Blood Glucose Monitoring & Specimen Collection Flashcards
(126 cards)
1
Q
What is the primary purpose of blood glucose monitoring?
A
To assess and manage blood sugar levels in individuals, especially those with diabetes.
2
Q
True or False: Blood glucose levels can be affected by food intake.
A
True
3
Q
Fill in the blank: The normal fasting blood glucose level is typically between ___ mg/dL.
A
70 and 100
4
Q
What device is commonly used for blood glucose monitoring?
A
Glucometer
5
Q
What is the term for the process of collecting a blood sample for glucose testing?
A
Specimen collection
6
Q
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a method for blood glucose monitoring? A) Fingerstick B) Continuous glucose monitoring C) Urine test D) Blood pressure cuff
A
D) Blood pressure cuff
7
Q
What type of sample is primarily used for glucose testing?
A
Capillary blood sample
8
Q
True or False: Blood glucose monitoring should only be done when symptoms of hyperglycemia are present.
A
False
9
Q
What is the recommended frequency for blood glucose monitoring in a patient with diabetes?
A
It varies but can be multiple times a day depending on treatment and individual needs.
10
Q
Fill in the blank: A blood glucose reading of ___ mg/dL or higher indicates hyperglycemia.
A
130
11
Q
What is the role of the lancet in blood glucose monitoring?
A
To puncture the skin and obtain a blood sample.
12
Q
Multiple Choice: Which factor can influence blood glucose levels? A) Exercise B) Stress C) Medications D) All of the above
A
D) All of the above
13
Q
What is the main advantage of continuous glucose monitoring systems?
A
They provide real-time glucose readings and trends.
14
Q
True or False: Insulin is the hormone responsible for raising blood glucose levels.
A
False
15
Q
What is the primary hormone that lowers blood glucose levels?
A
Insulin
16
Q
Fill in the blank: Blood glucose should be monitored ___ minutes after eating.
A
60 to 90
17
Q
What is the significance of HbA1c in diabetes management?
A
It reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months.
18
Q
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common complication of poorly managed blood glucose levels? A) Neuropathy B) Hypertension C) Osteoporosis D) Asthma
A
A) Neuropathy
19
Q
What is the purpose of using a control solution with a glucometer?
A
To verify the accuracy of the device.
20
Q
True or False: Specimen collection for glucose testing should be done using sterile techniques.
A
True
21
Q
What is the recommended site for a fingerstick blood glucose test?
A
The side of the fingertip.
22
Q
Fill in the blank: Patients should wash their hands with ___ before performing a capillary blood glucose test.
A
Soap and water
23
Q
What can cause false high readings in blood glucose monitoring?
A
Dehydration or stress.
24
Q
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia? A) Sweating B) Thirst C) Blurred vision D) All of the above
A
A) Sweating
25
What is the target range for blood glucose levels two hours after eating for most individuals with diabetes?
Less than 180 mg/dL
26
True or False: Blood glucose monitoring is only necessary for people diagnosed with diabetes.
False
27
What is urinary catheterization?
A medical procedure involving the insertion of a catheter into the bladder to drain urine.
28
True or False: Urinary catheterization is always a sterile procedure.
True
29
What are the common types of urinary catheters?
Foley catheters, intermittent (straight) catheters, and suprapubic catheters.
30
Fill in the blank: Urinary catheterization can be used for _______ urine flow.
facilitating
31
What is the primary purpose of collecting a urine specimen?
To diagnose medical conditions and monitor health.
32
Multiple choice: Which of the following is NOT a reason for urinary catheterization? A) Urine drainage B) Medication delivery C) Blood transfusion D) Urine specimen collection
C) Blood transfusion
33
What is the most common complication of urinary catheterization?
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
34
True or False: Catheters should be changed regularly to prevent infection.
True
35
What is the difference between a Foley catheter and a straight catheter?
A Foley catheter is indwelling, while a straight catheter is used for single-use drainage.
36
Fill in the blank: The procedure for urinary catheterization should follow _______ guidelines.
aseptic
37
What is the role of lubricant in urinary catheterization?
To reduce friction during the insertion of the catheter.
38
Multiple choice: Which size of catheter is commonly used for adult females? A) 8 Fr B) 14 Fr C) 20 Fr D) 24 Fr
B) 14 Fr
39
What is the procedure for collecting a mid-stream urine specimen?
Clean the genital area, start urinating, then collect urine mid-flow in a sterile container.
40
True or False: A urine specimen should be collected in a non-sterile container.
False
41
What should be done if the catheter cannot be inserted?
Reassess the situation, reposition the patient, or consult with a healthcare provider.
42
Fill in the blank: The bladder should be _______ before catheter insertion.
palpated
43
What is a suprapubic catheter?
A catheter inserted directly into the bladder through the abdominal wall.
44
Multiple choice: Which of the following is a sign of a urinary tract infection? A) Fever B) Increased appetite C) Weight loss D) Insomnia
A) Fever
45
What is post-void residual (PVR) measurement?
The amount of urine remaining in the bladder after urination.
46
True or False: Catheterization can be performed by untrained personnel.
False
47
What equipment is typically needed for urinary catheterization?
Catheter, sterile gloves, lubricant, collection bag, antiseptic solution.
48
Fill in the blank: Urinary specimens should be transported to the lab within _______ hours.
2
49
What is the importance of proper hand hygiene in urinary catheterization?
To prevent infection and maintain aseptic technique.
50
Multiple choice: Which position is commonly used for female patients during catheterization? A) Supine B) Prone C) Lithotomy D) Sitting
C) Lithotomy
51
What should be documented after urinary catheterization?
The date, time, type of catheter used, and any complications encountered.
52
What is primary intention in wound healing?
Primary intention is the healing process where wound edges are brought together and closed with sutures, staples, or adhesive.
53
True or False: Primary intention typically results in more scarring compared to secondary intention.
False
54
Fill in the blank: Wounds that heal by primary intention usually have _______ edges.
clean, approximated
55
What type of wounds are most commonly associated with primary intention?
Surgical wounds or clean lacerations.
56
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of wounds healing by primary intention? A) Minimal scarring B) Infection risk C) Immediate closure D) Granulation tissue formation
D) Granulation tissue formation
57
What is the primary goal in treating wounds by primary intention?
To achieve rapid closure and minimize scarring.
58
True or False: Primary intention healing can occur without any closure technique.
False
59
Name one advantage of primary intention over secondary intention.
Faster healing time.
60
What is the typical healing time for wounds closed by primary intention?
Usually 7 to 14 days.
61
Fill in the blank: The use of _______ can support primary intention healing by providing a sterile environment.
dressings
62
Multiple Choice: Which type of dressing is most appropriate for a wound healing by primary intention? A) Moist gauze B) Hydrocolloid C) Non-adherent D) All of the above
D) All of the above
63
What role does proper wound cleaning play in primary intention healing?
It reduces the risk of infection and promotes optimal healing conditions.
64
True or False: Wound edges should be kept dry to promote primary intention healing.
False
65
What is the primary intention healing process primarily reliant on?
Surgical techniques and proper wound management.
66
Identify one factor that can impede primary intention healing.
Infection.
67
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common dressing change frequency for a wound healing by primary intention? A) Daily B) Weekly C) Every hour D) As needed
A) Daily
68
What type of closure technique is typically used in primary intention healing?
Suturing.
69
True or False: Primary intention healing can only occur in surgical wounds.
False
70
Fill in the blank: The presence of _______ can indicate a complication in primary intention healing.
exudate or pus
71
What is the main disadvantage of healing by primary intention?
It may not be suitable for all types of wounds.
72
True or False: Patients with chronic diseases may experience delayed healing in primary intention.
True
73
What is the significance of maintaining moisture in a dressing for primary intention healing?
It promotes cell migration and reduces pain.
74
Fill in the blank: Assessing the _______ of the wound is crucial in determining the healing process.
size and appearance
75
What is an example of a wound that may not heal by primary intention?
A large or infected wound.
76
Multiple Choice: Which of the following factors does NOT affect primary intention healing? A) Age B) Nutrition C) Weather D) Blood supply
C) Weather
77
What is the primary purpose of oxygen therapy?
To increase the amount of oxygen in the bloodstream.
78
True or False: Oxygen therapy can be delivered via nasal cannula or face mask.
True.
79
Fill in the blank: The normal range for arterial oxygen saturation (SpO2) is ____ to ____ percent.
95 to 100
80
What does CPT stand for in a medical context?
Chest Physiotherapy.
81
Which of the following is NOT a method of delivering oxygen therapy? A) Nasal cannula B) Venturi mask C) Blood transfusion
C) Blood transfusion.
82
What is the primary goal of chest physiotherapy (CPT)?
To improve airway clearance and lung function.
83
True or False: Suctioning is performed to remove secretions from the respiratory tract.
True.
84
What is the maximum suction pressure recommended for adults?
120 mmHg.
85
Fill in the blank: Oxygen therapy is indicated for patients with ____.
hypoxemia.
86
What are the two main types of oxygen delivery systems?
Low-flow and high-flow systems.
87
True or False: High-flow oxygen delivery systems can provide a consistent oxygen concentration regardless of the patient's breathing pattern.
True.
88
What is the purpose of using a humidifier with oxygen therapy?
To prevent drying of the airway.
89
Which position is often recommended for patients receiving CPT?
The postural drainage position.
90
In suctioning, what is the appropriate duration of suctioning for an adult?
10 to 15 seconds.
91
Fill in the blank: The most common indication for suctioning is the presence of ____.
excessive secretions.
92
What is the recommended frequency of performing CPT in patients with respiratory issues?
Every 4 to 6 hours, as needed.
93
True or False: It is necessary to pre-oxygenate a patient before suctioning.
True.
94
What is the primary risk associated with suctioning?
Hypoxia.
95
Which device is commonly used for high-flow oxygen therapy?
High-Flow Nasal Cannula (HFNC).
96
Fill in the blank: The effectiveness of CPT can be assessed through improved ____.
lung function and reduced respiratory distress.
97
What is the purpose of assessing SpO2 levels during oxygen therapy?
To ensure adequate oxygen delivery to the tissues.
98
True or False: Oxygen therapy can be harmful if administered at high concentrations for prolonged periods.
True.
99
What type of patients might require suctioning?
Patients with respiratory illnesses, such as COPD or pneumonia.
100
What is the goal of using a Venturi mask in oxygen therapy?
To deliver a precise concentration of oxygen.
101
Fill in the blank: The suction catheter should be inserted no more than ____ cm into the trachea.
15.
102
What is the primary purpose of oxygen therapy?
To provide supplemental oxygen to patients with respiratory insufficiency.
103
True or False: Nasal prongs can deliver a higher concentration of oxygen than a face mask.
False
104
Fill in the blank: The __________ technique involves positioning a patient to facilitate drainage of secretions from specific lung segments.
Postural drainage
105
What is the function of percussion in respiratory therapy?
To help loosen mucus in the lungs.
106
Multiple Choice: Which device is best for delivering precise oxygen concentrations?
Venturi mask
107
What is the typical flow rate for nasal prongs?
1 to 6 liters per minute.
108
True or False: An oxymizer is a type of face mask.
False
109
What is the maximum oxygen concentration that a non-rebreather mask can provide?
Up to 90-100%.
110
Fill in the blank: __________ is the method of using vibrations to help mobilize secretions in the lungs.
Vibration
111
What is the recommended position for postural drainage of the lower lobes?
Lying on the stomach with the feet elevated.
112
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a method of oxygen delivery?
Nebulizer
113
True or False: Face masks can be used for both low and high flow oxygen delivery.
True
114
What is a key advantage of using a Venturi mask?
It allows for controlled oxygen delivery.
115
Fill in the blank: Oxygen therapy should be prescribed based on the patient's __________.
needs
116
What is the primary goal of DB&C (Deep Breathing and Coughing) exercises?
To improve lung expansion and clear secretions.
117
Multiple Choice: Which device is designed to provide a higher concentration of oxygen than nasal prongs?
Face mask
118
True or False: Postural drainage can be performed on patients with unstable spinal conditions.
False
119
What is the importance of monitoring oxygen saturation in patients receiving oxygen therapy?
To ensure adequate oxygen delivery and prevent hypoxia.
120
Fill in the blank: The __________ technique is often used in combination with postural drainage to enhance mucus clearance.
Percussion
121
What is the flow rate for a Venturi mask set to deliver 28% oxygen?
4 liters per minute.
122
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common complication of long-term oxygen therapy?
Oxygen toxicity
123
True or False: Patients with COPD often require oxygen therapy during exercise.
True
124
What is the role of an oxymizer in oxygen therapy?
To conserve oxygen while delivering supplemental oxygen.
125
Fill in the blank: __________ therapy involves the use of devices to assist with breathing and improve lung function.
Respiratory
126
What is the recommended flow rate for a simple face mask?
5 to 10 liters per minute.
