Board exam Flashcards
(466 cards)
1
Q
Describe the concept of implied consent in patient care?
A
Does not require a statement, such as when a patient is unconscious, implied consent would be assumed
2
Q
Define HIPAA
A
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability act, ensures information confidentiality and sets standards for patient privacy and protection in healthcare.
3
Q
Desribe Battery
A
Unlawful touching of a patient without justification or consent
4
Q
describe “respondent Superior”
A
Legal doctrine where the employer is responsible for the wrongful acts of their employees, the master speaks for the servant
5
Q
What are contact precautions
A
Private room, or sharing with same infection type, gloves gown and cleaning x-ray equipment with antiseptic
6
Q
Desribe extravasation
A
Tissue swells and becomes painful due to drug leakage into tissue, remove needle apply pressure and use moist heat
7
Q
Desribe neutropenic precautions
A
Isolating individuals with compromised immune system” reverse isolation”
8
Q
What are the parenteral routes of drug administration?
A
any route that is not through the digestive system such as topical, subcutaneous, intradermal, intramuscular, and inrtavenous
9
Q
What is positive contrast media
A
BArium sulfate, iodinated contrast
10
Q
What is negative contrast media
A
Air, gases
11
Q
DEscribe thr process of x-ray production in the tube
A
Electrons within the filament are headed due to thermionic emission creating a electron cloud and are accelerated to the anode, as they hit the anode and decelerate at he target, 1% is turned into X-rays and 99% is released as heat
12
Q
Define Assault
A
Wilfull attempt or threat of harm
13
Q
Define Dafamation
A
Talking about a person to a good part of the community
14
Q
Define false imprisonment
A
Conscious restraint of freedom of a person without authorization, privilege or consent.
15
Q
Define negligence
A
Failure to do something that is suppose to be done that affects the health and well being of the patient
16
Q
What is Res Ipsa Loquitur
A
The thing speaks for itself; it has three elements: the type of injury did not occur except for negligence, the activity was under the complete control of the defendant, and the plaintiff did not contribute to their own injury in any way.
17
Q
What is the Exposure indicator
A
Numeric representation of teh quantity of exposure received by IR, how much radiation was absorbed into the IR
18
Q
Describe the ARRT code of Ethics
A
two parts Part A deals with behaviors a professional should aspire to achieve and part B deals with mandatory rules of acceptable professional conduct
19
Q
Desribe indications for an ET tube and placement
A
ventilation, upper airway obstruction, acid reflux, prior aspiration, should be -1-2in above carnia
20
Q
What are the indications for a Thoracostomy tube (chest tube)
A
Drain intrapleural space and mediastinum, pneumothorax, hemothorax, pleural effusion, empyema
21
Q
What is the average body temp
A
98.6 but varies +-2 degrees
22
Q
What is the respiration rate of an adult
A
12-20 breaths/min
23
Q
What is the respiration rate of a child?
A
20-30 breaths per min
24
Q
What is the normal pulse rate for an adult
A
60-100BPM
25
What is the normal pulse rate for a child
70-120BPM
26
What is the normal blood pressure
systolic les than 120, diastolic less than 80 (120/80)
27
Define Tahycardia
Pulse rate above 100
28
Define Bradycardia
Decrease in heart rate
29
DEfine hypertension
BP greater than 140/90
30
define prehypertension
Consistent systolic of 120-139 and diastolic between 80-89
31
DEfine Hypotension
Low blood pressure of 95/60
32
What are the levels of concsousness
Alert and conscious, drowsy(reacts to touch and loud talking, Unconsious (reacts to painful stimuli), comatose (dosesnt respond)
33
What are some major medical emergencies
Shock, anaphylaxis, diabetic reactions, respiratory distress, CVA, cardiac arrests, chocking
34
What are some minor emerginces
Epistaxis, vertigo, nausea, vommiting, seizure, falls, wounds
35
What is the compression rate for CPR on an adult
100-200 per min at a depth of 2in, followed by 2 breaths
36
What is the way to give an infant CPR?
use 3rd adn 4th fingers to compress 1/2-1in at a rate of 100 compressions per minute and 15 compressions to 2 breaths
37
what causes hypovolemic shock
Loss of blood or tissue fluid
38
what causes cariogenic shock
Caused by cardiac disorders
39
what causes neurogenic shock
caused by spinal anesthesia or damage to upper spinal cord
40
What causes vasogenic shock?
sepsis, deep anesthesia or anaphylaxis, could be due to contrast reaction
41
What are some signs and symptoms of shock?
restlesness, anxiety, tachycardia, cold clammy skink, and palor
42
DEfine Hypoglycemia
Increase in glucose level in the blood, hungry and weak, sweaty, OJ or sugar rink needed, candy bar or any from or carbs should be given
43
Define Hyperglycemia
Decrease in blood glucose, excessive thirst , urination, dry mucosa, rapid deep breathing, and drowsiness, needs insulin
44
List the chain of infestion
Psthogen, Reservoid, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host
45
What are the modes of transmission
Droplet, direct contact, Airborne, Vechicle born(fomite), vector (an animal)
46
What are the parts of the needel
The hub (part that attaches to syringe), cannula, bevel (slanted tip of needle)
47
desribe the needle gadge sizes
The smaller the gauge the lager the diameter Ex: 25 gauge has a very small diameter compared to an 18 gauge
48
List the types of injections and the angles
Intramuscular: 90 degrees
Subcutaneous: 45 degrees
Venipuncture: 15-30 degrees
49
What vein is mainly used for venupuncture
MEdian cubital or Bacilic vein
50
Describe the contact precautations
Private room, or with another patient that has same disease, gloves gown, clean x ray equipment with antiseptic solution
51
List some diseases that require contact precautions
Methicillin- resistance staphylococcus aureus, HEp A, impetigo, varicella, and varicella zoster
52
List some diseases that require droplet precautions
Rubella, mumps, influenza, and adenovirus
53
Describe droplet precautions
Droplet is spread through large particles expelled in air, patient put in private room or with another person with same disease, masks
54
List some diseases that require airborne precautions
TB, varicella, and rubeola
55
Desribe airbrone precaitions
Private room, mask gloves
56
DEfine HAI
HEalthcare associated infection which is where pateint gets an infection while in hospital
57
Define Nosocomial infection
Infection due to being in a hospital, UTI, surgiclal site infection, bloodstream infection, pneumonia.
58
describe iatrogenic infection
Caused by the actions of a physician, such as after a procedure where the patient developed pneumonia because of a lung biopsy where the physician did not wash hands.
59
What are contrindications for BArium
Suspected perforation, fecal impaction
60
What are the contraindications for iodinated contrast
dehydration, anaphylaxis
61
What lab values are evaluated before certain exams
BUN, eGFR, and creatnine
62
What could a high BUN and Creatine mean
renal disease which could be worsened by iodinated contrast
63
DEscribe eGFR in terms of metformin use before an contrast exam
Patients with eGFR more than or equal to 30ml/min/1.732 do not need to discontinue metformin before or after contrast,but those with AKI or severe chronic kidney disease should temporarily discontinue metformin 48hr before procedure.
64
Desribe a thyroid storm
Iodine contrast causes the thyroid to produce TH in excess, causing fever, tachycardia, diaphoresis, agitation, nervousness, and emotional instability.
65
When is epinephrine given, and what does it do?
Treats anaphylaxis and acute bronchospasm, increases BP , onset of 1-2min and duration od 2-10min
66
What are some adverse events to epinephrine administration?
Cardiac dysrhythmias, increases ischemia in the heart, headache, muscle twitching
67
What is vasopressin
Alternative to epinephrine, rases BP by constricting vessels, increases blood flow, 3min onset, it is destroyed by liver and kidneys
68
What are some adverse events to vasopressin administration?
sweating, committing, tremor, abdominal cramps, hypertension, bradycardia, and myocardial ischemia
69
Describe dompimine
increases blood flow to heart and kidneys, 2-4min onset, duration less than 10min
70
What are some adverse events from dopamine administration?
hypotension with low doses, hypertension, dysrhythmias, headache, nausea, citing, and tachycardia with high doses
71
Describe atrphine
an antimuscarinic agent for those in cardiac arrest or Brady cardia, with 2- 4 min onset, a half-life of 2-3 hours.
72
What are the adverse effects of atropine administration?
worsen myocardial ischemia. Dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention
73
Desribe lidocane
Antidysrhythmic (antiarrhythmic), blocks sodium channels and affects myocardial ventricles, terminates PVC and converts VT to normal sinus rhythm, onset 30-90 sec if IV and 10M intramuscular, half-life is 80-108min but to 7hr
74
List dome adverse effects of lidocaine administration
drug interactions, drowsiness, confusion, nausea, gait disturbances, psychosis
75
Desribe bicrabonate
: used to treat cardiac arrest and severe metabolic respiratory acidosis,
76
What are teh adverse effects of bicarbonate administration
extraversion may lead to cellulitioius, necrosis, ulceration, CHF, metabolic acidosis
77
Describe neuromuscular blockers
: Paralyzing agents used in intubation, quick onset
78
What are the adverse events of neuromuscular blockers?
histamine release causing hypertension flushing and tachycardia, may trigger release large amount pf potassium
79
Describe the steps of X-ray production
Source or electrons: electrons are located in the filament on tha cathode sie they then heat with thermionic emission.
Acceleration of electrons: kVP accelerated electrons and forces tehm towards anode
Focusing of electrons at anode
DEceleration of electrons: electrons hit target and decelerated 99% is heat 1% is x ray
80
What are the type of interactions that happen at the target inside of the x-ray tube
Brems and Characteristic
81
Desribe Brems interactions
breaking radiation, incoming electron comes close to nucleus and slows down and changes direction, the closer to the nucleus the more it is affected by the electric field, the lost kinetic energy is displayed as x-ray, most diagnostic x rays are brems
82
Describe Characteristic interactions
Discrete spectrum at onlu 69keV, incoming electron interacts with inner shell ionization c=occurs and then an outer shell electron fills inner void , target material is the only thing that changes this spectrum
83
What is the relationship between freqency and wavelength
Inverse relationship
84
Deseribe X-ray quality
determined by kVp, the higher the kVp the better beam quality
85
Desribe X-ray quanitity
determined by mAs, higher mAs=more x-ray photons
86
Desribe inverse square law
The intensity of the x ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance of the object from the source (increase in SID= degresse in intensity.
I1/I2 = (D2)^2/ (D1)^2
87
List all the fundamental properties of X-rays
X-rays are invisible form of electromagnetic radiation;
they are neutral(have no charge) so they are not affected by electric or magnetic fields;
they can be produced over a wide variety of energies and wavelengths
they release small amounts of heat as they pass through matter,
they travel in straight lines,
can cause certain crystals to fluoresce,
can not be focused by a lens,
affect the photographic film,
produce chemical and biological changes in matter through ionizing and excitation,
produce secondary and scatter radiation
88
List the photon interactions with matter
Photoelectric, Compton, and coherent
89
Describe Photoelectric interactions
Total absorption, Incoming x-ray photon interacts with an inner shell K electron, the energy is fullly absrobed in this electron and it is ejected and is now a photoelectron, this interaction cannot ocur unless the incident x-ray is equal or has higher energy than the binding energy of the inner shell electron
90
Describe Compton interactions
Moderate energy incident photon interacts with an outer shell electron causing ionization and ejection from atom; scattered x ray retains most of energy, and can be scatted in any direction, responsible for backscatter
91
Desribe coherent interaction
energies below 10keV, incident photon interacts with a target atom and becomes exceited and releases excess energy as scatter, no ionization, no energy transfer, of little importance to x ray.
92
Desribe the attenuation of different tissues in terms of thickness, and type of tissue
The thicker the body part teh more attenuation(absorption), the more dense (higher atomic number) or the tissue will mean more attenuation
93
What is the SI unit for absorbed dose?
Gy
94
what is the SI unit for dose equivalent?
Sv
95
What is the SI unit for exposure?
C/kg
96
What is the SI unit for effective dose?
Gy
97
What is the SI unit for air kerma?
Gy
98
Describe the linear non threshold dose response
Late effects, non threshold=no safe dose, doses over time, used for cancer, genertic effects
99
Define deterministic effects
High dose early responce
100
describe stochastic responce
Low dose over a long time (late effects)
101
Describe the non linear threshold response
early effects, there is a spefic dose that causes effect
102
define RBE
relative biological effectiveness radiation ability to produce a biological damage
103
define LET
Linear energy transfer: rate at which energy passes through tissues, low in diagnostic x rays
104
What is the relationship between LET and RBE
Direct relationship
105
List some radiosensitive tissues
lymphocytes, epithelial cellsm genertic cells
106
List some radioresistant tissues
muscles, nerves
107
Desribe cell survival in terms of high LET radiation
High let has a decrease in survival teh repair mechanism is overwhelmed and there is no survival shoulder, adn irreparable damge
108
Desribe cell survival in terms of Low LET radiation
Low LET radiation has little change in survival at low doses; teh cell is able to find and repair some damage
109
What is the LD50/60 for humans?
3.5Gy
110
What is teh whole body lethal dose?
2Gy
111
What dose causes hemotologic depression
.25Gy
112
Describe the oxygen effect
The higher the amount of oxygen in the tissues the more radiosenistive
113
DEfine oxygen enhancement ratio
ratio of radiation dose required to cause a particular biologic response of cells or organisms in any oxygen-deprived environment to the radiation dose required to cause an identical response under normal oxygenated conditions.
114
What dose causes erthmea of skin
3Gy to small area
115
What does causes temporary sterility in females
2Gy to gonads
116
What dose causes permanent sterility to ovary?
5Gy to ovary
117
What dose to testes reduces sperm count
.1Gy
118
What dose to the terstes causes temporary sterility?
2Gy
119
What dose to the testes causes permanent sterility
5Gy
120
Define Embryo
1st week post conception to 2nd month
121
DEfine Fetus
8 weeks post conception to birth
122
Define Perinatal
around the time of birth
123
define neonatal
newborn to 4 weeks after birth
124
define infant
once outside of mother
125
What is teh safest weeks of pregnancy for radiation
First two weeks
126
What weeks of pregancy are the most unsafe for radiatoin
3-10 because of organogenesis
127
What dose increases risk for carcinogenesis
1Gy
128
What are the factors that affect tumor type
area irradiated, dose, age, species
129
Desribe leukemia
Long latent period of 5-6yr, solid tumors at 10yrs
130
Desribe Early effects
Deterministic, due to a high dose nonlinear threshold, indludes skinn effects hematologic effects, cytogenetic effects, acute radiation syndrome
131
DEsribe late effects
Stochastic, low doses over years, includes life span shortening, genetic effects, radiation-induced malignancies, local tissue effects , linear non threshold.
132
List the acute radiaon sysdromes
HEmopoietic, GI, CNS
133
Describe the Hemopoietic acute radiation syndrome
2-10Gy has a mild prodromal syndrome, characterized by a reduction in RBC, WBC, and platelets. Manifest illness includes vomiting, mild diarrhea, malaise, lethargy, and fever. If not lethal, recovery begins 2-4 weeks but may take 6 months. If a lethal dose body will hemorrhage and die by generalized infection, electrolyte imbalance and dehydration.
134
Describe the GI acute radiation syndrome
10-50Gy, prodromal period: vommiting diarrhea, nasua, the latent period of 3-5days, manifest illness causes more severe symptoms, death occurs from severe damage to the lining of intestines 4-10 days after exposure
135
DEsribe the CNS acute raidation syndrome
50+Gy, serve Nasua and vomiting within minutes, burning sensation of skin, up to12hr latent period, manifest illnesses more severe, disorientation, loss of balance, muscle coordination, seizures, then goes into a coma and dies cause of death elevated fluid levels, increased intracranial pressure, inflammation, or meninges.
136
Describe AEC
two types, terminates exposure once enough radiation reaches the IR, it has a minimum response timer that is usually 6 seconds if there is an error
137
What are the two types of AEC
Ion chamber and phototimer
138
Describe an ion chamber AEC
It is between the table and the IR making it entrance type, most common
139
Describe a phototimer
Below the IR which makes it exit type, fluorescent screen emits light when radiation hits it and then charges a photomultiplier tube, and then when the amount of radiation is reached teh exposure is stopped.
140
What is the purpose of primary beam restriction?
to limit the field size, which reduces patient dose, reduces scatter production, and improves image quality.
141
List the types of primary beam resrtiction
Aperture Diaphragms, cones and cylinder, collimators
142
Describe an aperture diaphragm
lead metal diaphragm attached to an x ray tube head and has a central opening
143
DEscribe cones and cylanders
cones are circular lead lined and slide into housing while cylinders are longer and can extend
144
Describe collimators
Most efficient, box attached to the tube and has first shutters to close the port window and secondary shutters controlled by tech, they improve contrast
145
what is filtrations effect on skin and organ exposure
increased filtration reduces exposure
146
What us teh effect pf filtration on beam energy
adding filtration causes increased beam effective energy and an increase in the average energy
147
List the NCRP 102 for radiographic units (tube housing, SID, collimator, and filtration)
Tube housing" less than 100mR/hr at 1 meter from the source
SID: within +-2% of SID
Collimator: +-2% of SID
Filtration: 2.5mm AL for over 70kVp
148
List the NCRP 102 in terms for fluoro units( soucre to table top, primary protective barrier and exposure switch
Source to tabletop distance: should not be less than 15in (38cm) in stuck units and should not be less than 12in (30cm) in mobile units
Primary protective barrier: must be interlocked with x ray tube
Exposure switch: must be dead man type
149
What is the NCRP 102 for fluoro units for the protective drape
must have a min of 0.25m lead eq
150
What is teh NCRP 102 for the bucly slot cover of fluoro
Min .25mm lead eq
151
What is the NCRP 102 for cumultive timer on fluoro
Audible signal at 5min
152
What is the NCRP 102 for exposure rate in fluoro
must not exceed 10R/min
153
What is the ESe rate for medium size adults
30mGy/min
154
What is the genertically signifacant dose
about 0.2mGy/yr
155
What is the fluror ain normal mode max skin dose
2.58mC/kg/min
156
What is the fluoro high mode max skin dose
5.16mC/kg/min
157
What is the purpose of a grid
Remove scatter before it reaches the IR, which improves contrast, this also requires an increased technique which means the increased dose
158
Define grid ratio
Hight of a grid strip divided by the thickness of interspace material
159
Define grid frequency
Number of grid strips per cm
160
Desribe ABC in fluoro
Automatic brightness control: used to decrease dose with an high kVp and a low mAs it is a subset of AEC, changes technique to maintain brightness
161
Describe magnification mode
higher dose, dimmer image, have to increase mA, lower noise, improved contrast, increased spatial resolution
162
What is the air kerma display for fluoro in normal mode
The tabletop intensity of fluoro in normal mode must be less than 100mGy/min
163
What is teh air kerma display for fluor in high level control
The tabletop intensity must not exceed 200mGy/min
164
Describe DAP
Dose area product: reflects patient radiation dose and amount of tissue irradiated; DAP increases with increasing radiation field size.
165
What is the DAP for intenisty
the intensity of the beam at tabletop must not exceed 2.1R/min for each mA at 80kVp
166
Describe leakage radiation
Comes off the tube, cannot exceed 1mGy/hr at one meter from the source
167
what is the thickness of lead aprons
at 100kVp apron must be at least 0.25mm thick lead, 0.5lead equivalent is recommended
168
what is the thickness of lead gloves
0.25 lead eq
169
What is the thickness of a thyroid shild
min of 0.5mm lead eq
170
what is the thickness of lead glasses
minimum of .35mm
171
Describe a primary barrier
Any wall which the primary beam is pointed, made out of lead or concrete, 1/16in of lead and extends 2.1m upwards when the tube is 1.5 to 2m from the wall
172
Describe a secondary barrier
protect from lecakge and scatter, made out of steel glass, gypsum, and wood, should overlap teh primary barrier by 1.27cm(1/2in) and should consist of 1.8mm (1/32in) nof lead, observaton barrier 1.5mm lead eq
173
Desribe the control booth barrier
Must be 2.1m upwards from the floor, must be permanently secured to fl the floor, and rays should scatter 2 times before reaching any area behind the barrier.
174
What is required of the exposure switch on a mobile unit
coiled cord that allows tech to stand at least 6 ft from tube/ patient
175
List the types of dosimeters
Film badge, Thromoluminescent (TLD), optically stimulated luminescence (OSL), instadose
176
Describe a Film badge dosimeter
Passive: accumulates dose until processing, max amount of time for use is 4 months
177
Describe TLD dosimeter
Lithium fluoride inside, when exposed it absorbs energy and stores it, to read it is headed and then it emits visbile light that is measured with a photomultiplier tube, can be worn for up to a year, can not read multiple times
178
Desribe an OSL dosimeter
Accumulate dose until processing, more sensitive than TLDm contains aluminum oxide, needs to be turn in to read, is stimulated with a green light and then it emitts a blue light t9o measure exposure, allow multiple readouts
179
Describe instadose
Instant readout, min reportable dose 3mrem
180
What is the NCRP 110
Occupational dose limits and public exposure
181
According to the NCRP 116 what is the effective annual dose for occupational exposure
50mSv
182
According to the NCRP 116 what is the effective dose cumulative?
10mSv X age
183
According to the NCRP 116 what is the equvlent dose annual to the lens of the eye
150mSv
184
According to the NCRP 116 what is the equivalent dose annual to the skin hands and feet
500mSv
185
According to the NCRP 116 what is the effective dose annual for public exposure
1mSv if continuous or 5mSv if infrequent
186
According to the NCRP 116 what is the equvlent dose annual for public exposure for teh ens of the eye
15mSv
187
According to the NCRP 116 what is the equvlent dose annual for public exposure for the skin hands and feet
50mSv
188
What is the exposure for a pregnant tech
5mSv over whole pregnancy
189
How dose mAs affect receptor exposure
Directly, as mAs increases receptor exposure increases
190
How does kVp affect receptor exposure
allows more or less radiation to reach IR due to the penetrating ability, not a proportional relationship, receptor exposure is doubled when there is a 15% increase in kVp
191
With an increased OID what happens
spatial resolution (sharpness) is decreased, distortion by magnification is increased
192
What happens as there is an increase in SID
receptor exposure decreases, spatial resolution increases, decreased distortion
193
Desribe focal spot size in relation to spatial resolution
The bigger the focal spot size the less spatial resolution (sharpness), the smaller teh focal spot size the better spatial resolution
194
How does adding a grid affect receptor expsure when the technique is not increased
Receptor exposure is decreased
195
How does beam restriction affect receptor exposure
Increase in beam restriction will decrease receptor exposure
196
What is affected when there is a larger patient
less receptor exposure, decreased spatial resolution, and increased distortion because of OID.
197
what would happen with an additive patholigy in terms of receptor exposure, spatial resolution and distortion
Receptor exposure would decrease, spatial resolution would decrease, distortion would increase
198
Describe a fixed kVp chart
part measuremnet less critical, dose is lower, less tube heat loading, grater exposure latitude, for every +- 4-5cm you double of half the mAS
199
Describe a varible kVp chart
mAs ixed, small extremities, part measurement is critical, for every 2kVp/1cm change in part thickness, scale of contrast is variable
200
desribe sptial resolution in terms of pixel size
Smaller pixel size better spatial resolution, which would also mean small pixel pitch which also increases spatial resolution
201
Describe sampling frequency
Determines how often the analog signal is reproduced in its digitized from
202
What would an increase in sampling frequency do
It will decrease sampling pitch which improves spatial resolution
203
Describe the Nyquist theorem
It states that eaxh pixel must be sampled at least twice in order to achieve teh desired spatial resolution.
204
If the sampling frequency is fixed...
pixel size stays the same and as teh IP decreases matrix size decreases
205
As the matrix size increases what happens
number of pixels increases, pixeal size decreases, resolution increases
206
If the matrix size is fixed as the imaging plate decreases, what happens
Pixel size decreases and spatial resolution increases
207
Describe the modulation transfer function
Masure of systems ability to display the contrast of objexts of diffenrt sizes, ranges from 0-1 (0 is harder to see and 1 is more black and white)
208
What is the MTF eqution
MTF= Max intensity-min intensity/max intensity + min intensity
209
Define bit depth
Number of bits determines the number of shades of grey that can be displayed. 2^n, determined by the ADC
210
As bit depth increases what happens
number of shades of grey increases, (long scale contrast), contrast resolution increases, visibility increases
211
Dsescribe Detective quantum efficiency (DQE)
Measure of the efficiency of an IR in converting the X-ray exposure to a quality radiographic image, an IR with high DQE lowers the radiation required to produce teh image, it is directly proportional to the MTF of the detector
212
As grid ratio increases what happens
scatter absorption efficency increases, receptor exposure decreases without comepnsation
213
Desribe the grid cutoff error of distance de centering (off focus)
Focused grid cutoff by loss of density on lateral edges of image, due to not being in right SID
214
Desribe the grid cutoff error of off level grid
grid is angled so there is an overall loss of density
215
Desribe the grid cutoff error of lateral decentring
Tube isn't centered or grid is not centered, so it is not aligned with lead m\lines, the overall loss of density one side worse.,
216
Desribe the grid cutoff error of upside down focused grid
loss of density on edges see grid lines
217
What does a high S number mean
underexposed image
218
Describe deviation index
value that reflects the difference between the desired exposure and the actual exposure, you want it to be as close to 0 as posible
219
Describe saturation
When IR is extremly overexposed and IR cannot process image and images is degreaded.
220
List the factors that affect distortion
SID, OID, angle, patient thickness
221
How do you calculate SOD
SOD=SID-OID
222
How to caluclate MF
MF=SID/SOD
223
How do you calcualte object size
Object size= image size/M.F
224
Describe the generator principle
A coil of wire moving in a magnetic field induces a current into the coil. The greatest amount if current is generated when teh relationship between the wire and the magnetic field us 90 degrees.
225
What is in a high voltage generator
high voltage transformer, filament transformer, and rectifiers.
226
What is in a high voltage transformer
step-up transformer, the increase is proportional to the tuns ratio
227
Desribe the transformer Law
the EMF induced into the scondary coidl is ti teh EMF in the primary coil as the number of turns in the secondary coil is to the number of turns in the primary coils (change the intensity of alternating voltaeg and current)
228
Describe rectification
Converts AC to DC, ensures that electrons flow only from cathode to anode, uses diodes, rectifiers are found in the high voltage section.
229
Describe a single phase generator
voltage waveform near 0 because of low energy x rays have low penetribility, almost 100% voltage ripple
230
Describe a 3 phase generator
Multiple voltage waveforms superimposed, 6 pulse or 12 pulse
231
Describe a high frequency generator
most efficient, low voltage ripple
232
What is the low voltage circuit
Operating console
233
What is included on the operating console?
controls for mA, time and kVp(autotranformer), ,AEC and line compensator (adjusts voltage)
234
Describe the autotransformer
Kvp selector, has a single winding that supplies precise voltage to the filament and high voltage circuit, works on self-induction, receives primary voltage and then provides out secondary voltage that is directly related to the number of turns on the transformer
235
What is in the filament circuit
mA selector, focal spot selection
236
What is the electron source and explain how it is excited
The filament is the source of electrons and thermionic emission is how electrons are excited and then get pushed toward the anode
237
Describe the target material of tungsten
high atomic number of 74, high melting point, the target as tungsten backed by molybidenum of graphite to increase heat capacity.
238
Describe an induction motor
This is how the rotating anode is powered, indludes stators and rotors
239
Describe a stator
outside of glass envelope, supplied with multiphase current and it consists of many electromagnets that are situated around the rotor
240
Desribe a rotor
Inside teh glass envelope, made up of shaft bars of copper around a soft iron core, works with stator to rotate anode
241
If kVp is increased with the AEC on what would happen
nothing, the machine would do the 15% rule and there will be no change in receptor exposure
242
Describe a CR imaging plate
Contains barium fluorohalide crystals, the plate phosphors absorb teh exit radiation and then release light, 50% of electrons are trapped and remain at high energy while the others return to normal state
243
What are the major components of a CR reader?
Drive mechnism, optical system(laser, beam shaping optics, collecting optics and optical filters), photodetector, and ADC
244
Describe the optical system of a CR reader
It scans the plate and releases the stored energy as visible light
245
Desribe what the the photodetector such as the PMT does in CR readers
receives light emitted from the scanned plate a d amplifies that light and then converts it into an electrical signal proportional to the range of energy stored in that IP
246
DEscribe the ADC in a CR reader
Digitizes signal from conversion to manifest image, responsible fro sampling frequency, and quantization (contrast), determines bit depth, scanning and quantization done in the ADC
247
What are the 3 steps of digitizing a latent image? (CR)
Scanning, Sampling and Quantization
248
Describe laser scanning in the process of CR reading
the IP is removed from the cassette and scanned with a helium-neon laser beam which releases stored energy as light , there is a translation(slow scan) or Raster scan (fast scan)
249
Desribe a translation scan of a CR imaging plate during processing?
Slow scan, continuous emission of light to PMT the plate moves
250
Describe a raster scan of a CR imaging plate during processing?
fast scan, left to right and top to bottom pattern laser moves.
251
Desrive CR sampling
PMT collects, amplifies, and converts visible light to an electrical signal, but for this to happen, it needs to be sampled.sampling frequency determines how often the analog signal is reproduced, and increased sampling frequency – decreases the sampling pitch
252
Describe Cr quantitation
reflects how precisely the sampled points were recorded, determined by ADS, each pixel representing a brightness value is assigned a numerical value which controls he nuber of shades of grey, this determines contrast resolution.
253
What are the two ways of conversion for DR
Direct and indirect conversion
254
What is direct conversion in DR
1 step where the photoconductor directly converts photons to electrical signal, the electrical signal is temporarily stored in capacitors in TFT array and the FET isolates each pixel and acts like a switch to send electrical signal to ADC for digitization
255
What type of photodetectors are use in direct conversion in DR
Amorphous Selenium (a-se)
256
Desribe Indirect conversion in DR
2 steps, the scintillator type detector converts exit radiation into visible light then that light is converted to an electrical change by photodetectors of CCD
257
What scintillation materials are used in indirect conversion
cesium iodide, or gadolinium oxysulfide
258
What photodetector is used in indirect conversion in DR
Amorphous Silicon (a-si)
259
describe a CCD in indirect conversion
used instead of a photodetector, photons interact with teh scintiliation materials , the charge is coupled by lenses and sent to ADC.
260
Describe CMOS
Complementary metal oxide semiconductor: specialized pixel sensors, when x-ray photons hit it converts them to light, which is then stored by capacitors; each pixel has its own amplifier that is switched on and off and converts light to electrical charge
261
Desribe the Image intensifier of a fluoro unit
Above the patient, recives an X-ray beam then converts it to visible light
262
List in order the components for the II to create a fluoroscopic image
Input phosphor, photocathode, electrostatic focusing lens, accelerating anode, output phosphor
263
describe rescaling
Automic rescaling is used with a histogram to maintain consistent brightness. The EI number tells you how much the image has been rescaled.
264
Describe flat fielding
an algorithm used in DR that eliminates variations in tissue thickness and brightness, eliminates the need for an anode heel effect, and corrects for dead or dropped pixels.
265
Describe histogram analysis
Maintains image brightness despite over or under exposure, identifies edges of image and then compares that to a stored pre-established histogram of the specific body part.
266
Describe edge enhancement
improves visibility of small, high contrast structures, increases noise
267
Desribe Equalization
underexposed areas are made darker adn overexposed areas are made lighter overall effect is lower contrast
268
Desribe smoothing
low pass filtering, reduces noise but decreases resolution
269
Define VOI
Values of intrest: range of histogram data set that should be included on teh displayed image
270
Desribe LUT
Straight line graph that shows the processed image exactly the same as the original image, the object is to increase contrast, alters original pixel value , after processing the image now has high contrast
271
List some postprocessing
Window level, window width, ROI, croping or masking, sticthing
272
Descibr window level
Changes brightness
273
DEscribe window width
Changes contrast, a wide window width lowers the contrast and a narrow window width increases contrast
274
Desribe ROI
determines pixel intensity for a selected area
275
DEscribe croping or masking
can be used to get rid of veil glare not in place of proper collimation
276
DEscibr some viewing conditions for Display monitors when viewing X-rays
Position monitors away from direct light, maintain low ambient light, and have the viewer directly in front of the monitor (no angle).
277
Define an EMR
the Digital version of the patient chart, contains medical history, lab, radiology notes, etc. Patients have ability to access online with username and passowrd
278
DEsribe HIS
Hospital information system: part of patient EMR includes lab results, radiology, pathology, medications, RN.MD notes, records or therapies/interventions
279
Describe RIS
Radiology information system: patients EMR specific to radiology, includes scheduling, images, and reports
280
Describe PACS
Picture Archival and Communication System: computer system designed for digital imaging that can capture, store, distribute and display digital images.
281
Describe DICOM
Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine: communication standard for imaging and sharing between PACS and imaging modalities
282
What are the steps that happen digital when a MD orders an imaging exam
MD orders exam, Order enterd in RIS, RIS sends PACS a message to find archived images, Requision is generated, RT preps room, RT preforms exam, images processed and sent to PACS, images tagged with info from RIS, Archived info available in PACS, MD receives archived and new images, MD dictates images
283
Desribe the light field to radiation field alignment beam restriction QC test.
Tests that the x ray field is exactly where the light is, must be within 2% of SID, preformed at 40SID
284
Describe Perpendicularity QC test for central ray alignment.
Uses a washer or beam alignment tool, must be within 1% if SID, two balls in alignment tool should be superimposed
285
Desribe the X-ray beam to bucky alignment QC test for central ray alignment.
Done to confirm that the bucky tray and CR are alligned, detent tube and do the same as a washer or beam alignment tube must be within 1%of SID.
286
Describe the erasure thoroughness QC test.
Take an exposure of an aluminum step wedge and process the IP, then re-expose the same plate without an object on the IP and examine for a ghost image
287
Desribe the Plate uniformity QC test
Look for negative density (light) artifacts, erase the plate, open the collimation as wide as the plate and use at least 72SID, take a flat field exposure (image of nothing), and observe for artifacts.
288
Desribe the Spatial resolution QC test
Use a wire of mesh or bar test pattern, observe for line pairs look fro edge spread or line spread.
289
What is the positioning for an AP axial (towne) skull?
Patient AP, OML, or IOML perpendicular to IR, if OML used an angle 30 degrees caudal, or for IOML 37 degrees caudal.
290
What is best demonstrated on an AP axial skull?
Occipital bone, dorsum sellae and posterior clinoid process seen in foramen magnum
291
How do you position for a lateral skull?
True lateral, side of intrest close to IR, MSP parallel to IR, CR 2in superior to EAM.
292
What is best seen in a lateral skull?
Sella turcica overlapping, superior orbital plates superimposed.
293
How do you position for an PA axial Caldwell skull?
Patient nose and forehead touch IR, OML perpendicular to IR, CR 15 degrees caudal and center to exit nasion
294
What is best demonstrated on a PA axial caldwell for skull?
Petrous ridges in lower 1/3 of orbits, shows frontal bone and anterior ethmoid sinuses
295
How do you position for a PA skull?
OML perpendicular to IR, MSP perpendicular to IR, CR is parallel to OML exiting glabella
296
What is best demonstrated on a PA skull?
Petrous ridges filling orbits, frontal bone, crista Galli, dorsum sellae
297
How do you position for an SMV of skull?
IOML parallel to IR, rest patients head on vertex, MSP perpendiuclar, CR tio IOML 1 1/2in inferior to mandibuliar symphysis or midway between gonions.
298
What is best demonstrated on a SMV?
Mentum, foramen magnum, occipital bone, foramen ovale and spinosum
299
How do you position for a trauma AP axial (reverse Caldwell)?
MSP perpendicular to table CR parallel to OML, center to glabella, angle CR 15 degrees cephalic to OML
300
How do you position for a trauma AP axial (Towne)
MSP perpendicular to table, angle 30 degrees caudal to OML or 37 degrees caudal to IOML, CR midway between EAM and exit foramen magnum
301
How do you position for a lateral facial bones?
Side of interest closest o IR, MSP parallel to IR, IML perpendicualr to IR, CR to zygoma (midway between outer canthus and EAM)
302
How do you position for a Parietioacanthial of facial bones
MML perpendicular to IR, OML forms a 37-degree angle with IR, MSP perpendicualr CR to acanthion.
303
What is best demonstrated on PArietoacanthaial facial bones?
Petrous ridges below maxillary sinuses, including all facial bones
304
How do you position for a PA axial (caldwell) of facial bones?
OML perpendicualr to IR, 15 degree caudal exits nasion.
305
How do you position for a modified parietoacanthial?
LML perpendicular, OML forms a 55 degree angle with IR, CR to Acanthion.
306
What is best demonstrated on a modified parietoacanthial?
Oribital floors, orbital fractures
307
How do you position for an Axiolateral oblique mandible?
Head in true lateral, then rotates the head 10-15 degrees for a general survey or mandible, 30 degrees for the body, 45 degrees for mentum.
308
how do you position for a PA mandible
OML perpendicular to IR, MSP perpendicular, CR exits junction of lips
309
How do you position for an AP axial (towne) mandible>
OML perpendicualr to IR, MSP perpendicular, CR 35 degrees to OML or 42 degrees to IOML CR 1in superior to glabella.
310
How do you position for a PA axial mandible
OML perpendicular to IR, MSP perpendicualr to IR, CR 20-25 degrees cephalic
311
How do you position for an Axioloateral oblique TMJ (modified law)
IPL perpendicular to IR, MSP parallel, from lateral rotate face 15 degrees towards CR angle 15 degrees caudal to 1 1/2 in superior to upside EAM
312
How do you position for an Axiolateral TMJ (modified shculer)?
head in true lateral, IPl perpendicular, MSP parallel, CR 25-30 degree caudal centered 1 1/2 anterior and 2in superior to upside EAM.
313
How do you position for an AP axial towne for TMJ?
OML perpendicualr, MSP perepndicualr, CR 35 degrees caudal from OML or 42 degrees caudal from IOML, CR 3in superior to nasion.
314
How do you position for lateral nasal bones?
done tabletip using a finger technique, do both laterals, rest head on table MSP parallel, IP perpendicualr, CR 1/2in inferior to nasion.
315
How do you position for PA axial for sinuses?
OML perpendicular to IR 15 degree tilt of IR or of the head, CR must be horizontal to the nation.
316
What is best demonstrated in a PA caldwell for sinuses
Frontal and ethmoid sinus, petrous ridges in lower 1/3 of maxillary sinuses.
317
What is best demonstrated for an SMV for sinuses
Sphenoid and ethmoid sinuses, mandibular condyles anterior to petrous ridges
318
How do you position for an AP axial c- spine?
AP with head slightly extended, Cr 15-20 dgrees cephalic to C4, collimate from mentum to jugular notch, suspend respiration
319
What is best demonstrated on an AP axial C-spine?
presence of cervical ribs
320
How do you position for an AP open mouth C-spine?
Align lower margin of upper incisors to mastoid process perpendicular to IR, open mouth as wide as possible, CR to canthus of lips, patient pronate during exposure.
321
What is best demonstarted on an AP open mouth C-spine?
C1-C2 and odontiod
322
How do you poistion for a lateral C-spine?
72SID, true lateral CR to C4 elevate chin
323
What is best demonstrated on a laterla C-spine?
Zygopophyseal joints
324
How do you position for RAO and LAO cervical spine obliques?
Patient obliques 45 degrees angle 15-20 degrees caudal to C4,
325
What is best demonstrated on RAO and LAO cervcial spine obliqies?
Foramina closest to IR.
326
How do you position for LPO and RPO cervical spine obliques?
Patient obliqued 45 degrees 72SID, CR 15-20 degrees cephalic toC4,
327
What is best demonstrated on the LPO and RPO cervical spine obliques?
Foramina farthest from IR
328
How do you position for a cervical spine lateral swimmers?
Ture lateal list arm closest to IR and father rm allow shoulder to drop, CR to C7-T1
329
How do you position for an AP dens (fuchs) of the c -spine?
Used if undable to get dens image on AP open mouth, MML perpendicular to table, have patient extend neck ans far as they can and CR to foramen magnum
330
How do you position for a AP T spine
IR is placed 1 11/2in above shoulder to place T7 in center done either on orthostatic breathing or exphriatioun.
331
How do you position for an AP lumbar
MSP centered CR for lumbosacral exams centered at the crest (L4), or for lumbar only center 1 1/2in above iliac crest.
332
How do you position for a lateral lumbar
Cr ti illac crest and MCP
333
What is best demonstrated on a lateral lumbar
vertebral bodies and foramina
334
How do you position for a lateral L5-S1
CR 2in posteriro and anterior to ASIS and 1 1/2in inferior to illiac crest
335
How do you position of lumbar obliques
45 degree oblique CR 2in medial to elevated ASIS at L3
336
What is best demonstrated on lumbar obliques
Scotty dogs
337
How do you position for AP axial L5-S1
CR 30-35 degrees cephalic to MSP adn 1 1/2 in above pubic symphysis
338
How do you position for an AP axial sacrum
supine, CR 15 degrees cephalic 2in superior to pubic symphysis
339
How do you position for an AP axial coccyx
supine CR 10 degrees caudal 2in superior to pubic symphysis
340
How do you position for a lateral sacrum and coccyx
patient on left side CR 3-4in posterior to ASIS
341
Desribe myelography
Studies spinal cord using contrast where the cord and nerve roots are outlined by the injection of contrast into subarachnoid space can be done prone upright or in a left lateral with flexion, during teh exam the table is tilted all the way from erect to trendellenburg
342
What is the most common indication for Myelography
Herniated nucleus pulposus
343
What are the contraindications for Myleography
Blood in CSF, Increase intracranial pressure, recent lumbar puncture
344
How do you position for a AP axial SI joints
Patient supine 30-35 degree cephalic angle CR to MSP adndn 2in below ASIS
345
How do you position for a Posterior oblique SI joint
LPO or RPO, 20-30 degree oblique affected side up, center to CR 1in medially to upside ASIS, suspend respiration
346
How do you position for an anterior oblique SI joint
Patinet Prone 20-30 oblique affected side down CR 1in medially to downside ASIS
347
How do you position your hip for an AP?
rotate lower limb medially 15-20 degrees to place femoral neck parallel, CR to femoral neck
348
How do you position for a cross table lateral hip
move unaffected leg out of way and rotate affected limb 15-20 degrees medially, IR parallel to femoral neck CR perpendicular to femoral neck
349
How do you position for a unilateral forg leg non trauma?
: Patient supine flex hip and knee and draw foot and abduct thigh of affected side 45 degrees, CR to femoral neck.
350
How do you position for an axiolateral inferior superior trauma (Clements-Nakayama) hip?
patient unable to move either hip, IR placed with a 15 dgree posterior tilt, CR hosizontal with a 15 degree posterior angle
351
How do you position for an AP pelvis?
: patient supine medially rotates feet and lower limbs in 15-20 degrees to place femoral neck parallel to IR, upper border of IR 1 to 1 1/2in above crest
352
How do you postion for an AP pelvis bilateral frog leg?
patient supine flex hips and need with feet together and let thighs fall, CR 1in above pubic symphysis
353
How do you position for an AP Pelvi axial anterior pelvic bones (inlet)
Patinet position asme as AP, CR 40 degree caudal to ASIS
354
What is best demonstranted on an inlet pelvis
Demonstrates superimposition of anterior and posterior aspect of pelvic ring
355
How do you position for an AP pelvisaxial anterior pelvic bones (outlet)?
Patient position same as AP CR 40 degree cephalic to 1-2in inferior to pubic symphysis
356
What is best demonstrated on an Outlet pelvis?
Opens and elongates obturators and inferior pubic rami
357
How do you position for an posteriior oblqie pelvis acetabulum judet illiac oblique
45 degree posterior obliqye with affected side down CR enteres pubic symphysis
358
What is best demonstrated on an illiac obliqye judet?
Demonstrates anterior rim of acetabulum and iliopubic column
359
How do you position for a posterior oblique pelvis, acetabulum judet obturator oblique?
45 degree posterior oblique with affected side up, 2in inferior of ASIS of affected side
360
What is best demonstrated in an obturator oblique judet
posterior rim of acetabulum and iliopubic column
361
How do you position for an AP/PA ribs?
For upper ribs top of IR 1 1/2in above shoulders and MSP done on full inspiration
For lower ribs at MSP and lower border of IR to Crest done on expiration.
362
How do you position for the AP obliques of ribs?
RPO and LPO, 45 degree oblique towards affected side CR halfway between MSP and lateral surface of body, abduct both arms, upper ribs IR 1 1/2 above shoulders, lower ribs bottom of IR at crest.
363
How do you position for PA oblique ribs?
RAO and LAO, 45-degree oblique affected side away, upper ribs top of IR 1 1/2in above shoulders, lower ribs lower IR at crest
364
How do you position for a lateral sternum
72SID, erect lock hands behind back and oush cest forwards, top of IR 1 1/2in aobve jugular notch done on inspiration
365
How do you position for a RAO sternum
30SId, 15-20 degree oblique, top of IR 1 1/2in above jugular notch, CR enters elevated side of posterior thorax 1in lateral to MSP at T7, short shallow breathing
366
How do you position for a PA SC joints
Erect, CR enters at MSP and T3(jugular notch), done on expiration
367
How do you position for a LAO or RAO sc joints
10-15degree oblique affected side close to IR, Cr enters at level of T2-T3 and 1-2in lateral towards the joint of interest, Expiration
368
How do you position for an RAO esophogus?
30-40 degree oblique CR to T5-T6 top of OIR 2in above shoulders and CR 2in off of MSP to upside
369
What does na RAO esophagus demonstrate
entire esophohus midway between heart and spine
370
How do you position for a left lateral esophagus
: True lateral CT to T5-T6 top of IR 2in above shoulders
371
What does a left lateral esophagus demonstrate?
Demonstrates esophogus midway between spine and heart in a true lateral
372
How do you position for an AP/PA esophagus?
CR to T5-T6 IR 2in above shoulders
373
How do you position for an LAO esophagus?
35-40degree oblique CR T5-T6 and to upside
374
what is best demonstrated on an LAO esophagus?
Shows entire esophagus midway between spine and hilar region
375
What is teh prep required for an UGI
NPO 8hrs before, no gum, no smoking
376
How do you position for an RAO UGI
40-70degree rotation sthenic body CR to L1 and upside, hyposthenic and asthenic 2in below L1 with 40degree oblique, hypersthnic 2in above L1 and 70 degree oblique
377
What id best demonstrated in a RAO UGI?
body and pylorus barium filled, duodenal bulb and c loop in profile
378
How do you position for a PA UGI?
patient prone, CR sthenic L1 and 1in left of vertebral column, asthenic 2in below L1 and 1in left of vertebral column, hypersthenic 2in above L1 and 1in left of vertebral column.
379
What is best demonstrated on a PA UGI
body and pylorus barium filled and air in fundus
380
What is the centering for a right lateral UGI?
CR sthenic L1 and 1 ½ anterior to MCP, hypersthenic 2in above L1 and 1 ½ anterior to MCP, asthenic 2in below L1 and 1 1/2in anterior to MCP
381
What is best demonstrated on a right lateral UGI?
retro gastric space and vertebre in true lateral
382
How do you position for an LPO UGI?
: 30-60 degree oblique, sthenic CR to L1(midway between typhoid and lower lateral margin of ribs) and between midline and left lateral margin, hypersthenic 2in above L1 and between midline and left lateral margin, Asthenic 2 in inferior to L1 and midway between midline and left lateral margin.
383
What is best deomnstated on an LPO UGI?
Demonstrates duodenal bulb 1ithout superimposition of pylorus, fundus filled
384
How do you position for an AP UGI?
CR sthenic L1 and between middle and left lateral margin of body, hypersthenic 1in above L1 and left side of spine, asthenic 2in below and near midline of L1
385
What is the centering for a left lateral rectum BE?
CR to ASIS and midaxillary plane
386
What is the positioning for a left lateral decubitus BE?
Left side down CR to MSP and Crest
387
What is best demonstrated on a left lateral decubitus BE?
Shows lateral aspect of ascending colon filled with air and medical aspect of descending colon filled with air.
388
How do you position for a right lateral decubitus BE?
double contrast right side down CR to MSP and Crest
389
What is best demonstrated on a right lateral decubitus BE?
lateral aspect of descending colon filled with air and the medial aspect of ascending colon filled with air
390
How do you position for an LPO BE?
: 35-45 degree oblique CR at rest and 1in lateral to elevated side of MSP
391
What is best demonstrated by an LPO BE?
rectosigmoid colon and rectal ampulla
392
How do you position for an RPO BE?
35-45 degree oblique CR 1-2in above crest and 1in lateral to elevated side of MSP
393
What is best demonstrated in a RPO BE?
Shows Left colic (splenic) flexure and descending colon open
394
What does a PA double contrast BE best demonstrate?
transverse and sigmoid colon filled with barium
395
How do you position for an RAO BE?
30-45degree oblique CR to iliac crest and 1in left of MSP
396
What is best demonstrated on an RAO BE?
Right hepatic flexure open
397
How do you position for an LAO BE?
35-45degree oblique CR 1-2in superior to crest and 1in to right of MSp
398
What is best demonstrated for an LAO BE?
Demonstrates left splenic flexure open
399
How do you position for an AP axial sigmoid BE?
30-40degree cephalic angle CR to 2in inferior to ASIS and MSP
400
How do you position for an PA axial sigmoid BE?
30-40degree caudal angle CR to MSP and Exit ASIS
401
How do you position for an AP axial Cystography
supine , 10-15 degree caudal angle, CR 2in superior to pubic symphysis at MSP
402
What is best demonstrated on an AX axial Cystography?
urinary bladder filled with contrast free from superimpositoion by pubic bones.
403
How do you position for LPO an RPO cystography?
45-60 degree oblique CR 2in superior to symphyissi and 2in medial to upside ASIS.
404
What is best demonstrated on Posterior obliques in cystography?
Demonstrates contrast filled bladder not superimposed by elevated leg and posterolateral UV junction seen.
405
How do you position for a lateral in cyctography?
CR 2in superior and posterior to symphysis
406
What is best demonstarted in a lateral for cystography?
bladder full of contrast hips ans.d femurs superimposed, bladder seen anterior to sacrum
407
How do you position for an RPO and LPO IVU?
oblique 30 degrees CR at crest and 1-2in off MSP to upside.
408
What is best demonstrated in posterior oblique IVU?
Shows elevated side kidney is parallel to IR, downide ureter is free of superimposition from spine,
409
Were is the CR for a PA, oblique and lateral finger
CR to PIP
410
Where is teh CR for a AP, oblique adn lateral thumb
MCP
411
Where is teh CR for a PA hand
3rd MCP
412
What is best demonstrated in a PA hand
Base of 3-5 metacarpals free of superimposition, interphalangeal and MCP joints
413
Where is the CR for a fan lateral hand
2nd MCP
414
Where is teh CR for a lateral oblique hand
3rd MCP
415
What is best demoranstarted on a lateral oblique hand
Base of 1-2 metacarpals seen free of superimposition and 1st CMC joint free of superimposition
416
What is best dermonstated on a PA wrist
Demonstrates capitate hamate and proximal scaphoid without superimposition, radioulnar joint demonstrated
417
What is best demonstrated on a lateral wrist?
Demonstrates anterior vs posterior displacement of structures.
418
What is best demonstrated on an lateral oblique wirsrit
Demonstrates trapezium, trapezoid, free of superimposition
419
How do you position for a PA ulnar deviation wrist
patient hand prone in max lnar deviation, hand elevated 20degrees
420
How do you position for a PA axial (stectchers) wrist
hand in Pa max ulnar deviation angle 20 degrees proximal
421
How do you position for af. Tangential carpal canal (Gaynor-hart) wrist?
hyperextend hand and wrist CR 25-30degrees to base of 3rd metacarpal
422
What is bedt demonstrated in af. Tangential carpal canal (Gaynor-hart) wrist?
carpal tunnel, pisiform, and hamulus free of superimposition
423
What is best demonstrated on an AP forearm
humeral epicondyles in profile, slight superimposition of distal raioulnar joint
424
What is best demonstrated on a lateral forearm
head of radius superimposed over ulna
425
What is best demonstraarted on an AP elbow
Epicondyles and a general overview of the joint
426
What is best demonstrated on a lateral elbow?
Olecranon process in profile, and shoes trochlear noch , able to see fat pads
427
What is best demonstrated on a lateral oblique elbow?
lateral epicondyle and capitulum are in profile head, neck and tubercle, and proximal radioulnar joint ,
428
What is best demonstated on a medial oblique elbow?
coronoid process and trochlea
429
What is best demonratstared on a trauma axiolateral (coyles) for radial head
Demonstrates occult intra articular fractures and radial head
430
How do you position for a coyles for radial head
90 degree elbow 45degree angle towards shoulder CR 1in inferior to elbow joint
431
How do you positioon for a coyles for coronoid?
80 degree flexion CR 45degrees towards elbow coming over head
432
433
What is best demonstrated in an AO humerus
Greater tubericle in profle, medial and laterl epicondyles in profile
434
What is best demonstrated in a lateral humerus
lesser tubricle in profile, epicondyles superimposed
435
How do you position for an AP internal shoulder
rotate arm inwards / abduct , epicondyles are perpendicular to IR, CR 1in inferior to coracoid
436
How do you position for an AP external shoulder
rotate arm out , CR 1in inferior to coracoid
437
What is best demonstrated on an AP interanl shoulder?
lesser tubercle in profile medially
438
What is best demonstrated on an AP external shoulder
greater tubericle in profile laterally
439
How do you position for an inferiosuperior axial (lawrence) shoulder?
Orthopedic lateral , supine arm abducted 90 degrees and extrenally rotated, CR 15-30 degress medially towards axilla
440
What is best shown on an inferirosuperios axial (lawrence) shoulder?
coracoid process and lesser tubricle
441
Where do you center for a posterior oblique (grashey) shoulder
CR 2in inferior and medialy from superolateral border of humerus
442
How do you position for a oblique Scapular Y of the shoulder?
PA:affected side towards IR oblique 3-45,
AP affected side away from IR oblique 60degrees away CR 2in below top of shoulder
443
What does a scapular Y shoulder best demonstrate?
body of scapula superimposed on end, acromion and coracoid in profile
444
What angle is used for a neer scapular Y
10-15 degrees caudal
445
What is How best demonstrated in a neer scapular Y
superasinatus outlet anc coracriamal arch
446
How do you position for an AP scapula
affected arm abducted 90 degrees with hand supinated, CR 2in medial to axilla
447
How do you position for a lateral scapula
RAO/LAO affected side closest to IR patient afm placed behind back with forwarm over posterior waist
448
How do you position for an AP aiaxail clavicle?
CR directed 25-30degrees cephalic to midshaft or use lordic
449
How do you position for a PA axial clavicle?
CR caudal 25-30 yto exit midshaft,full inspiration
450
How much weight should be used on each wrist for AP bilateral weights AC joints?
10lbs on each wrist
451
What is best Demonstrated on an AP axial foot?
superimposition of tib fib over talus and calcaneus, tarsal interspaces, open MTP joints
452
WHat is best dhhat is best sown on a medial oblique foot?
3-5th MT free of superimposition, 3rd cuneiform and cuboid well seen
453
What is best shown on a lateral foot
Metatarsals superimposed, talus and calcaneus seen free of superimposition
454
Where is the CR for a lateral calcaneus?
1in inferior to medial malleolus
455
How do you position for a plantodorsal axial calcaneus?
supine flex foot 90 degrees pull toes out fof way CR 40 degrees cephalic to plantar suface at base of 3MT
456
How do you position for a dorsoplantar axial calcaneus?
40 degrees caudal IR agains plkatnat surface CR 2in superior tio calcaneal tuberosity.
457
What is best shown on an AP ankle
See medial ans superior aspect of ankle joint open
458
What is best shown on a lateral ankle?
Shows distal 1/3 of tibia superimposed by fibula, lateral malleolus superimposed over posterior half of tibia, talus and calcaneus in profile
459
What are the ASIS measurements and the angles that are used for them when doing AP and oblique knees
19cm of less 3-5 degrees caudal, 19-24 no angle, 24 and more 3-5 degrees cephalic
460
What is best shown on an AP knee?
femorotibial joint space open, articular facets profiled
461
How do you position for a lateral knee?
20-30 degree flexion epicondyles perpendicular to IRm CR 5-7deg cephalic 1in distal to medial epicondyle at joint space
462
How do you position a PA axial intercondylar fossa holmbland knee?
kneeling lean forwards 20-30 degrees CR centered to popliteal crease
463
How do you position for a PA axial intercondylar fossa Camp coventry knee?
prone flex lower leg 40 dgegrees CR 40 degrees caudal perpendicular to lower leg CR towards popliteal crease
464
How do you position for an AP axial intercondylar fossa beclere knee?
knee flexed 60 CR cephalic to lower leg 1/2in distal to apex of patella
465
How do you position for a tengential mechant patella?
axial viewer required, 45degrees of flexion ad n60degree caudal angle
466
How do you position for a tangential settegast patella?
affected leg flexed 120 degrees CR 15-25degrees to patella
