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Blood Bank Final Exam Flashcards

(79 cards)

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1
Q

What is the Reverse Type?
Anti A- 4+
Anti B- 4+
Anti D- 0

A

Reverse Type:
A1-0
B-0

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2
Q

Forward Type

A

Tests for the RBC antigens on patient red blood cells

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3
Q

Reverse Type

A

Test for naturally occurring ABO antibodies on patient plasma

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4
Q

Anti A

A

Detects multiple subgroups of the A antigen on red blood cells

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5
Q

What is the Reverse Type?
Anti A- 0
Anti B- 0
Anti D- 4+

A

Reverse Type
A1- 4+
B- 4+

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6
Q

H antigen

A

Precursor to A and B antigens

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7
Q

sese

A

No ABO substances found in secretions

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8
Q

What is the reverse type?
Anti A- 4+
Anti B- 0
Anti D- 4+

A

Reverse Type:
A1 - 0
B- 4+

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9
Q

IgM

A

Primary isotope of naturally occurring ABO antibodies

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10
Q

SeSe

A

ABO substances found in secretions

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11
Q

Type O

A

Contains the most H antigen

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12
Q

D-Galactose

A

Immunodominant sugar for B type red blood cells

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13
Q

AB

A

Contains no naturally occurring ABO antibodies

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14
Q

2:1

A

Plasma to cell ratio for blood bank testing

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15
Q

O Neg

A

Choice of transfusion for all patients

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16
Q

Incompatible Transfusion

A

Type A patient receiving Type B pRBCs

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17
Q

Pink EDTA

A

Sample that should be used for blood bank testing

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18
Q

Retype

A

Performed for patients who have no history in the LIS

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19
Q

3% red cell suspension

A

The diluted amount of patient or reagent red blood cells that should be used for blood bank testing

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20
Q

Hemolysis

A

Should not be used for blood bank testing if at all possible.

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21
Q

A patient has typed A positive, which of the following types would be the first choice to transfuse into the patient. ( Assume all are pRBCs)

A

Dce

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22
Q

A patient is type O-, what following components can be safely transfused without causing a reaction?

A

O neg pRBC
AB plasma
O plasma
A plasma
B plasma

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23
Q

AB negative patients can receive B negative donor blood. True or False?

A

True

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24
Q

DU testing is not clinically significant to perform on individuals other than infants because?

A

It is safer to result a patient as Rh neg from a transfusion perspective since that person could potentially make an antibody to the D antigen.

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25
It is possible for an individual to be Rh positive yet appear to be Rh negative in vitro. True or False
True
26
Match the Fisher Race nomenclature to its comparable Weiner nomenclature. DCe/DCe dcE/DcE Dce/Dce ice/DCE
DCe/DCe-R1/R1 dcE/DcE- r2/R2 Dce/Dce- R0/R0 dce/DCE-r0/Rz
27
Indirect Antiglobulin Testing
Detects in vitro sensitization to RBC antigens caused by corresponding alloantibody to that antigen
28
Direct Antiglobulin Testing
Detect in vivo sensitization of patient RBCs
29
IAT
Performed as part of a type and screen for pre transfusion testing
30
DAT
Performed to determine RBC sensitization due to disease condition such as autoimmune disorder.
31
Match the donor type with the corresponding pRBCs that would be considered compatible. O + All pRBCs AB + O Neg O- O+ and O- AB - O-, A-, B-, AB-
O+ comp. O+ and O- AB + comp. All pRBCs O - comp. O - AB- comp. O-, AB-, A-,B-
32
Select the following antigens that are part of the Rh system.
C, E, c, e, Cw
33
The D antigen only reacts at body temperature. True or false?
False
34
There is only one epitope of the D antigen on RBCs. True or False?
False
35
What Weiner type is the same as dcE?
r2
36
Why is blood bank saline used to wash RBCs?
It has a salinity concentration of 0.9% NaCl.
37
You have an AB- patient and need to XM 6 units of compatible blood. Your blood supply is running low and you do not have enough type specific blood to give the patient. It is perfectly fine to XM 1 AB-, 2 A-, 2 B-, and 1 O- for transfusion. True or False?
True
38
A patient is 89 years old and is admitted to the ED for a GI bleed. The attendee orders a TNS and XM upon completion of the ABO/Rh. You obtain the following results What is the best answer that describes how to result the patients blood type. Anti A- 0 Anti B-0 Anti D-4+ A1-0 B-0
The patient likely has a weak back type due to age. The A1 and B cell tubes should be incubated at 4 degrees celsius for 15 mins to strengthen the reaction. After incubation centrifuge and read for agglutination, if reaction strengthens to 2+ in each report as O positive.
39
When resolving a back type discrepancy caused by a cold antibody, prewarming the patient plasma and reagent cells prior to testing will generally resolve the problem. True or False?
True
40
What do you do if you have a: Weak Backtype?
Increase plasma to cell ratio or incubate at 4 degrees Celsius for 15 minutes.
41
What do you do if you have: A forward type with B backtype?
Test with A1 and A2 cells
42
What do you do if you have: (weak reaction) AB positive forward type with a O backtype (strong reaction)?
Potential Rouleauxx, wash patient cells and retest.
43
What do you do if you have: AB forward type with B backtype?
Potential Allo antibody
44
In the event you have an ABO discrepancy on a patient in need of a STAT transfusion you should emergency release blood that is compatible with the current forward type reactions.True or False?
False
45
A patient blood type of A is an example of a __________.
Phenotype
46
Based on the parents genotypes, what is the potential offspring phenotype outcomes? Parent 1: AB Parent 2: OO
A, B
47
How many drops of patient plasma should be added to the test tubes in IAT?
2
48
Knowing that O is recessive what following genotype-phenotype combos are correct?
AO-A OO-O BO-B
49
Match the following ABO antigens to their corresponding naturally occurring antibodies. A B AB O
A---> Anti B B---> Anti A AB---> None O---> Anti A,B
50
Multiple alleles can be found on the same locus. True or False?
True
51
Heterozygous Genotypes
AO AB
52
Homozygous Genotypes
AA BB OO
53
The AB genotype is an example of a ________ phenotypic relationship between the genetic expression.
Codominant
54
The ______ antigen is the precursor to all antigens in the ABO system.
H antigen
55
The reason for washing RBCs after 37 degree incubation during the IAT procedure is to?
Remove unbound antibody from the testing environment.
56
You are selecting a unit to transfuse to a type AB patient. What blood groups would be considered compatible for this patient?
A B AB O
57
Tube testing for indirect antibody screening is more sensitive than gel testing. True or False
False
58
The purpose of LISS is to eliminate all Vander Waals forces and make zeta potential as large as possible. True or False?
False
59
Each tube IAT is quality controlled through the use of Coombs Check Cells. True or False?
True
60
When using LISS in a tube for IAT, you should incubate the antibody screen a minimum of 30 minutes. True or False?
False
61
Match the antibody with its ideal reaction temperature. Anti-M Anti-E Anti-K Anti P1
Anti- M---> IS Anti-E---> 37 and IgG Anti-K---> IgG P1---> 4 degrees Celsius
62
A patient who has a PT of >90 seconds needs to have coagulation factors replaced. Cryo would be the best choice for transfusion. True or False?
False
63
AB negative patients can receive B negative donor blood. True or False?
True
64
All positive antibody screens must have a ________ _________ performed to identify the allo or autoantibodypresent.
Antibody Panel
65
Alloantibodies of the Rh system can react at 37 degrees or IgG. True or False?
True
66
Select all of the following that are true about crossmatching an AB negative patient who has anti- E
Any Rh negative blood type can be used as long as the unit is E negative.
67
Cryo once thawed and NOT pooled has an expiration date of?
6 hours
68
FFP can be stored at <-18 degrees celsius for how long?
up to one year from collection date.
69
Major Crossmatch
Testing recipient plasma with donor red blood cells.
70
Minor Crossmatch
Testing recipient red blood cells with donor plasma.
71
Electronic Crossmatch
used when patient has a current antibody screen that is negative and has NO history of previously identified antibodies- relies on a system of barcode scanning.
72
Coombs Crossmatch
Crossmatching patient sample and donor RBCs through the IgG phase of testing.
73
Place the transfusion testing in the correct order of performance to SAVE AS MUCH TIME AS POSSIBLE.
1. Incubate the antibody screen 2. Perform the ABO/Rh testing 3. Perform antibody panel if needed. 4 Perform crossmatch testing in accordance with the result of the antibody screening status
74
Platelets should be stored at?
20-24 degrees Celsius
75
Select any of the following that are true about pRBCs
They are made from whole blood They replace oxygen carrying capacity
76
Thawed FFP is the best component to transfuse in order to replace fibrinogen. True or False?
False
77
Thawed plasma has an expiration date of?
5 days
78
The D antigen only reacts at body temperature. True or False
False
79

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