Blood transfusion Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

What blood groups are dominant and recessive?

A

A and B are dominant

O is recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

a patient is blood group A and requires blood due to haemorrhage.
what blood types can she receive blood from?

A

A and O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a patient is blood group AB and requires blood due to haemorrhage.
what blood types can she receive blood from?

A

A, B, AB and O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

a patient is blood group O and requires blood due to haemorrhage.
what blood types can she receive red cells from?

A

group O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

a patient is at high risk of haemorrhage so you decide to give FFP.
their blood group is O. what type of donor can they receive FFP from?

A

A, B, AB and O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

a patient is at high risk of haemorrhage so you decide to give FFP.
their blood group is AB. what type of donor can they receive FFP from?

A

group AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

a patient is at high risk of haemorrhage so you decide to give FFP.
their blood group is A. what type of donor can they receive FFP from?

A

A and AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what type of antibody is anti-A / anti-B in blood?

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what infections are blood donors screened for?

A

HIV
syphillis
hep B, C, E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the 3 blood components?

A

plasma - clotting factors, albumin and antibodies

buffy coat - leukocytes (WC’s) and platelets

red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are some of the indications for a red cell transfusion?

A

severe anaemia which might otherwise cause organ damage

improve quality of life in someone with uncorrectable anaemia

prepare a patient for surgery or speed up recovery

reverse damage caused by the patients own cells i.e. sickle cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how much is unit of red blood cells?

A

5 g/l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

over how long is red blood cells transfused?

A

2-4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

over how long is platelets transfused?

A

20 - 30 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how much is 1 dose of platelets ?

A

20-40 x 10(9) /L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the indications of a platelet transfusion?

A

massive haemorrhage

bone marrow failure

prophylaxis for surgery

if bleeding with cardiopulmonary bypass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

if a patient is blood group A+ and requires platelet transfusion due to bone marrow failure.
from what donor can she receive platelets from?

A

any blood group

you don’t require specific cross match for platelet transfusion as there are no antibodies/antigens in the buffy coat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what test can be used as an indicator of a patient requiring FFP?

A

PT and APTT

measure of clotting of the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when would a patient require FFP?

A

massive haemorrhage
DIC with bleeding
prophylactic

20
Q

what transfusion is given to correct fibrinogen deficiency?

A

cryoprecipitate

21
Q

how long does it take for FFP to thaw?

22
Q

when donating blood, how long is the sample valid for?

A

samples kept for 7 days but only valid for 2 days if recent transfusion

23
Q

what happens when someone who is Rh-D negative becomes pregnant and the baby is Rh-D positive?

24
Q

what are the indications of the direct and indirect Coombs test?

A

direct;

  • alloiummune haemolysis (i.e. HDN)
  • drug induced immune-mediated haemolysis (i.e. penicillin, methyldopa)
  • autoimmune haemolysis (i.e. SLE)

indirect;

  • cross matching for blood transfusions
  • antenatal screening for IgG causing potential HDN
25
in a massive haemorrhage, what immediate supply of blood products should you ask for?
6 units red cells 4 units FFP 1 unit platelets
26
in an emergency situation what blood type should you give a patient whose blood type you don't know?
group O -ve
27
what is TA-GvsHD
transfusion associated graft vs host disease a rare life threatening reaction in which the immunological competent donors T lymphocytes mount an immune response against the recipients lymphoid tissue
28
shortly after receiving a blood transfusion, a patient becomes breathless. what are the possible complications that could account for this? how would you treat?
Transfusion associated circulatory overload (TACO) Anaphylaxis Transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI) - 02 - diuretic - ventilation - adrenaline
29
shortly after receiving a blood transfusion, urticaria develops on the patients arm. what are the possible complications that could account for this? how would you treat?
mild allergic reaction anaphylaxis - anti-histamine
30
shortly after receiving a blood transfusion, a patient becomes pyrexic. what could be the cause of this? how would you treat?
febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction - anti-pyretic
31
what are the 2 main complications that can arise if a baby is coombs test positive at birth?
anaemia | jaundice
32
if a mother is Rh-D negative and the baby is Rh-D positive, what prophylaxis is given to prevent HDN?
the mother is given prophylactic anti-D at 28 weeks
33
at birth the baby presents healthily but starts to show pupura on their skin and on a blood test shows low platelets. what is the diagnosis?
neonatal alloimmune thrombocytpenia (NAIT)
34
what is the difference between direct and indirect Coombs test? (anti globulin test)
used to detect antibodies which are bound to RBC surface used to detect in vitro antibody-antigen reactions
35
what does a positive direct Coombs test indicate?
an immune mechanism is attacking the patients own RBC
36
what are the indications of cryoprecipitate?
bleeding due to thrombolytic therapy hypofibrinogen bleeding disorder i.e. von willibrands
37
would you transfuse a 76 year old with Hb 54 g/L and blood film consistent with megaloblastic anaemia?
no because she has either folic acid or vitamin B12 deficiency so you would give folate supplements and vitamin B12 injections this will improve Hg within a week
38
would you transfuse a 48 year old lady admitted for a planned hysterectomy with Hb of 95 g/L?
no because she is obviously bleeding from her uterus hence why she is probably receiving a hysterectomy e.g. menorrhagia therefore just give some iron supplements and it will improve
39
what is the main way to determine clinically if a patient requires a blood transfusion?
if their blood volume is severely compromised check pulse and blood pressure they could lose a lot of blood but there Hg may still be normal therefore don't reply on Hg level to determine if they require a blood transfusion
40
at what platelet level would you give platelet transfusion?
platelets < 15 x 10(9)
41
how is FFP stored and why is this of clinical significance?
frozen at -22 degrees and takes 30 minutes to thaw so have to pre plan if you are going to use it
42
would you transfuse a patient with DIC ?
only if they were bleeding
43
would you transfuse a patient with FFP who is hypotensive with an albumin content of 16 g/L?
no you would give human albumin as a plasma expander
44
would you give a patient FFP who is bleeding due to warfarin?
no you would give vitamin K + factor III and IV
45
what coagulation factors does cryoprecipitate contain?
Factor VIII and XIII von willebrand factor fibrinogen fibronectin
46
why may platelets and red cells be irradiated before transfusion?
to decrease the risk of graft vs host disease in patients who are at risk i.e. immunosuppressed