Board review Flashcards
(66 cards)
1
Q
definition: SD
A
impaired or altered function of ANY part of the soma - skeletal, myofascial, and its related vascular, lymphatic, and neural elements
2
Q
SDs are diagnosed via __________
A
palpation
3
Q
SDs are always named for _______________
A
freedom of motion
4
Q
TART
A
tenderness
asymmetry
restricted ROM
tissue texture changes
5
Q
how many of TART are required for diagnosis of a SD?
A
1 out of 4*
*if one is tenderness, then need a total of 3
6
Q
definition: elastic deformation
A
tissue can return to its resting state after being deformed - it resists staying transformed (aka elasticity)
7
Q
definition: hysteresis
A
- to lag or come behind
- the time between elasticity and creep
8
Q
definition: creep
A
- the capacity of fascia and other tissues to lengthen when subjected to a constant tension load resulting in LESS RESISTANCE to a second load application
- with slow, longer lasting stress, the tissue will eventually lose its elastic qualities and not bounce back
9
Q
definition: vertebral unit
A
two adjacent vertebrae with their associated IV disc, arthroidal, ligamentous, muscular, vascular, lymphatic, and neural elements
10
Q
features of a type I SD
A
- neutral
- long restrictors
- several segments
- sidebending / rotation to OPPOSITE sides
- rotation into the convexity of the curve
- postural
11
Q
features of a type II SD
A
- sufficiently flexed / extended
- short restrictors
- 1 segment
- sidebending / rotation to SAME side
- rotation into the CONCAVITY of the curve
- traumatic
12
Q
facet orientation? what are these in reference to?
A
- cervicals: BUM
- thoracics: BUL
- lumbar: BUM
- in reference to how the superior articular facets are positioned
13
Q
gravitational plumb line
A
- posterior to apex of coronal suture
- external auditory meatus
- bodies of most cervical vertebrae
- shoulder joint
- bodies of lumbar vertebrae
- posterior to axis of hip joint
- anterior to axis of knee joint
- anterior to lateral malleolus
14
Q
what are the phases of the walking cycle?
A
- stance phase: when foot is planted on ground (60%)
- swing phase: when foot moves forward (40%)
15
Q
definition: CCP
A
- a series of functional, near-physiologic, alternating body torsions which are maintained by muscle and fascia
- these torsions involve body areas where the potential for motion is greatest
- the potential for motion is greatest at the FOUR transitional areas of the body
- CCP is a fascial strain pattern
16
Q
12 findings of CCP
A
- C2 is rotated and side-bent to the left.
- The head side-bends to the right.
- T1 rotates and side-bends to the right (flexed or extended).
- The right infraclavicular area is concave and easily compressible.
- T2-6 are neutral, side-bent left and rotated right.
- The lower thoracic area shifts to the left better than to the right.
- The pelvis rolls to the right better than to the left.
- The left iliac crest is superior (more cephalad).
- The pelvis torsions to the left (posterior left/anterior right innominate rotation).
- The sacrum torsions to the left (left-on-left forward sacral torsion).
- The left arm is short.
- The left leg is long and the right leg is externally rotated.
17
Q
what is the VFIRST acronym for? what are the components?
A
- red flags for serious health problems / issues
- Vascular
- Fracture
- Infection
- Radicular
- Spinal cord / brain
- Tumor
18
Q
what is the dalrymple treatment?
A
lymphatic pump via the feet
19
Q
definitions:
effleurage
petrisage
tapotement
klapping
A
- effleurage: stroking movement to move fluids
- petrisage: deep kneading or squeezing to express swelling
- tapotement: striking the belly of a muscle to increase its tone / arterial perfusion
- klapping: striking the skin with cupped hand to loosen material
20
Q
what are the three types of ME? what are the goals of each?
A
- isometric: will correct a SD
- isotonic: will strenghten a physiologic weak muscle
- isolytic: will break up adhesions (scarring)
21
Q
what is concentric contraction ME?
A
contraction were the origin and insertion of a muscle approximate (isotonic)
22
Q
what is eccentric contraction ME?
A
contraction where the origin and insertion of a muscle separate or lengthen (isolytic)
23
Q
what is the physiologic basis of oculophalogyric reflex (OCGR)?
A
- functional muscle groups are contracted in response to voluntary eye movements on the part of the patient
- these eye movements reflexively affect the CERVICAL and TRUNCAL musculature as the body attempts to follow the lead provided by eye motion
- it can be used to produce very gentle post-isometric relaxation or reciprocal inhibition
24
Q
what do chapman points represent?
A
somatic manifestation of a visceral dysfunction
25
what is responsible for the early tissue changes palpable over the midline collateral sympathetic ganglia?
visceral afferent activity
26
where is the celiac ganglion located?
right below xiphoid
27
where is the superior mesenteric ganglion located?
halfway between xiphoid and umbilicus
28
where is the inferior mesentertic ganglion located?
at umbilicus
29
what are the collateral ganglia?
- celiac ganglia: T5-9
- superior mesenteric: T10-11
- inferior mesenteric: T12-L2
30
what is a trigger point?
hypersensitive focus, usually within a taut band of skeletal muscle or in the muscle fascia
31
what does a trigger point represent?
represents a somatic manifestation of a viscero-somatic, somato-visceral, or somato-somatic reflex
32
what is the key articulation for cranial?
sphenobasilar synchondrosis (SBS)
33
what does the sacrum do when the SBS flexes?
moves posterior / superior
34
what does the sacrum do when the SBS extends?
moves anterior / inferior
35
what do the cranial midline and paired bones do on inhalation?
- midline: flex
| - paired: externally rotate
36
what do the cranial midline and paired bones do on exhalation?
- midline: extend
| - paired: internally rotate
37
what does cranial flexion do to the transverse diameter of the skull?
increase
38
what does cranial extension do to the AP diameter of the skull?
increase
39
what are the 5 components of the primary respiratory mechanism (PRM)?
1. inherent motility of the CNS
2. fluctuation of the CSF
3. mobility of the reciprocal tension membrane (dura)
4. articular mobility of the cranial bones
5. mobility of the sacrum between the ilia
40
what cranial bone(s) do you treat for anosmia?
ethmoid
41
what cranial bone(s) do you treat for tinnitus?
temporals
42
what cranial bone(s) do you treat for headache?
LOW wing of sphenoid on side of headache
43
what do you do for a baby with suckling / swallowing difficulties?
treat cranially by decompression of occipital condyles (decompress the condylar parts) - VSD occipital sinus
44
is there a disc between the occiput and C1? what about C1 and C2?
no (neither)
45
where do osteophytes typically form in the cervical vertebrae?
uncovertebral joints
46
coupled motion of rotation and sidebending to the same side occurs at what joint?
zygapophyseal joint
47
diagnosis of cervical spine is made by evaluating what structures?
posterior articular pillars
48
spurlings test tests for ___________
nerve root impingement in neural foramina
49
wallenburg test tests for _____________
vertebral artery insufficiency
50
which motion is the greatest at the thoracic spine? which is the least?
- rotation
| - extension
51
what is the rules of 3 for spinous processes of the thoracic spine?
- T1-3: horizontal, at level of transverse process
- T4-6: halfway between transverse processes
- T7-9: at level of transverse process one level below
- T10: like T7-9
- T11: like T4-6
- T12: like T1-3
52
scoliosis is named for the __________ of the curve
convexity
53
the scapula is more prominent on the (convex / concave) side for scoliosis
convex
54
scoliosis curvature is measured via x ray using the ________ method
cobb
55
which lumbar vertebra has the most congenital deformities? what is the most common?
- L5
| - facet tropism
56
what is the batwing deformity?
sacralization of L5
57
what is ferguson's angle? when is it increased?
- lumbosacral angle
| - increased in any lumbar lordosis
58
definition: spondylosis
general term for arthritis (degeneration) of spine
59
definition: spondylitis
inflammation of a vertebra
60
definition: spondylolysis
- seapration of the pars interarticularis
| - oblique views will identify the fracture and is often seen as a 'collar' on the neck of the 'scotty dog'
61
definition: spondylolisthesis
- forward displacement of one vertebra over another
- most commonly L5 on S1
- graded by % in dividing the sacrum into quarters
62
what tests evaluate for lumbar nerves?
- heel toe walk (screens L5 nerve root)
| - walk on toes (screens S1 nerve root)
63
what is psoas syndrome?
- unilateral: sidebending to contracted side
- pelvic side shift opposite the contracture
- usually L1 or L2 is in SD
- bilateral: flexed forward when standing, will INCREASE lumbar lordosis when patient is lying supine
64
what test is used to evaluate for psoas syndrome?
thomas test
65
what is thomas test used to evaluate?
psoas syndrome
66
FABER test is used to evaluate for what?
hip vs SI joint dysfunction
