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Instructor/Facilitator Board > Board Questions > Flashcards

Board Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 steps in the execution sequence of an AAR?

A

Planning, preparing, conducting, and follow up (using AAR results).

Ref. A Leader’s Guide to After Action Reviews; pg 6; SH 2-7

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2
Q

Within the preparation stage, what is one of the 3 techniques that leaders use to organize AAR’s?

A

Present chronological orders of event, tie in warfighting functions, or develop key events, themes, or issues.

Ref. A Leader’s Guide to After Action Reviews; pg 11-12

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3
Q

What are the true benefits of AAR’s?

A

Apply results in future training.

Ref. A Leader’s Guide to After Action Reviews; pg 15

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4
Q

What is medical evacuation (MEDEVAC)?

A

The movement of casualties using medical assets while providing en route to medical care.

Ref. FM 3-21.10, pg 11-12, para 11-76

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5
Q

What is casualty evacuation?

A

The movement of casualties by non-medical assets without specialized trauma care.

Ref. FM 3-21.10, pg 11-12, para 11-76

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6
Q

If you wish to recognize someone for their achievement with an Army award, what Army form do you use?

A

DA Form 638, Recommendation for Award

Ref. AR 600-8-22, pg 42, para 3-19a

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7
Q

In the areas for achievement in Block 20, for awards of the MSM, ARCOM, and AAM, what is the maximum number of lines that you may complete?

A

A maximum of 4 lines.

Ref. AR 600-8-22, pg 49, Table 3-2, Step 17

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8
Q

When submitting a DA Form 638 for heroism, what are the additional requirements?

A

Statements of eyewitnesses, preferably in the form of certificates, affidavits, or sworn statements; extracts from official records; sketches; maps; diagrams; photographs; and so forth, which support and amplify stated facts for the heroism award.

Ref. AR 600-8-22, pg 43, para 3-19

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9
Q

When entering dates on the DA Form 2823, what format do you use?

A

YYYYMMDD

Ref. 191-0124, pg SH 5-2, Sworn Statement Heading 31

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10
Q

What information should you enter in Block 9 on a DA Form 638?

A

Information about who, what, where, when, why, and how.

Ref. 191-0124, pg SH 5-2 & 5-3, Sworn Statement Body

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11
Q

How do you close out Block 9?

A

Add the words, END OF STATEMENT (in caps), Please three slashes (///) prior to the word; END and immediately following the word, STATEMENT to completely close the statement out.

Ref. 191-0124, pg SH 5-1 & 5-2, Sworn Statement Body

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12
Q

What are the 3 parts of an informal memorandum?

A

The heading, body, and the closing.

Ref. AR 25-50, Chap. 2, pg 27, para 2-4

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13
Q

When preparing a memorandum, what font size do you use and what are the preferred font styles?

A

Font size of 12-point and the font styles Times Roman and Times New Roman.

Ref. AR 25-50, Chap. 1, pg 4, para 1-20

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14
Q

What is one way to create shorter sentences?

A

Write in the active voice.

Ref. AR 25-50, Chap. 1, para 1-44d(3)

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15
Q

Where do you place the signature block when preparing a memorandum?

A

Begin the signature block at the center of the page on the 5th line below the authority line. If there is no authority line, begin it on the 5th line below the last line of the text.

Ref. AR 25-50, Chap. 6, pg 48, para 6-4b

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16
Q

Which type of order should you use to provide initial instructions to your squad so that they have the maximum amount of time to prepare for the impending mission?

A

Warning Order

Ref. FM 3-20.15, pg B-1, para B-7

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17
Q

Which paragraph of the OPORD provides details of specific missions for subordinate units?

A

Execution

Ref. FM 3-20.15, pg B-3 thru B-7, Fig B-2, para 3

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18
Q

What does the Commander’s intent provide?

A

The Commander’s intent defines the purpose, method, and the end state of the operation.

Ref. FM 3-20.15, pg B-3 thru B-7, para 3a

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19
Q

What are the 8 Troop Leading Procedures?

A
  1. Received the Mission
  2. Issue the Warning Order
  3. Make a tentative plan
  4. State necessary movement
  5. Reconnoiter
  6. Complete the plan
  7. Issue the complete order
  8. Supervise

Ref. ATTP 5-0.1, pg 5-1, para 5-2

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20
Q

What are the most likely ways you will receive a mission?

A

In a warning order (WARNO) or in a operation order (OPORD).

Ref. ATTP 5-0.1, pg 5-3, para 5-11

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21
Q

What does METT-TC stand for?

A 
M - Mission
E - Enemy
T - Terrain
T - Troops available
T - Time available
C - Civil considerations

Ref. Ref. ATTP 5-0.1, pg 5-3 & 5-4, para 5-12

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22
Q

What paragraph of the operation order provides information on enemy forces, friendly forces, and attachments and detachments?

A

Situation

Ref. FM 3-20.15, pg B-3 thru B-7, para 1

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23
Q

What is a warning order?

A

A preliminary notice of an order or action that is to follow. Warning orders help subordinate leaders prepare for new missions.

Ref. FM 3-20.15, pg B-1, para B-7

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24
Q

What paragraph of the OPORD provides the location of the leadership during the operation?

A

Command and Signal

Ref. FM 3-20.15, pg B-3 thru B-7, para 5

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25
Q

What is the purpose of a FRAGO?

A

It is issued after an operation order to change, or modify that order, or to execute a branch or sequel to that order.

Ref. FM 3-20.15, pg B-7, para B-17

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26
Q

You must decide how you intend to carry out your mission. On what factors must you base your tentative plan?

A

METT-TC

Mission
Enemy
Terrain
Troops Available
Time Available
Civil Considerations

Ref. ATTP 3-5.01, pg 5-5, para 5-20

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27
Q

In which paragraph can you find the leader’s intent?

A

Execution

Ref. FM 3-20.15, pg B-3 thru B-7, para 3

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28
Q

Who establishes future performance objectives and standards in performance counseling?

A

The leader and subordinate.

Ref. FM 6-22, pg B-3, para B-15

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29
Q

What period does crisis counseling get a Soldier or employee through after receiving negative news?

A

Shock

Ref. FM 6-22, pg B-2, para B-10

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30
Q

What form can Army leaders use to evaluate Army civilians for professional growth and career goals?

A

DA Form 4856

Ref. FM 6-22, pg B-4, para B-23 & B-24

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31
Q

Which non-verbal indicator does a Soldier display when he moves toward the counselor while sitting?

A

Interest, friendliness, and openness

Ref. FM 6-22, pg B-5, para B-30

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32
Q

Which element of active listening indicates the counselor’s sincere interest?

A

Eye Contact

Ref. FM 6-22, pg B-5, para B-30

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33
Q

Which agency handle your pay, allowances, and allotments problems?

A

Finance and Accounting Office

Ref. FM 6-22, pg B-7

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34
Q

Which approach is the quickest method for some situations in a counseling session?

A

Directive

Ref. FM 6-22, pg B-8

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35
Q

Which approach requires the greatest counselor skills in a counseling session?

A

Non-directive

Ref. FM 6-22, pg B-8

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36
Q

Your subordinate fails to meet the standard for a given task, you will counsel him on what type of performance?

A

Substandard

Ref. FM 6-22, pg B-13, para B-55

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37
Q

What type of developmental counseling session may require a subordinate at least a week or more to prepare?

A

Performance or Professional

Ref. FM 6-22, pg B-9, para B-46

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38
Q

What does the leaader state in Part II-Background Information of the Developmental Counseling form?

A

The reason for the counseling.

Ref. FM 6-22, pg B-19

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39
Q

Which field manual (FM) instructs us in properly filling out the Developmental Counseling form?

A

FM 6-22

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40
Q

A group’s shared view of reality is what component of culture?

A

Beliefs

Ref. SH 2-3

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41
Q

Observable patterns of action are which component of culture?

A

Behaviors

Ref. SH 2-3

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42
Q

Ideas of what is right and wrong describes what component of culture?

A

Values

Ref. SH 2-2

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43
Q

A range of permissible behaviors established by a group describes what component of culture?

A

Norms

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44
Q

What are the 3 sub-components of culture?

A

Symbols, sanctions, and taboos

Ref. SH 2-4

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45
Q

What are “actions that societies use to punish or reward behavior” known as?

A

Sanctions

Ref. SH 2-5

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46
Q

What is the definition of culture shock?

A

A sense of confusion and uncertainty sometimes with feelings of anxiety that may affect people exposed to an alien culture or environment without adequate preparation.

Ref. SH 2-8

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47
Q

What is the key strategy to limiting culture shock?

A

Preparation

Ref. SH 2-8

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48
Q

What are the steps you should use to resolve an ethical problem?

A
  1. Define the ethical problem
  2. Identify applicable laws, regulations, and values
  3. Develop acceptable possible solutions
  4. Implement the best ethical solution

Ref. Task 158-100-3006, Resolve an Ethical Problem

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49
Q

The conduct of Army PRT uses overarching principles as a guide. What are these overarching principles?

A

Precision, Progression, and Integration

Ref. TC 3-22.20, pg 2-7

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50
Q

The PRT System incorporates the 3 components of training. What are the components?

A

Strength, Endurance, and Mobility

Ref. TC 3-22.20, pg 2-4 & 2-5, para 2-13 thru 2-16

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51
Q

The PRT System incorporates the 3 types of training. What are the 3 types of training?

A

On-Ground training, Off-Ground training, and Combatives training

Ref. TC 3-22.20, pg 2-6, para 2-19 thru 2-21

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52
Q

What is the purpose of the Army Physical Readiness Training (PRT)?

A

To develop and maintain a high level of unit physical readiness appropriate to duty position and for the conduct of full spectrum operations.

Ref. TC 3-22.20, pg 4-9

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53
Q

Soldiers in the reconditioning program will be on a physical profile or in the authorized recovery period from temporary profile. Once a profile expires, how long does the Soldier have before he or she is eligible to take the APFT?

A

The Soldier must be given twice the time of the temporary profile (but not more than 90 days) to train for the APFT.

Ref. TC 3-22.20, pg 6-7, para 6-30

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54
Q

When leading Physical Readiness Training (PRT), the leader uses 2 kinds of commands. What are the 2 kinds of commands?

A

Preparatory Command and Command of Execution

Ref. TC 3-22.20, pg 7-1. para 7-2

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55
Q

You are leading Physical Readiness Training (PRT) for your squad. You have formed the squad and given the commands “Extend to the left, MARCH” / Arms downward, MOVE” / and “Left, FACE” What is the next command?

A

Extend to the left, MARCH

Ref. TC 3-22.20, pg 7-2, para 7-7

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56
Q

Before assuming the starting position for the next exercise, the Soldiers in your squad must be at the position of attention. After finishing an exercise, what command do you give to bring your squad to attention?

A

Position of attention, MOVE

Ref. TC 3-22.20, pg 7-1, para 7-4

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57
Q

Preparation for Physical Readiness Training (PRT) always includes 10 calisthenic exercises that comprise preparation. These 10 exercises are always performed in order. You perform all the calisthenic exercises at a slow cadence except for which 2?

A

The high-jumper and push-up

Ref. TC 3-22.20, pg 8-2

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58
Q

You are a scorer for the Army Physical Fitness Test (APFT). When scoring the push-up event, how do you position yourself?

A

Sit or knee 3 feet from the Soldier’s left shoulder at a 45-degree angle. A scorer’s head should be even with the Soldier’s left shoulder when he is in the front-leaning rest position.

Ref. TC 3-22.20, pg A-11, para A-36

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59
Q

The Recovery Drill for Physical Readiness Training (PRT) consists of how many 2-position exercises?

A

5

Ref. TC 3-22.20, pg A-11

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60
Q

What is the definition of the term disease and non-battle injury (DNBI)?

A

A military person who is lost to an organization by reason of disease or injury, and who is not a battle casualty.

Ref. FM 21-10, pg 1-1

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61
Q

What is the limit of water intake?

A

Hourly fluid intake should not exceed 1 and 1/4 quarts. Daily fluid intake should not exceed 12 liters.

Ref. FM 21-10, pg 3-5

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62
Q

Well-being includes 4 dimensions. What are the 4 dimensions?

A

Physical, Material, Mental, and Spiritual

Ref. Hooah 4 Health website

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63
Q

The US Department of Agriculture created the food pyramid as a general reference for diet. Which group should people get the most servings from?

A

Bread (Orange)

Ref. Hooah 4 Heath website

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64
Q

What circumference measurements do you make when determining the body fat composition of a female?

A

Neck, Waist, and Hip

Ref. AR 600-9, pg 15, para b-3b, pg 38, DA Form 5501

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65
Q

What is the maximum allowable percent of body fat for a 23 year old male?

A

22%

Ref. AR 600-9, pg 4

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66
Q

What is the definition of stress according to the website Hooah 4 Health?

A

Feeling of emotional or physical tension.

Ref. Hooah 4 Health

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67
Q

When can Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) develop?

A

After exposure to a terrifying event or ordeal in which grave physical harm occurred or was threatened.

Ref. National Institute of Mental Health website

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68
Q

Which is the definition of responsible drinking?

A

Drinking in a way that does not adversely affect an individual’s ability to fulfill their obligations and does not negatively impact the individual’s job performance, health, or well being or the good order and discipline in a unit or organization.

Ref. AR 600-85, pg 15, para 3-1b

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69
Q

Impairment of a Soldier is at what blood alcohol content level?

A

.050 grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood

Ref. AR 600-85, pg 15, para 3-2a

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70
Q

What are 2 advantages of dead reckoning?

A

It’s easy to teach and learn, and it can be highly accurate way of moving, if done carefully over short distances.

Ref. FM 3-25.26, pg 11-14, para 11-6a(3)

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71
Q

What do you call the landmarks that you select to travel toward when using dead reckoning?

A

Steering points

Ref. FM 3-25.26, pg 11-14 & 11-15, para 11-6a(5)

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72
Q

What is the best steering marks to use and why?

A

The best steering marks is the most distant object. It enables you to travel farther with fewer references to the compass. It must be continuously visible as you move toward it.

Ref. 3-25.26, pg 11-15, para 11-6a(5)(b)

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73
Q

Once you know your pace count for 100 meters, what methods can you use to keep count of how far you travel?

A

Tie a knot on a string or lacing, place a pebble in you pocket for every 100 meters of distance traveled, or make marks in a notebook.

Ref. FM 3-25.26, pg 5-10, para 5-3a(1)

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74
Q

When you detour around an object, and you are turning to the right, do you add or subtract 90 degrees to your traveling azimuth?

A

Add 90 degrees

Ref. FM 3-25.26, pg 9-6, para 9-4d

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75
Q

What type of law does LOW encompass and is binding on the United States or its individual citizens?

A

The LOW encompasses all international law for the conduct of hostilities binding on the United States or its individual citizens.

Ref. Operational Law Handbook, Ch 2, pg 10, para II

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76
Q

What international law is used to regulate the conduct of armed hostilities?

A

LOW

Ref. Operational Law Handbook, Ch 2, pg 10, para II

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77
Q

What principle of the LOW allows destruction or seizure of an enemy’s property only when it is within the necessities of war?

A

The principle of military necessity.

Ref. Operational Law Handbook, Ch 2, pg 10, para V A 1

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78
Q

What principle of the LOW prohibits armed forces from abusing LOW in order to gain advantage over their adversaries?

A

Chivalry

Ref. Operational Law Handbook, Ch 2, pg 13, para V E

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79
Q

Who receives a non-POW status for their participation in hostilities?

A

Unprivileged belligerents

Ref. Operational Law Handbook, Ch 2, pg 16, para VIII 1d

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80
Q

Who cannot compel nationals of the enemy state to take part in hostilities against their own country?

A

Belligerents

Ref. Operational Law Handbook, Ch 2, pg 16, para VIII 2a

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81
Q

When may you attack works and installations containing dangerous forces?

A

You may attack works and installations containing dangerous forces only if they are providing significant and direct support to military operations, and an attack is the only feasible way to terminate the support.

Ref. Operational Law Handbook, Ch 2, pg 22, para X G

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82
Q

What does cultural property include besides buildings dedicated to religion?

A

Cultural property includes art and historic monuments.

Ref. Operational Law Handbook, Ch 2, pg 22, para X F 5

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83
Q

When can you lawfully engage a hospital?

A

As an act of self-defense when you are receiving fire from a hospital.

Ref. Operational Law Handbook, Ch 2, pg 22, para X F 2

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84
Q

When can you use a reprisal?

A

For the sole purpose of enforcing future compliance with LOW when the enemy is in violation of LOW.

Ref. Operational Law Handbook, Ch 2, pg 24, para XI E

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85
Q

What type of tactic are you using when it includes creation of fictitious units by planting false information?

A

Land Warfare

Ref. Operational Law Handbook, Ch 2, pg 23, para XI A 1

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86
Q

What must you provide to all POWs?

A

Adequate food, facilities, and medical aid.

Ref. Operational Law Handbook, Ch 2, pg 27, para XII B 3

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87
Q

Who has the onus to communicate their intent to surrender?

A

The person or force surrendering.

Ref. Operational Law Handbook, Ch 2, pg 26, para XII B 3

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88
Q

Who has the primary responsibility for investigating a suspected, alleged, or possible war crime?

A

The US Army Criminal Investigation Command (CID) has the primary responsibility for investigating a suspected, alleged, or possible war crime.

Ref. Operational Law Handbook, Ch 2, pg 35, para XVI A 1

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89
Q

What 2 items are available to a commander in the prosecution of the LOW violations or a war crime?

A

A commander will use articles in the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) or general courts-martial proceedings to prosecute.

Ref. Operational Law Handbook, Ch 2, pg 34, para XVI A 1 and 2

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90
Q

Whom does the commander use in helping with drafting, disseminating, interpreting, and training of ROE?

A

JAGC personnel

Ref. FM 1-04, pg C-1, para C-1

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91
Q

What can the implementation of ROE help you minimize on the battlefield?

A

Collateral damage

Ref. FM 1-04, pg C-1, para C-2

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92
Q

Who is responsible for designating a force hostile?

A

The National Command Authority (NCA)

Ref. SH-4, pg SH 4-2, para 2c

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93
Q

Under the ROE, what is a threat of imminent use of force against US forces and other designated persons and property?

A

A hostile intent

Ref. SH-4, pg SH 4-2, para 2b

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94
Q

Who are the only people that can authorize a change or deletion of SROE?

A

The President or the Secretary of Defense

Ref. FM 1-04, pg C-1, para C-5

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95
Q

Who always has the inherent right and obligation to exercise unit self-defense in response to a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent?

A

Every unit commander

Ref. FM 1-04, pg C-2, para C-7

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96
Q

What specific rule of ROE sets objective factors to assist you in determining whether an individual’s conduct constitutes a hostile act or a demonstration of hostile intent?

A

Hostility criteria

Ref. FM 1-04, pg C-3, para C-15

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97
Q

What specific rules of ROE are you using if you fire a warning shot at an individual committing a hostile act?

A

Rules for escalation of force or challenging procedures

Ref. 1-04, pg C-3, para C-16

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98
Q

When using EOF procedures, what type of shots can you use to defeat a threat?

A

Warning, disabling, or deadly shots

Ref. 07-21, pg SH 5-2

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99
Q

What is the definition of Army leadership?

A

Army leadership is the process of influencing people by providing purpose, direction, and motivation to accomplish the mission and improve the organization.

Ref. ADRP 6-22, Ch 1, pg 1-1, para 1-1

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100
Q

What are the 3 common tools the Army leader can use to cause improvement?

A

Developmental counseling, in-progress reviews, and the after action review (AAR).

Ref. ADRP 6-22, Ch 1, pg 1-2, para 1-6

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101
Q

Army leadership is the process of influencing people by providing purpose, direction, and motivation to accomplish the mission and improve the organization. What 3 aspects does influencing consist of?

A

Purpose, direction, and motivation

Ref. ADRP 6-22, Ch 1, pg 1-2, para 1-6

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102
Q

What are the 3 Competencies an Army leader must do?

A

Leads, Develops, and Achieves.

Ref. ADRP 6-22, Ch 1, pg 1-5

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103
Q

An Army leader who displays and live the Army Values would possess what attribute?

A

The Army leader who displays and lives the Army Values possess the attribute of Character.

Ref. ADRP 6-22, Ch 1, pg 1-5

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104
Q

What are the 3 attributes an Army leader possesses?

A

Character, Presence, and Intellect

Ref. ADRP 6-22, Ch 1, pg 1-5

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105
Q

What are the 7 steps of the Military Problem Solving Process?

A
  1. Identify the problem
  2. Gather information
  3. Develop criteria
  4. Generate possible solutions
  5. Analyze possible solutions
  6. Compare possible solutions
  7. Make and implement the decision
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106
Q

What 4 attributes does the leader of character possess?

A

Army values, Empathy, the Warrior Ethos, and Discipline.

Ref. ADRP 6-22, Ch 1, pg 1-5

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107
Q

What does lifelong learning involve?

A

Lifelong learning involves study and reflection to acquire new knowledge and to learn how to apply it when needed.

Ref. ADRP 6-22, Ch 7, pg 7-6, para 7-39

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108
Q

The Army Leadership Requirements Model has 2 sides representing 2 main characteristics?

A

Attributes and Competencies

Ref. ADRP 6-22, Ch 1, pg 1-5

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109
Q

Presence is a critical attribute that leaders need to understand. There are 4 characteristics of a leader’s presence. What are those characteristics and their definitions?

A

Military Bearing and Professional Bearing - projecting a commanding presence, and professional image of authority

Fitness - having sound health, strength, and endurance, which sustain emotional health and conceptual abilities under prolonged stress

Confidence - projecting self-confidence and certainty in the unit’s ability to succeed in whatever it does. A confident leader is able to demonstrate composure and an outward calm through a steady control over emotion

Resilience - the psychological and physical capacity to bounce back from life’s stressors repeatedly to thrive in an era of high operation

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110
Q

What are the conceptual components affecting the Army leader’s intelligence?

A
  1. Mental agility
  2. Sound judgement
  3. Innovation
  4. Interpersonal tact
  5. Expertise

Ref. ADRP 6-22, Ch 5, pg 5-1, para 5-2

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111
Q

There are 3 competencies under the Army Leadership Requirements Model. What are the 4 categories under the competency of Leads?

A
  1. Leads others
  2. Extends influence beyond the chain of command
  3. Leads by example
  4. Communicates

Ref. ADRP 6-22, Ch 1, pg 1-5

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112
Q

What are the 3 stages of team building?

A
  1. Formation Stage
  2. Enrichment Stage
  3. Sustainment Stage

Ref. ADRP 6-22, Ch 7, pg 7-14 & 7-15

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113
Q

How do mapmakers depict a concave slope on a map?

A

They place the contour lines closely spaced at the top of the terrain feature and widely spaced at the bottom.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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114
Q

How do mapmakers depict a convex slope on a map?

A

They draw the contour lines spaced widely at the top of the terrain feature and close at the bottom.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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115
Q

You don’t have a protractor, so you must use the first technique of orienting your map with the compass. You have aligned the straight edge of the compass along a north-south grid-line on the map. What is your next step?

A

Rotate the map and compass until the magnetic arrow is below the fixed black index line on the compass.

FM 3-25.26

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116
Q

Once the compass shows that the magnetic arrow is below the fixed black index line on the compass, and the declination diagram shows a westerly magnetic north, what is you next step?

A

Rotate the map and compass together to the right until the compass reading is equal to the G-M angle given by the declination diagram.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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117
Q

If you must rotate you map to the left because you have an easterly G-M angle, what should the reading on your compass be if you properly orient your map?

A

360 degrees minus the declination angle. Ex. A map with 10 degrees easterly G-M angle, the compass should read 350 degrees.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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118
Q

What is the purpose of a map?

A

A map provides information on the existence and location of ground features, such as populated areas.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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119
Q

What other variations are shown on a map?

A

Variations in terrain, heights of natural features, and the extent of vegetation cover.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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120
Q

How are military maps categorized?

A

By scales and types.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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121
Q

Why is it important for one to know the mathematical scale of a map?

A

To determine ground distance between objects or locations, size of the area, and the affect of detail being shown.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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122
Q

Which map is used for tactical, administrative, and logistical planning?

A

Maps with scales of 1:75,000

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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123
Q

What does a topographical map illustrate?

A

Terrain features in a measurable way, as well as the horizontal positions of the features represented.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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124
Q

What is a small-scale map?

A

Those maps with scales of 1:1,000,000 and smaller are used for general planning and for strategic studies. The standard small-scale map is 1:1,000,000. This map covers a very large land area at the expense of detail.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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125
Q

What is a medium scale map?

A

Maps with scales larger than 1:1,000,000 but smaller that 1:75,000 used for operational planning.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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126
Q

What is a large-scale map?

A

Maps with scales of 1:75,000 and larger which are used for tactical, administrative, and logistical planning.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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127
Q

Which map represents only the horizontal positions for the features represented and is sometime referred to as a line-map?

A

Planimetric map

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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128
Q

What is used as a substitute to help analyze terrain, plan routes, and guide tactical movements?

A

Aerial photographs

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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129
Q

What changes are made when using foreign maps?

A

The marginal information and grids are changed to conform to our standards, if time permits.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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130
Q

Which of the military substitute maps display streets, water ducts, electricity, telephone lines, and sewers?

A

The City/Utility Maps.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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131
Q

What does the legend on a map illustrate?

A

Topographic symbols used to depict some of the more prominent features on the map.

Ref. 3-25.26

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132
Q

Where would a map-reader find the angular relationships of true north, grid north, and magnetic north on a large scale map?

A

Declination Diagram

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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133
Q

Where are the Norths located on a map?

A

In the lower margin of the map (declination diagram).

Ref. FM 3-25.26

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134
Q

What are the bar scales?

A

Rulers used to convert map distance to ground distance.

FM 3-25.26

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135
Q

Why should a map-read habitually check the vertical datum note on a map?

A

Simply because the Vertical-Control datum may vary from country to country.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

136
Q

What does the conversion graph indicate on the map?

A

The conversion of different units of measures used on a map.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

137
Q

What 2 places are the security classifications located on a military map?

A

The upper and lower margins of the map.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

138
Q

On maps of foreign areas where the native language is other than English, where can a map reader find the translation of terms?

A

The glossary.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

139
Q

What do topographic symbols represent?

A

Man-made and natural features.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

140
Q

Why are symbols not normally printed on a map?

A

Because the features and units they represent are consistently moving or changing.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

141
Q

What does the color BLACK represent on a map?

A

Cultural (man-made) features such as buildings, roads, surveyed spot elevations, and all labels.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

142
Q

What color does GREEN represent on a map?

A

Vegetation with military significance such as woods, orchards, and vineyards.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

143
Q

What is the distance of a point north or south of the equator called?

A

Latitude.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

144
Q

What is the distance east or west of the prime meridian to a point called?

A

Longitude.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

145
Q

When using geographical coordinates, how are the circles divided?

A

Each circle is divided into 360 degrees, each degree into 60 minutes, and each minute into 60 seconds.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

146
Q

How are degrees symbolized when using geographical coordinates?

A

By degree , by minute ‘, and by second “

Ref. FM 3-25.26

147
Q

How many degrees is the line directly opposite of the prime meridian?

A

180 degrees, referred to as either east or west longitude.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

148
Q

What is known as “neatlines”?

A

Latitude and Longitude lines

Ref. FM 3-25.26

149
Q

What does UTM stand for?

A

Universal Transverse Mercator

Ref. FM 3-25.26

150
Q

Where is the 100,000-meter square identification letters located in the grid reference box?

A

In the lower margin of the map.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

151
Q

What is the military principle for reading military grid coordinates?

A

Right and UP

Ref. FM 3-25.26

152
Q

How close will an 8-digit grid get you to your point?

A

10 meters

Ref. FM 3-25.26

153
Q

How close will a 6-digit grid get you to your point?

A

100 meters

Ref. FM 3-25.26

154
Q

What is the first half coordinate digits represented left to right of the grid label called?

A

The easting

Ref. FM 3-25.26

155
Q

When using the grid reference box, what does the left portion identify?

A

The grid zone designation and the 100,000-meter square.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

156
Q

What is explained to the right portion of the grid reference box?

A

How to use the grid and is keyed on the sample 1,000-meter square of the left side.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

157
Q

During short term security protection, what is authorized so the enemy cannot intercept messages?

A

A low-level numerical code.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

158
Q

During operations, how long does the authorized numerical code information last?

A

One month.

Ref FM 3-25.26

159
Q

How is ground distance between 2 points determined using the representative fraction?

A

By measuring between the same 2 points on the map and then multiplying the map measurement by the denominator of the RF or scale.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

160
Q

What type of scale is used to covert distances on the map to the actual ground distances?

A

The graphical scale.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

161
Q

What is the scale to the right of the zero marked in full units of measurements?

A

Primary scale.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

162
Q

What is the name of the scale to the left of the zero which is divided into tenths?

A

The extension scale.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

163
Q

What is the most common method used to accurately measure ground distance?

A

The pace count.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

164
Q

What methods are used in estimating distance?

A

100-meter unit-of-measure, flash to bang, and proficiency of methods.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

165
Q

How are directions expressed in map reading?

A

As units of angular measure (degree, mil, and grad).

Ref. FM 3-25.26

166
Q

What are the 3 base lines?

A

True north, magnetic north, and grid north.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

167
Q

What is usually symbolized by a line ending with half an arrowhead?

A

Magnetic north

Ref. FM 3-25.26

168
Q

What must be done to obtain back azimuth?

A

Add 180 degrees if the azimuth is 180 or less; Subtract 180 degrees if the azimuth is 180 or more.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

169
Q

What item is used to measure the angle between grid north and the draw line to determine the grid azimuth?

A

Protractor.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

170
Q

How should the base line of the protractor be aligned when plotting azimuths?

A

Parallel to the north-south grid lines.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

171
Q

What is the nomenclature for the military protractor?

A

GTA 5-2-12

Ref. FM 3-25.26

172
Q

When measuring an azimuth in degrees or mils, what should the reading always be to?

A

To the nearest degree or 10 mils.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

173
Q

Where is the declination diagram located on most large maps?

A

In the lower margin of the map.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

174
Q

What does the term “intersection” mean?

A

The location of an unknown point by successively occupying at least 2 (preferably 3) known positions on the ground and then map sighting on the unknown location.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

175
Q

What are the 2 methods of intersection?

A

Map and compass and the straight edge method.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

176
Q

What is the method of locating one’s position on the map when the person is located on a linear feature on the ground?

A

Modified resection.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

177
Q

What is a polar plot?

A

A method of locating or plotting an unknown position from a known point by giving a direction and a distance along that direction.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

178
Q

What is a commander?

A

A commander is a commissioned officer or warrant officer who, by virtue of grade and assignment, exercises primary command authority over a military organization or prescribed territorial area that under pertinent official directives is recognized as “command.”

Ref. AR 600-20

179
Q

What are the 2 elements of command?

A

Authority and responsibility

Ref. AR 600-20

180
Q

What is military discipline?

A

Military discipline is self-discipline, respect for properly constituted authority, and the embracing of the professional Army ethic with its supporting individual values.

Ref. AR 600-20

181
Q

When should respect to seniors within the Armed Forces be given?

A

Service members should extend respect to seniors at all times.

Ref. AR 600-20

182
Q

Who is responsible for the proper conduct of Soldiers?

A

Ensuring the proper conduct of Soldiers is a function of command.

Ref. AR 600-20

183
Q

The Army prohibits certain types of personal relationships between officers and enlisted personnel. What are they?

A

Dating, sharing living accommodations, marriages, and gambling between officers and enlisted personnel.

Ref. AR 600-20

184
Q

Outside of training, what type of relationship can a trainee and a Soldier have?

A

None, any relationship between permanent party personnel and initial entry training (IET) trainees not required by the training mission is prohibited.

Ref. AR 600-20

185
Q

Outside of the recruiting command, what type of relationship can a recruiter and recruit have?

A

None, any relationship between permanent party personnel assigned or attached to the United States Army Recruiting Command and potential prospects, applicants, members of the Delayed Entry Program (DEP), or members of the Delayed Training Program (DTP) not required by the recruiting mission is prohibited.

Ref. AR 600-20

186
Q

What is the definition of fraternization?

A

Fraternization is relationships between Soldiers of different ranks which also include marriages.

Ref. AR 600-20

187
Q

How should a commander use non-punitive measures within a unit?

A

A commander should use non-punitive measures to the fullest extent to further the efficiency of the command before resorting to non-judicial punishment.

Ref. AR 27-10

188
Q

Why should a commander impose non-judicial punishment?

A

To correct, educate, and reform offenders who the imposing commander determines cannot benefit from less stringent measures. To preserve a Soldier’s record of service from unnecessary stigma by record of court-martial conviction. To further military efficiency by disposing of minor offenses in a manner requiring less time and personnel than trial by court-martial.

Ref. AR 27-10

189
Q

Who may impose non-judicial punishment on a Soldier?

A

Commanders, unless otherwise specified in this regulation or if authority to impose non-judicial punishment has been limited or withheld by a superior commander, and commander is authorized to exercise the disciplinary powers conferred by Article 15.

Ref. AR 27-10

190
Q

How will delegation of authority to exercise Article 15 be given?

A

Delegations of authority to exercise Article 15 powers will be made in writing; for example a memorandum.

Ref AR 27-10

191
Q

What is the process a commander may take to impose non-judicial punishment on a Soldier who has transferred or otherwise?

A

Non-judicial punishment will not be imposed on an individual by a commander after the individual ceases to be of the commander’s command, because of transfer or otherwise. However, if Article 15 proceedings have been instituted and punishment has not been imposed prior to the time of the change of assignment, the commander who instituted the proceedings may forward the record of proceedings to the gaining commander for appropriate disposition.

Ref. AR 27-10

192
Q

When should a commander impose Article 15 summarized proceedings?

A

A commander, after a preliminary injury into an alleged offense by an enlisted Soldier, may use summarized proceedings.

Ref. AR 27-10

193
Q

What is the allotted time required for a Soldier to request for an appeal?

A

The Soldier will be given a reasonable time (normally no more than 5 calendar days) within which to submit and appeal.

Ref. AR 27-10

194
Q

Who may act on an appeal to an Article 15?

A

The next higher commander to the commanding officer who imposed the Article 15 will act on an appeal if the Soldier punished is still under the command of that officer at the time of appeal.

Ref. AR 27-10

195
Q

Who can authorize a search or apprehension?

A

A commander (and acting commander), military judge, and military magistrate (judge advocate).

Ref. AR 27-10

196
Q

What are the exceptions when it comes to the authority to apprehend?

A

Their discussion should include the following:

  • When apprehension is made in the home, a warrant or authorization is required.
  • Apprehension in an on-post “private dwelling” requires authorization from a magistrate or the commander with control over the dwelling, typically the installation or garrison commander.
  • “Private dwellings” include on-post quarters, BOQ, and BEQ.
  • Apprehension in an off-post private dwelling requires a search warrant from a civilian magistrate or judge.

Ref. MCM, Rule 302, pg II-18 & II-19

197
Q

What are 2 types of rehabilitation?

A

Counseling or corrective training

Ref. Fm 27-1

198
Q

How can commanders use extra training or instruction as a non-punitive measure?

A

They may use it when a Soldiers duty performance has been substandard or deficient.

Ref. AR 27-10

199
Q

In order to be lawful the consent search must be given how?

A

To be lawful the consent search must be voluntary that is freely given.

Ref. MCM, Rule 314, pg III-13

200
Q

As a rater, what form will you use with DA Form 2166-8 NCO Evaluation Report?

A

DA Form 2166-8 NCO Counseling and Support Form

Ref. DA PAM 623-3, pg 15

201
Q

The Army establishes a rating chain to provide the best evaluation of a NCO’s performance and which of the following?

A

Potential

Ref. DA PAM 623-3, pg 6

202
Q

What are the 2 types of reports in the ERS?

A

Mandatory and Optional

Ref. DA PAM 623-3, pg 25 & 26

203
Q

What type of report would you submit for a Soldier after you have been their rater for one calendar year from the thru date of their last NCOER?

A

Annual

Ref. DA PAM 623-3, pg 56

204
Q

Bullet comments are mandatory for Part IV of the NCOER. Which of the following is a narrative rule for entering bullet comments in Part IV?

A

Start with action words (verbs) or possessive pronouns (his or her).

Ref DA PAM 623-3

205
Q

When completing Part Va of the 2166-8, in which box would you place an “X” if the statement “demonstrated a good performance and strong recommendation for promotion should sufficient allocations be available” is your description of the rated Soldier?

A

Fully Capable

Ref. DA PAM 623-3, pg 42

206
Q

When completing Part IVc of the 2166-8, what entry would you enter if the rated Soldier took the last APFT on July 9, 2010 and failed?

A

Failed 20100709

Ref. DA PAM 623-3

207
Q

When completing Part IVc (Height/Weight), what statement would you enter if the rated Soldier was pregnant?

A

“Exempt from weight control standards of AR 600-9”

Ref. AR 600-9

208
Q

In terms of application of leadership, what are the 4 categories of behavioral health symptoms that Soldiers may experience?

A
  1. Behavioral
  2. Cognitive
  3. Emotional
  4. Physical

Ref. SH 2-3

209
Q

Which of the following groups of Soldiers experience higher acute distress (anxiety, depression, PTSD, etc.)?

A

Soldiers on their 2nd or more combat tour.

Ref. SH 2-3

210
Q

Which of the following are examples of resilient training?

A

Avoiding blaming or criticizing self and keeping a sense of humor.

Ref SH 2-4

211
Q

Comprehensive Soldier Fitness uses a 4 pillar-approach. what are the 4 pillars?

A
  1. Global Assessment Tool (GAT)
  2. Comprehensive Resilience Modules
  3. Instructional Military Resilience Training
  4. Master Resilience Trainers
212
Q

What are the 3 C’s of assertive communication?

A

Communicate
Confidently
Clearly in an controlled manner

213
Q

What is the goal of assertive communication?

A

It is to understand the other individual’s perspective and move together toward a positive outcome.

214
Q

What are the 4 steps of Putting It In Perspective?

A

List the worst-case outcomes, list the best-case outcomes, list the most likely outcomes, and identify a plan for dealing with the most likely outcome.

215
Q

There are 4 typical styles of responding when someone shares good news and talks about positive experiences. Which responding style is the only one of the 4 styles that can strengthen relationships?

A

Active constructive responding (AC)

216
Q

What are the guiding principles for implementing the risk management process?

A
  • Integrate risk management into all phases of mission and operations
  • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level in the chain of command
  • Accept NO unnecessary risk
  • Apply the process cyclically and continuously
  • Do not be risk averse

Ref. 5-19

217
Q

What is RM?

A

Risk management is the primary decision making process used to mitigate risks associated with all hazards that have the potential to injure or kill personnel, damage or destroy equipment, or otherwise impact mission effectiveness.

Ref. 5-19

218
Q

What is a hazard?

A

A hazard is a condition with the potential to cause injury, illness, or death of personnel; damage to or loss of equipment or property; or mission degradation.

Ref. FM 5-19

219
Q

What is residual risk?

A

Residual risk is the risk remaining after selecting controls for the specific hazard.

Ref. FM 5-19

220
Q

What manual covers Risk Management?

A

FM 5-19 or ATP 5-19

221
Q

What can you use to foster cultural change, discourage sexually aggressive or demeaning attitudes and behaviors within your unit in preventing sexual harassment and sexual assault?

A

Increase peer-to-peer bystander intervention (keeping Soldiers from offending), offender accountability, expand prevention program resources, encourage reporting of incidents, and maintaining reporting capability.

222
Q

Is touching and any other bodily contact such as scratching or patting a Soldier’s back a form of sexual harassment?

A

Yes

Ref. AR 600-20

223
Q

Is playing sexually suggestive music a form of sexual harassment?

A

Yes

Ref. AR 600-20

224
Q

What technique of dealing with sexual harassment would you use if the victim does not feel comfortable confronting their harasser one on one?

A

The 3rd Party

Ref. AR 600-20

225
Q

What technique of dealing with sexual harassment would you use if the infraction is serious?

A

The chain of command

AR 600-20

226
Q

What type of treatment does the Army’s sexual assault policy provide for victims of sexual assault?

A

Dignity, Fairness, and Respect

Ref. AR 600-20

227
Q

When and where does the sexual assault policy apply?

A
  1. Both on and off post
  2. During duty and non-duty hours
  3. Working, living, and recreational activities

AR 600-20

228
Q

What does sexual assault prevention strategy phase uses moral responsibility to intervene and stop sexual assault and harassment?

A

Army-Wide Conviction, Phase II

229
Q

Can a husband or wife be charged with spousal rape?

A

Yes, a sexual assault offense can occur without regard to spousal relationship.

230
Q

What type of sexual offense occurs when the victim is declining to participate in the sexual act?

A

Aggravated sexual assault

231
Q

What are some of the warning signs of a potential sexual assault?

A

Sexually charged comments or gestures, disrespectful or violent behavior, treating people like things or objects, encouraging someone to drink too much, inappropriate touching or intimacy, targeting someone who is vulnerable, attempting to isolate someone, and using alcohol or drugs to increase vulnerability.

232
Q

What are the most common reasons why Soldiers do not intervene to stop sexual harassment or sexual assault?

A

Fear, inability to accurately identify sexual harassment or sexual assault, peer pressure to be “part of the in-crowd”, hierarchy or chain of command, conflict avoidance, and perception of social norms, peers’ attitudes, and standards of behavior.

233
Q

Why should you or your Soldiers intervene to stop sexual harassment or sexual assault?

A

It is your responsibility as an Army leader and it upholds the Army Values.

234
Q

What step in the intervention process requires you to notice the behavior?

A

Step 1 - Notice the Event

235
Q

What are the 2 types of reporting options for sexual assault?

A

Restricted and unrestricted

Ref. AR 600-20

236
Q

If the victim tells his/her battle buddy about a sexual assault, is the restricted reporting option available?

A

Yes, restricted reporting option is available, however, victim privacy confidentiality cannot be guaranteed. Only a SARC, Victim Advocate, Chaplain, or healthcare provider can receive a restricted.

Ref. AR 600-20

237
Q

What is the definition of suicide?

A

The deliberate ending of one’s own life.

238
Q

Which suicide intense feeling indicator deals directly with receiving a Dear John letter?

A

Helplessness

239
Q

Which significant loss speaks to the lost of a favorite pet?

A

The death of a loved one.

240
Q

Drinking large amounts of alcohol on a regular basis can sometimes lead to what type of depression?

A

Clinical

241
Q

What emotional feelings contributes to 75-80% of all suicides?

A

Depression

242
Q

What types of care should you refer suspected drug and alcohol abuse individuals for?

A

Evaluation and treatment

243
Q

Where from should you seek competent advice for a suicide individual?

A

The chaplain, a crisis intervention professional or qualified medical professional.

244
Q

At what agencies can you find help for your Soldiers, family members, and friends pertaining to a suicide crisis?

A

A chaplain, community mental health agency (Social Work Services), private counselor or therapist, school counselor or psychologist, and family physican.

245
Q

You checked circles in Part I of the Suicide Risk Questionnaire, what would this indicate about the suspected suicidal person?

A

Your friend or love one may be at risk for suicide and should seek professional help immediately.

246
Q

You checked circles in Parts I and II of the Suicide Risk Questionnaire, what would this indicate about the suspected suicidal person?

A

The suicide risk is even higher. Strongly encourage your friend or loved one to seek professional help immediately.

247
Q

The CSDP is a 4 fold program that addresses what?

A
  1. Responsibilities of commanders and supervisory personnel to instill supply discipline in their operations.
  2. Guidance for evaluating supply discipline.
  3. Feedback through command and technical channels for improving supply policy.
  4. Follow-up to ensure supply discipline is maintained.

Ref. AR 735-5

248
Q

Who is not authorized to conduct an inventory of weapons serial number?

A

The unit armorer

Ref. AR 710-2

249
Q

When inventorying a consolidated arms storage facility, on what DA Form would you record the results?

A

DA Form 2062 (Hand Receipt/Annex Number)

Ref. AR 710-2

250
Q

What TM would you normally use to describe an item in the box titled “Item Description?”

A

The operator’s technical manual

Ref. DA PAM 710-2-1

251
Q

When will the DA Form 2062 not have a hand receipt number?

A

During the issue of property of a personal nature.

Ref. DA PAM 710-2-1

252
Q

The “D” on the PMCS checklist in the interval column stands for what?

A

During operations

253
Q

The “W” on the PMCS checklist in the interval column stands for what?

A

Weekly

254
Q

What are the 3 major data sections of the DA Form 5988-E?

A

Equipment data
Parts requested
Maintenance faults

255
Q

This class of supply provides you with construction materials to construct new schools in a war torn area, what is it?

A

Class IV

Ref. AR 710-2

256
Q

Food and water pertains to what class of supply?

A

Class I

Ref. AR 710-2

257
Q

During the React to Contact battle drill, visual, dismounted, you decide to conduct a hasty ambush. The leader must initiate the ambush. How do you initiate the ambush?

A

The leader initiates the ambush with the most casualty producing weapon available, immediately followed by a sustained “well-aimed” volume of effective fire.

Ref. Warrior Battle Drills, React to Contact

258
Q

What is you initial reaction upon contact with the enemy by direct fire while dismounted?

A

Soldiers immediately return fire and seek the nearest covered positions. Soldiers then call out the distance and direction of the fire.

Ref. Warrior Battle Drills, React to Contact

259
Q

When reacting to visual contact (dismounted), how does the unit destroy the enemy?

A

The unit destroys the enemy by conducting a hasty ambush or an immediate assault through the enemy position.

Ref. Warrior Battle Drills, React to Contact

260
Q

Once the leader decides to break contact, what is the first action the leader takes?

A

The squad leader designates a team to suppress the enemy with direct fire as the base-of-fire element.

261
Q

How does bounding squad/team conceals its movement?

A

The bounding squad/team uses the terrain and/or smoke to conceal its movement and bounds to an overwatch position.

262
Q

To whom does the unit leader report the contact after breaking contact?

A

Unit leader reports the contact to the higher headquarters.

263
Q

During the React to Ambush (Near) drill (dismounted), which Soldiers assault through the enemy ambush?

A

The Soldiers in the kill zone.

264
Q

During the React to Ambush (Far)(dismounted) drill, the Soldiers in the kill zone establish a support by fire and by suppressing the enemy’s fire. As the Soldiers not in contact begin their assault, what must the Soldiers in the kill zone do?

A

Shift suppressive fires

265
Q

Who are the personnel that make up the search team?

A

The searcher, the guard, and an interpreter if available.

266
Q

When can you confiscate currency from detainees?

A

Only on the express order of a commissioned officer (ex. through an OPORD, FRAGO, or verbal order) per AR 190-8

267
Q

Which of the following is an example of a mechanical timer used as an improvised explosive device initiating system?

A

Washing machine timer

268
Q

What is the single most important counter defense principle for vehicle borne improvised explosive devise or a suicide vehicle borne improvised explosive device?

A

Maintaining standoff

269
Q

When reacting to an IED attack while dismounted you must conduct the 5 C’s. What are the 5 C’s?

A 
Check
Confirm
Clear
Cordon
Control
270
Q

What are the 3 D’s?

A

Distance
Direction
Description

271
Q

What are 2 hasty vehicle recovery techniques?

A

Towing and pushing

272
Q

What are the components of the targeting cycle?

A

Exploit, Analyze, Disseminate, Find, Fix, and Finish

273
Q

Who is responsible for all TQ at the TSE site?

A

The TQ team with the interpreter.

274
Q

Who should be the composition of your TSE team?

A

Team Leader, Assistant Team Leader, Tactical Questioning (TQ) team with Interpreter, Team Photographer, and 2 Man Search teams

275
Q

What are the constraints for TSE?

A

Disruption, public perception, security, resources, cost and commercial interest, light conditions, waiting periods, finding nothing, and search fatigue.

276
Q

The search pair will search and mark what size approach route to the building being searched?

A

One-Meter wide

277
Q

Who should you first call to disarm a suspected booby-trap?

A

EOD

278
Q

Which evidence collecting form is a Arabic/English inventory document?

A

Evidence Inventory Form

279
Q

If an insurgent appears before the CCCI, what is the maximum amount of time he could be sentenced to prison?

A

20 years

280
Q

What is the goal of TQ?

A

To establish consistencies and/or inconsistencies in the stories of individuals to be questioned.

281
Q

When conducting TQ, you avoid asking what type of questions?

A

Negative questions

282
Q

What is the definition of biometrics?

A

Is the measurable physical and/or behavioral characteristics that establish and verify and individual’s identity.

283
Q

How many types of biometrics are there and what are their names?

A

2 and Physiological and Behavioral

284
Q

FM 3-25.26 talks about 3 route-selection criteria that are important for small- unit movement when planning a route. What are they?

A

Cover, concealment, and availability of reliable checkpoint features.

285
Q

What is cover?

A

Protection from the effects of fire.

286
Q

What is concealment?

A

Protection from observation.

287
Q

What are the best checkpoint feature?

A

Linear features that cross the route, such as perennial streams, hard-top roads, ridges, valleys, railroads, and power transmission lines.

288
Q

How can a team travel over unfamiliar terrain and know when it reaches its destination?

A

Select a checkpoint reasonably close to the destination

Ref. FM 3-25.26

289
Q

When establishing checkpoints on your route, what are the best checkpoints to look for and give 2 examples?

A

Linear features that cross the route. Ex. year round streams, hard-top roads, ridges, valleys, railroad, power transmission lines.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

290
Q

What are the 4 steps to land navigation?

A
  1. Know where you are.
  2. Plan the route.
  3. Stay on the route.
  4. Recognize the objective.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

291
Q

What is the advantage of selecting a checkpoint reasonably close to the final destination and why?

A

Since most objectives are rarely recognizable feature, they may be more difficult to find. By selecting a checkpoint that is easily recognizable in the area close to your objective, you may conduct a procedure call point navigation. That is, you plan a short, fine tuned last leg by following a specific compass azimuth and pacing off the relatively short known distance to the final, pinpoint destination.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

292
Q

What is a danger area?

A

Any place on a route where the squad leader determines that the enemy may observe, fire, or both on the unit.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

293
Q

Who is responsible for clearing the far side of a danger area when crossing a linear danger area?

A

The far-side security team will clear the far-side of the danger area.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

294
Q

What are 2 techniques used when crossing a small, open area?

A

Detour bypass method and contouring around the open area.

Ref. FM 3-25.26

295
Q

When complying with noise discipline, what should you not do to your weapon?

A

Be careful no to restrict the moving parts of the weapon which could prevent its operation.

Ref. STP 21-1 SMCT

296
Q

What doe OAKOC stand for?

A 
Observation and Fields of Fire
Avenues of Approach
Key Terrain
Obstacles
Cover and Concealment

Ref. FM 3-25.26

297
Q

Which method is the fastest way to move from one position to another?

A

3-5 second rush movement.

Ref. FM 3-21.8

298
Q

On what factors does a leader base the selection of a movement?

A

The likelihood of enemy contact and the need for speed.

Ref. FM 3-21.8

299
Q

If enemy contact is not likely and speed is necessary, what movement technique would you use?

A

Traveling

Ref. FM 3-21.8

300
Q

What are the 2 fire team formations?

A

Wedge and File

Ref. FM 3-21.8

301
Q

What is the normal interval in a fire team wedge?

A

10 meters, however, the wedge formation expands and contracts depending on terrain.

Ref. FM 3-21.8

302
Q

What is the squad’s main formation for movement?

A

Squad Column

Ref. FM 3-21.8

303
Q

When crossing a large danger area, what types of movement techniques would you use?

A

Traveling overwatch and bounding overwatch

Ref. FM 3-21.8

304
Q

When crossing a large danger area and once in range of enemy small arms fire, what movement techniques should you use?

A

Bounding overwatch

Ref. FM 3-21.8

305
Q

What degree of turns do you use when applying the detour bypass method?

A

90-degree

Ref. FM 3-21.8

306
Q

What discipline are you practicing if you avoid all unnecessary vehicle and foot movement?

A

Noise discipline.

Ref. STP 21-1

307
Q

What does the Army capstone concept describe and drive?

A

Describes future armed conflict and how the Army will conduct future joint land operations–drives leader development.

Ref. ADRP 7-0

308
Q

Which Army Principle of unit training talks about mastery?

A

Train to standard.

Ref. ADRP 7-0

309
Q

Which Army principle of training talks about stewardship?

A

Train to maintain.

Ref. ADRP 7-0

310
Q

What are unit leaders responsible to the commander for?

A

Training readiness of their area(s) of responsibility.

Ref. UTM

311
Q

What do NCO’s conduct?

A

Standards-based, performance-oriented training.

Ref. UTM

312
Q

When do leaders begin to develop a tentative training plan?

A

On the receipt of a WARNO.

Ref. UTM

313
Q

Which Army principle of leader development talks about leader attributes and competences?

A

Lead by example.

Ref. ADRP 7-0

314
Q

Which Army principle of leader development talks about change is inevitable?

A

Train to develop adaptive leaders.

Ref. ADRP 7-0

315
Q

What is the primary leader development opportunity?

A

Training

Ref. UTM

316
Q

What process is an extension of a training event?

A

Recovery

Ref. UTM

317
Q

When is the training event evaluated?

A

During the execution phase.

Ref. UTM

318
Q

What training domain includes the centers of excellence and schools?

A

Institutional training domain

Ref. ADRP 7-0

319
Q

What training domain equates to assignments in the Army and generating force?

A

Operational training domain.

Ref. ADRP 7-0

320
Q

What training domain equates to Soldiers filling in their skills, knowledge, and behavior gaps?

A

Self-development domain

Ref. ADRP 7-0

321
Q

What type of unit training provides the full range of experiences needed to produce agile, adaptive leaders and Soldiers, and versatile units?

A

Collective training

Ref. ADRP 7-0

322
Q

Which principle of unit training discusses mastery of skills?

A

Understanding the operational environment

Ref. ADRP 7-0

323
Q

Which principle of unit training discusses leaders incorporating comprehensive fitness programs into unit training and leader development?

A

Train to sustain.

Ref ADRP 7-0

324
Q

Which principle of unit training discusses change is inevitable in any operational environment?

A

Train to develop adaptability

Ref. ADRP 7-0

325
Q

Which principle of unit training discusses leaders employing critical thinking to develop sound, creative solutions rapidly?

A

Train as you will fight

Ref. ADRP 7-0

326
Q

Which principle of leader development discusses leaders are role models?

A

Lead by example

Ref. ADRP 7-0

327
Q

Which principle of leader development discusses creativity in subordinates?

A

Train in the art and science of mission command

Ref. ADRP 7-0

328
Q

Which principle of leader development discusses recognizing high performers?

A

Develop subordinate leaders

Ref. ADRP 7-0

329
Q

Which principle of leader development discusses leaders sustaining sound relationships?

A

Train your leaders to know their subordinates and families.

Ref. ADRP 7-0

330
Q

Which principle of leader development discusses leaders allows for an honest mistake?

A

Create a learning environment for subordinate leaders.

Ref. ADRP 7-0

331
Q

What measures individual/crew/team technical proficiency?

A

Certification

Ref. UTM

332
Q

Which step of the operations process in unit training and leader development discusses recovery?

A

Execute

Ref. UTM

333
Q

What provides a mechanism for leaders and Soldiers to visualize what is supposed to happen?

A

Rehearsal

Ref. UTM

334
Q

What ensures training resources are used properly?

A

Efficient training

Ref. UTM

335
Q

Which type of evaluation takes place when leaders conduct training?

A

Informal evaluation

Ref. UTM

336
Q

What are the 21st Century Competencies?

A
  1. Character and Accountability
  2. Comprehensive Fitness
  3. Adaptability and Initiative
  4. Lifelong Learner
  5. Teamwork and Collaberation
    6 . Communication and Engagment
  6. Critical Thinking and Problem Solving
  7. Cultural and Joint, Inter-agency, Inter-governmental, and Multinational Competence
  8. Tactical and Technical Knowledge
337
Q

What is PMESII-PT?

A 
Political
Military
Economic
Social
Infrastructure
Information
Physical Environment
Time

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