Blood And Respiratory Flashcards

(180 cards)

1
Q

What is the main function of platelets?

A

To begin the process of hemostasis when there is a break in the vessel wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What kind of cells are platelets part of?

A

Megakaryocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do platelets develop and get into the bloodstream?

A

The megakaryocyte continues to get larger, but never divides into new cells. Pieces of its limbs break off into the bloodstream, and those pieces are the platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What chemicals do platelets contain?

A
Actin and myosin
Calcium 
ADP
Serotonin
PDGF (platelet derived growth factor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three stages of hemostasis?

A

Vascular spasm
Platelet plug formation
Coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vascular spasm

A

Phase one of hemostasis, damaged vessel vasoconstricts to prevent as much blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Steps of platelet plug formation

A

Break in vessel wall exposes collagen, attracting platelets
Platelets attach to collagen, and then get larger, as well as more sticky and spiky to help other platelets stick to them
Platelets release ADP to signal other platelets to come
Platelets also release serotonin to enhance the vascular spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the outcome of phase one of coagulation?

A

Prothrombin activator forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two ways that phase one of coagulation can occur?

A

Intrinsic pathway: happens with less extreme injuries, slower process with more steps and factors to be activated before prothrombin activator forms
Extrinsic pathway: happens with tissue cell trauma, faster process with less factors before prothrombin activator forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens in phase two of coagulation?

A

Prothrombin activator transforms prothrombin into thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens in phase three of coagulation?

A

Thrombin activates fibrinogen into fibrin, which makes a fiber mesh at the injury site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the difference between fibrinogen and fibrin?

A

Fibrinogen is a dissolved protein the blood (soluble substance) and can’t do anything until it runs into thrombin
Fibrin precipitates out of the solution (becomes insoluble and visible) in order to be able to work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do platelets play a role in clot repair?

A

The platelets pull their actin and myosin together, contracting the space together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What chemicals signal for repair at the site of a clot?

A

PDGF and EDGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does fibrinolysis work?

A

Plasminogen becomes plasmin in the clot, which breaks the clot apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some things that help to limit unwanted clot formation in the body?

A

Body maintaining a smooth endothelial lining at all times
The body quickly removing clotting factors from blood
The body inhibiting activated factors quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the main danger of a thromboembolic disorder?

A

The embolus getting stuck somewhere, like in the brain or lungs, cutting off blood supply to that area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens in clotting disorders?

A

The blood doesn’t clot quickly enough/well enough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are three examples of clotting disorders?

A

Hemophilia: missing a clotting factor
Liver damage: most clotting factors are made in the liver, and liver damage might change that
Thrombocytopenia: low platelet count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does atmospheric pressure relate to intra-alveolar pressure?

A

The atmospheric pressure will always be the zero pressure or the baseline for the intra-alveolar pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What will the relationship be between pleural pressure and intra-alveolar pressure be under normal conditions?

A

The pleural pressure will always be negative as compared to the intra-alveolar pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the difference between pleural pressure and intra-alveolar pressure called?

A

Transpulmonary pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens if the transpulmonary pressure equals zero?

A

The lungs will collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What two conditions could cause the transpulmonary pressure to equal zero?

A

Pneumothorax or hemothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What does Boyle’s law say?
When volume increases, pressure decreases/when volume decreases, pressure increases
26
Describe the mechanical process of breathing (4 steps)
Muscles contract, volume increases, pressure decreases (becomes more negative), and gas enters the lungs
27
What muscles are used for normal inspiration?
Diaphragm (flattens when contracted) and the external intercostals
28
For a forceful inhalation, which other muscles are used?
Sternocleidomastoid, pectoralis minor, and scalenes
29
What are the four mechanical processes of expiration?
Muscles relax, volume goes down, pressure goes up (becomes more positive), and gas leaves the lungs
30
What muscles are used for passive expiration?
None, the muscles simply relax
31
What muscles are used for forced expiration?
Internal intercostals, abdominals, external obliques
32
What does airway resistance do to pulmonary ventilation?
Decreases air flow
33
What factors could cause airway restriction?
Obstructed bronchiole or constricted bronchiole in the case of asthma/allergies
34
What is the role of surfactants in the lungs?
Surfactant helps to overcome the surface tension (attraction of the water) in the alveoli that would cause them to collapse without it
35
When do type II cells mature in the lungs?
At 8 months in utero
36
What is the respiratory risk for a baby born prematurely?
If their type II alveolar cells aren’t yet secreting surfactant, their lungs wont be able to overcome the alveolar surface tension and they wont be able to breathe on their own
37
What does lung compliance mean?
The ease with which the lungs inflate. Highly compliant lungs easily fill with air
38
What are some factors that can decrease lung compliance?
Scar tissue Thorax deformities Ossification of costal cartilage Decrease in thoracic cage flexibility
39
What are the four respiratory volumes?
Tidal volume Inspiratory reserve volume Expiratory reserve volume Residual volume
40
Tidal volume
The amount of air that can be breathed in and out in a normal respiration
41
Inspiratory reserve volume
The amount of air that can be forcibly inhaled beyond tidal inhalation
42
Expiratory reserve volume
The amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled beyond tidal exhalation
43
Residual volume
The amount of air that remains in the lungs after forced exhalation (the air that keeps the lungs from collapsing)
44
What are the four lung capacities?
Inspiratory capacity Functional residual capacity Vital capacity Total lung capacity
45
Inspiratory capacity
Tidal volume plus inspiratory reserve volume
46
Functional residual capacity
Expiratory reserve volume plus residual volume
47
Vital capacity
Tidal volume plus expiratory and inspiratory reserve capacities
48
Total lung capacity
Sum of all the lung capacities
49
Anatomical dead space
The space of the conducting zone (usually about 155 mL)
50
What does Dalton’s law of partial pressures say?
The total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases will be equal to the partial pressure of each gas
51
How would you find the partial pressure of a gas?
Multiply atmospheric pressure times the percentage of that gas present in the air. Answer will be in mmHg
52
What does Henry’s law say?
It says that if a gas is in contact with a liquid, it will dissolve in proportion to its partial pressure
53
What does Henry’s law depend on?
The solubility of the gas that’s in contact with the liquid
54
Will oxygen or CO2 dissolve more easily in the bloodstream? Why?
CO2 will dissolve more easily, because it is non-polar and hydrophilic. It will dissolve about 20x more readily than oxygen
55
How likely is nitrogen to dissolve in the bloodstream?
Highly unlikely, as it is triple bonded and highly insoluble
56
What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolus versus the lung capillary? Which way will the oxygen move?
It is about 104 mmHg in the alveolus and 40 in the capillary, so it will move from the lung to the capillary
57
What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the systemic circuit versus the tissues? Which way will it move?
It’s about 100 mmHg in the bloodstream and about 40 in the tissues, so it will move from the bloodstream to the tissues
58
What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the tissues versus the bloodstream? Which way will the CO2 move?
It’s about 45 mmHg in the tissues and 40 in the bloodstream, so it will move from tissues to blood
59
What is the partial pressure of CO2 in the alveoli versus the pulmonary capillaries? Which way will it move?
It’s about 40 mmHg in the alveoli versus 45 in the capillaries, so it will move from the bloodstream to the lungs
60
What are two general factors that can influence the function of the respiratory membrane?
Thickness of the membrane and decreased surface area
61
What are some factors that increase thickness of the respiratory membrane?
Fluid buildup from things like pneumonia or left ventricle failure
62
What are some things that decrease surface area in the lungs?
Emphysema or carcinoma
63
In what ways and percentages is oxygen transported in the blood?
98. 5% is carried on hemoglobin | 1. 5% is free floating in the plasma
64
What are four factors that can effect hemoglobin saturation to increase oxygen delivery?
Low pH, higher temperature, increased CO2 (goes with low pH), and presence of BPG (anaerobic respiration byproduct) will all increase oxygen delivery
65
How do ph, temperature, CO2, and BPG affect oxygen saturation as pertains to hemoglobin?
They change the shape of the hemoglobin protein, causing it to unload oxygen more easily
66
What are the three main mechanisms by which CO2 is transported in the blood? In what percentages?
7% is dissolved in plasma 23% is bound to the globin protein 70% is transported in the form of bicarbonate ions
67
Explain the process by which carbon dioxide is made into the bicarbonate ion
Carbonic anhydrase combines CO2 and H2O into H2CO3 (carbonic acid) which turns into H+ and HCO3- (the bicarbonate ion)
68
Where is carbon dioxide made into the bicarbonate ion?
In the red blood cell
69
What is the chloride shift?
It is the movement of the bicarbonate ion into the blood stream and the movement of a chloride ion into the RBC (this happens because charges must balance)
70
How does breathing rate help control blood pH?
When blood becomes too acidic, you’ll breathe a bit more to release more CO2. When it becomes too basic, you’ll breath a bit less to retain a little more CO2
71
How do bicarbonate ions help to maintain blood pH?
Bicarbonate ions act as a buffer system, because they can drop or pick up hydrogen ions as needed to help balance the pH
72
What is the primary function of the lymphatic system?
Immunity/protection from pathogens
73
What are some secondary functions of the lymphatic system?
Maintain fluid balance Blood filtration Creation and maturation of lymphocytes
74
How does the lymphatic system help to maintain fluid balance?
The lymph capillary system drains excess fluid from the interstitial space back to the blood stream
75
What is found in lymph nodes and why are they there?
White blood cells, because it is a good place for them to monitor for invaders as the lymph passes through the nodes
76
How is the lymph capillary system like the circulatory system? How is it different?
Similar: It has vessels for carrying fluid that have valves, and skeletal and respiratory muscles help it get where it should be Different: it only flows one way (always towards the heart)
77
List the flow of the lymph capillary system
Capillaries > vessels > ducts > trunks > lymph into circulation near superior vena cava
78
What are the main functions of lymph nodes?
Filtering lymph Removal of bacteria Congregation spot for immune cells
79
Spleen function
Blood filtration and removal of old red blood cells from circulation
80
Thymus: location and function
Location: above heart Function: T cell maturation
81
How does the thymus grow?
It continues to enlarge until about age 60, and then it starts to get smaller
82
Tonsils: location and function
Location: lymphatic nodules in pharynx Function: protection from bacteria
83
What are the three sets of the tonsils?
Palatine, lingual, and pharyngeal tonsils
84
MALT: description and function
Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue that lies underneath the mucous membranes of the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts They stop bacteria before they can get into these structures
85
Peyers patches
Immune tissue in the second half of the small intestine and the appendix
86
Innate immune defenses
Surface barriers | Internal defenses
87
Surface barriers
Skin and mucous membranes
88
List the internal defenses of the innate immune system
``` Phagocytes Natural killer cells Inflammation Fever Antimicrobial proteins ```
89
Types of adaptive immunity
Humoral and cellular immunity
90
What are some physical characteristics of surface barriers that help keep microbes out?
The skin/mucous membranes being an actual physical barrier Cilia that sweep dust out of the respiratory tract Goblet cells that secrete mucous to trap bacteria
91
What are some chemical characteristics of surface barriers that help keep microbes out?
Acidity of skin Hydrochloric acid in the stomach Lysozyme in tears
92
What role do phagocytes play in innate immunity?
They eat foreign bacteria/pathogens
93
How do neutrophils and monocytes respond differently?
Neutrophils get to the scene of an infection quickly. Monocytes take much longer to get there, because they must leave the bloodstream to become macrophages. But once they arrive on scene, they can eat a lot of bacteria at once.
94
What is the target of natural killer cells?
They are looking for anything not identifiable as “self”. they are not picky
95
How do natural killer cells kill their targets?
They kill their targets by apoptosis (inducing cell death by triggering fas receptors)
96
How do natural killer cells help against cancer cells?
Good at attacking cancer cells, because rapidly dividing and mutating cancer cells wont have all the self-markers a normal body cell would have.
97
How does the systemic immune process of fevers work?
In the case of infection/illness, the white blood cells secrete pyrogens, which are chemicals that change the set point for body temperature, leading to a temperature increase
98
Why is a moderate fever good?
A moderate fever is good, because it increases the metabolic rate and induces iron and zinc sequestration in the liver and spleen so bacteria cannot use it, both of which aid in recovery
99
Why is a high fever bad?
A high fever is bad because it will denature proteins in the body so that they no longer work
100
What are two types of antimicrobial proteins?
Interferons and compliment
101
What do interferons do?
interfere with viral replication by warning cells around infected cells so they wont get infected
102
What are the steps of interferon operation?
``` Virus enters cell Interferon gene turns on Cell produces and releases interferon Interferon binds to neighboring cells Cells put up blockers so virus cannot bind ```
103
What does complement do?
Causes cell lysis in bacterial cells by creating a membrane attack complex that makes a hole in the bacteria
104
How does complement aid other immune processes?
it can opsonize (make tasty) invaders, flagging them so phagocytes will eat them
105
Compare and contrast innate and adaptive immunity
Innate: acts more quickly (upon first response, after adaptive meets something once, it will be faster than innate responses). Non specific, does not have memory, and is generally a local response, not a systemic one Adaptive: slow to respond upon first meeting (7-10 days) and has to have met invader once before to mount an effective immune response. Has memory, and is generally a systemic response
106
How does humoral immunity work?
Uses B cells, which release antibodies (B cells do not fight one on one, the antibodies do the fighting)
107
How else do antibodies aid in immune responses?
They can also flag things for phagocytosis
108
How does cellular immunity work?
T cells, which fight invaders one on one
109
Are T cells or B cells better at fighting abnormal/cancerous cells?
T cells
110
Where do B cells originate and mature?
Both processes happen in the bone marrow
111
Where do T cells originate and mature?
They originate in the bone marrow and mature in the thymus
112
What is an antigen?
A very specific part on a cell that causes antibodies to be generated
113
What responds to antigens?
Antibodies
114
What are three examples of immunodeficiency?
SCID Acquired immunodeficiency (hodgkins disease) AIDS
115
What is SCID?
Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome, which is a Congenital deficiency in B and T cells that is fatal if untreated. Treated by bone marrow transplant
116
What is acquired immunodeficiency and how does it work?
Also called Hodgkin’s disease, its a cancer of the B cells that makes patients immunodeficient by suppression of the lymph node cells
117
What is AIDS and how does it get to the point of being AIDS?
HIV attacks helper T cells, and it becomes aids when cell count is less than 200 cells per microliter with an opportunistic infection
118
What are three examples of autoimmune diseases?
Type I Diabetes Graves Disease Multiple Sclerosis
119
Type I Diabetes
Immune system attacks the insulin secreting beta cells in the pancreas
120
Graves Disease
Overactive thyroid
121
Multiple sclerosis
Immune cells attack the myelin sheath in the nervous system
122
How do hypersensitivities work?
Basophils and mast cells release histamine when allergen is encountered, but can overreact to an allergen, causing too much inflammation
123
What happens if allergies lead to a systemic reaction and what could the outcome be?
If systemic reaction, it is anaphylactic shock which constricts bronchioles, causes vasodilation and fluid loss from the bloodstream, and can cause hypotensive shock and death
124
Trace the path of food through the digestive system
``` oral cavity pharynx esophagus stomach small intestine large intestine rectum ```
125
oral cavity tissue types
stratified squamous epithelium and skeletal muscle
126
pharynx tissue types
stratified squamous epithelium and pseudostratified columnar epithelium
127
esophagus tissue types
Stratified squamous epithelium, smooth muscle, and skeletal muscle
128
stomach tissue types
Simple columnar epithelium, smooth muscle, and simple squamous epithelium
129
small intestine tissue types
simple columnar epithelium and smooth muscle
130
large intestine tissue type
simple columnar epithelium and smooth muscle
131
rectum and anus tissue type
Smooth muscle, simple columnar epithelium, skeletal muscle, and simple squamous epithelium
132
stomach function
mixing of food in highly acidic solution to kill bacteria
133
small intestine function
nutrient digestion and absorption
134
large intestine function
formation and storage of feces
135
What are the three types of propulsion?
swallowing peristalsis mass movements
136
peristalsis: description and where it occurs
smooth muscle contractions that push food along a tube. occurs in the esophagus and small intestine
137
mass movements: description and location
very intense and extended peristalsis-like contraction that completely empties a portion of the large intestine
138
where all are mucous and enzymes secreted in the digestive system?
stomach, small and large intestines, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, salivary glands
139
where does mechanical digestion occur?
mouth, stomach, and small intestines
140
where does chemical digestion occur?
some in the mouth via salivary enzymes, some in the stomach, but mostly in the small intestines
141
where does absorption occur?
almost entirely in the small intestine but some in the large intestine as well
142
From deep to superficial, what are the three layers of the alimentary canal?
Mucosa Submucosa Muscularis Serosa
143
What is the mucosa made of and what does it do?
It contains epithelial lining and secretes mucous and hormones. It can also have digestive enzymes and absorb some nutrients
144
What important features are in the submucosa?
Glands | The submucosal nerve plexus (of the enteric nervous system) that control glandular contraction
145
What are the different kinds of muscle in the muscularis layer?
Longitudinal muscle that runs parallel to the flow of food | Circular muscle that runs around the canal
146
Which nerve plexus controls the muscularis layer?
Myenteric nerve plexus
147
In what parts of the body is the serosa called the adventitia?
Esophagus and parts of the large intestine
148
In some organs, the serosa is also..
The visceral peritoneum
149
What does the enteric nerve system do?
Locally controls the digestive organs via nerve plexuses
150
What are the two digestive nerve plexuses?
Submucosal and myenteric
151
How can the autonomic nervous system influence the enteric nervous system?
The sympathetic nervous system usually inhibits it (fight or flight) The parasympathetic usually stimulates it (rest and digest)
152
What effect do acetylcholine and norepinephrine have on the enteric nervous system?
Acetylcholine usually stimulates and norepinephrine usually inhibits
153
How does serotonin relate to the digestive system?
95% of the serotonin in the body is found in the digestive tract
154
Why can cancer therapies and antidepressants have digestive side effects?
Because they mess up the levels of serotonin in the digestive tract
155
What is the mesentary proper?
Invagination of the peritoneum that brings blood vessels and nerves to the small intestine
156
What is the greater omentum?
Mesenteric structure that brings blood vessels and nerves to the stomach and transverse colon
157
Name the four types of macromolecules
Carbohydrates Lipids Proteins Nucleic acids
158
Carbohydrates (monomer, functions, examples)
Monomer: monosaccharide Function: fuel to make ATP Example: starch, glucose, sucrose
159
Lipids (monomer, function, examples)
Monomer: triglycerides (1 glycerol, 3 fatty acid chains) Function: energy storage and some hormones and cell membrane structures Examples: triglycerides, estrogen, cholesterol
160
Proteins (monomer, function, examples)
Monomer: amino acids (20 types) Function: catalyze reactions, also the structural components of cells and tissues Examples: enzymes, some hormones, cellular/extra cellular structures like keratin and collagen
161
Nucleic acids (monomer, function, examples)
Monomer: nucleotides Function: storage of genetic information Examples: DNA and RNA
162
Which enzymes break down carbohydrates?
Salivary amylase Pancreatic amylase Brush border enzymes
163
Salivary amylase
Produced in the salivary glands and acts in the mouth
164
Pancreatic amylase
Produced in the pancreas and acts in the small intestine
165
Brush border enzymes
Produced in the Microvilli of the small intestine and act in the small intestine as well
166
What enzymes break down proteins?
Pepsin Pancreatic proteases Brush border enzymes
167
Pepsin
Produced and used in the stomach
168
Pancreatic proteases
Produced in pancreas, acts in small intestine to break down proteins
169
Brush border enzymes (for proteins)
Produced in the Microvilli of the small intestines and act in the small intestines
170
What breaks down lipids?
Lipase
171
Lipase
Produced in the pancreas, acts in small intestines
172
What are lacteals?
Lymphatic structures in the Microvilli of the intestines that absorb lipids
173
What are bile salts?
They are made in the gallbladder, stored in the liver, and act in the small intestine. They are emulsifiers, which means they help to mix fat and water
174
What breaks down nucleic acids?
Deoxyribonuclease and ribonuclease
175
Where are deoxyribonuclease and ribonuclease made and where do they act?
Made in the pancreas and act in the small intestine
176
What are four general factors that can influence pulmonary ventilation?
Airbag resistance Surface tension Lung compliance Respiratory volumes
177
What happens in ischemic hypoxia?
Circulation is blocked
178
What happens in hypoxemic hypoxia?
There is not enough partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs
179
What happens in carbon monoxide poisoning?
Carbon monoxide binds to the iron on hemoglobin before the oxygen can, because iron is 20x more attracted to carbon monoxide than oxygen
180
What is histotoxic hypoxia?
Metabolic poisoning from something like cyanide