rh -
144
The ratio of plasma to formed blood cell elements is
a) 1:2
b) 2:2
c) 3:2
d) 5:3
c) 3:2
145
Which of the following types of blood cells is most numerous in the bloodstream?
a) White blood cells
b) Red blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Pink and purple blood cells
b) Red blood cells
146
Which of the following conditions is considered a primary polycythemia?
a) Polycythemia vera
b) Chronic liver disease
c) Acute myelogenous leukemia
d) Hemolytic anemia
a) Polycythemia vera
147
A patient who has had a recent blood loss would normally have an increase in which type of blood cell component?
a) Basophils
b) Eosinophils
c) Reticulocytes
d) Band cells
c) Reticulocytes
148
The test that is done most often to determine blood loss is:
a) Red blood cell count
b) Hemoglobin
c) Hematocrit
d) Platelet count
c) Hematocrit
149
The approximate hemoglobin level for a patient who has a hematocrit of 30% is
a) 8 g
b) 10 g
c) 12 g
d) 15 g
b) 10 g
150
Which of the following situations may increase the eosinophil count?
a) An allergic reaction
b) Corticosteroid therapy
c) A viral infection
d) A bacterial infection
a) An allergic reaction
151
Which of the following indicates a shift to the left on a WBC differential?
a) Decrease in lymphycytes
b) Increase in eosinophils
c) Increase in stab or band cells
d) Decrease in neutrophils
c) Increase in stab or band cells
152
Physiological anemia of pregnant refers to a normal drop in hemoglobin that occurs in the
a) 1st trimester
b) 2nd trimester
c) 3rd trimester
d) two weeks after delivery
c) 3rd trimester
153
In response to infection, WBC's stimulate the bone marrow to produce more white blood cells by the secretion of:
a) Erythropoetin
b) T-lymphocytes
c) Colony stimulating factor
d) Macrophages
c) Colony stimulating factor
154
Patients with which of the following types of anemia have a high amount of fetal hemoglobin?
a) Pernicious anemia
b) Sickle cell anemia
c) Thalassemia major
d) Iron deficiency anemia
c) Thalassemia major
155
Anemia in premature infants most often occurs because
a) Red blood cells have a short life span in newborns
b) Infants make few red blood cells in the first few weeks of life
c) Premature infants are unable to consume iron
d) Multiple lab tests necessary for treatment monitoring cause blood loss
d) Multiple lab tests necessary for treatment monitoring cause blood loss
156
The primary harmful effect of anemia is
a) Pale conjunctiva
b) Tissue hypoxia
c) Susceptibility to easy bruising
d) Fatigue
b) Tissue hypoxia
157
Which type of cell helps the body resist antigens by releasing heparin and histamine?
a) Basophils
b) Monocytes
c) Eosinophils
d) Neutrophils
a) Basophils
158
Which of the following hemoglobin results is abnormal in a woman of any age?
a) 8 gm
b) 12 gm
c) 14 gm
d) 13 gm
a) 8 gm
159
Which laboratory study measures the average size of red blood cells?
a) MCV
b) MCH
c) MCHC
d) PBR
a) MCV
160
Which type of cell is the first line of defense against bacterial infection?
a) Basophils
b) Monocytes
c) Neutrophils
d) Platelets
c) Neutrophils
161
T/F - Polycythemia vera increases the risk of venous thrombosis
True
162
T/F - A patient with iron deficiency anemia is likely to have a normocytic, normochromic form of anemia
False
163
T/F - Scrupulous handwashing is the most effective method of preventing a life threatening infection in a patient with severe neutropenia
True
164
T/F - "Nadir" is the term used to describe the lowest white blood cell count before the count starts to rise in a patient with chemotherapy
True
165
T/F - Monocytes produce the antiviral substance interferon
True
166
T/F - The nurse can use the "tilt test" to assess the cardiovascular effects of anemia before having a patient perform activities
True
167
T/F - Fresh fruit and raw vegetables are eliminated from the diet in a patient with severe neutropenia to lessen the chance of infection
True
168
Which of the following laboratory measurements is used to assess the effectiveness of glucose control of people with diabetes
a) HCT
b) MCV
c) MCHC
d) Hgb A1C
d) Hgb A1C
169
Low RBCs
Anemia
170
High RBCs
Polycythemia
171
Low WBCs
Leukopenia
172
High WBCs
Leukocytosis
173
Low platelets
Thrombocytopenia
174
High platelets
Thrombocytosis
175
Why would you give an iron supplement with orange juice?
Because the vitamin C in the orange juice aids in iron absorption
176
What is a Sickledex test?
Shows sickling of RBCs when oxygenation is low
177
____ is the destruction, or lysis of RBCs
Hemolysis
178
A ____ ___ ____ (CBC) is done to determine the number of RBCs and WBCs per cubic milimeter
complete blood count
179
Reduced numbers of all formed elements from the bone marrow - RBCs, platelets and WBCs)
Pancytopenia
180
In aplastic anemia, the bone marrow is essentially dead, so when a bone marrow biopsy is performed, the result is pale, fatty, yellow, fibrous bone marrow instead of the red, gelatinous bone marrow that is normally seen. What is this called?
Dry tap
181
Sickled cells survive only about __ to __ days
10 to 20
182
___ ___ anemia is an inherited anemia in which the RBCs have a specific mutation that makes the hemoglobin in the red cells very sensitive to oxygen changes
sickle cell
183
_____ _____ ____ (DIC) involves a series of events that result in hemorrhage. This syndrome is a catastrophic, overwhelming state of accelerated clotting throughout the peripheral blood vessels
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
184
Abnormal bleeding without a history of a serious hemorrhagic disorder is a cardinal sign of ?
DIC
185
____ is a group of hereditary bleeding disorders that result from a severe lack of specific clotting factors. There are two common types
Hemophilia
186
Hemophilia _ accounts for 80% of all types of hemophilia and results from a deficiency in factor ?
A, 8
187
Hemophilia _ is a factor _ deficiency, about 15% of people have this type.
B, 9
188
Hemophilia A and B are inherited as _-linked recessive traits
X
189
Acute ______ _____ ____ (ITP) results from increased platelet destruction by the immune system. Usually occurs after an acute viral illness, such as rubella or chickenpox.
idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
190
_____ _____ ____ (ALL) is the most common cancer in children and involves abnormal growth of the lymphocyte precursors (lymphoblasts)
Acute lymphocytic leukemia
191
______ _____ ____ (AML) usually affects people over age 60 and has a poor prognosis
Acute myelogenous (myeloblastic) leukemia
192
____ _____ ____ (CLL) predominantly affects the B and T lymphocytes and usually occurs in adults
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
193
____ ____ is a deadly cancer of the plasma cells in the bone marrow. Almost half of the patients die within the first 3 months after diagnosis because of the silent and deadly nature of the disease
multiple myeloma
194
What happens in multiple myeloma?
Cancerous plasma cells in the bone marrow begin reproducing uncontrollably. These cells infiltrate bone tissue all over the body and produce hundreds of tumors that begin to devour the bone tissue. There are holes in the bones that form a swiss cheese pattern
195
_____ disease is a lymphoma. Its distinguishing feature is the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.
Hodgkin's
196
Which family member should not be permitted to visit a patient with newly diagnosed leukemia?
a) The one who has a new baby at home
b) The one who has a history of asthma
c) The one who has received recent radiation treatment for cancer
d) The one who has a runny nose
d) The one who has a runny nose
197
Which of the following nursing interventions in a priority for the patient with multiple myeloma found in the ribs and femur?
a) Implement safety measures to prevent falls
b) Assist with all ADLs
c) Provide a high-protein, low sodium diet
d) Institute neutropenic precautions
a) Implement safety measures to prevent falls
