Board Vitals Flashcards
(277 cards)
1
Q
Calvarial (skull) bone grafts are harvested from the ___ bone at least 1.5cm lateral to the sagittal sutre and 1cm posterior to the coronal suture.
A
Calvarial (skull) bone grafts are harvested from the parietal bone at least 1.5cm lateral to the sagittal sutre and 1cm posterior to the coronal suture.
2
Q
Calvarial (skull) bone grafts are harvested from the parietal bone at least ___cm lateral to the __ suture and __cm posterior to the __ suture.
A
Calvarial (skull) bone grafts are harvested from the parietal bone at least 1.5cm lateral to the sagittal suture and 1cm posterior to the coronal suture.
3
Q
___weeks is the optimal time to dermabrade scars
A
6-8 weeks
there needs to be time for soft tissue to heal and manifest uneveness
4
Q
The aesthetic and mechanical properties of _ flaps make them useful for reconstruction of small defects in the lower cheek, mid-cheek, and upper lip.
A
Transposition flaps.
best when standard fusiform closure can’t be done
5
Q
The _ flap is a full-thickness local flap w/random blood supply, that is an example of a transposition flap.
A
Rhomboid flap
6
Q
In cleft lip nasal deformities: the collumella, caudal septum and nasal tip deviate to the___ side.
A
In cleft lip nasal deformities: the collumella, caudal septum and nasal tip deviate to the non-cleft side.
7
Q
In cleft lip nasal deformities, the posterior septum deviates to the ___ side.
A
In cleft lip nasal deformities, the posterior septum deviates to th cleft side
8
Q
In cleft lip nasal deformities, the alar base is displaced ___
A
In cleft lip nasal deformities, the alar base is displaced lateral, inferior and posterior
9
Q
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. ___ medial crus
2. elongated/caudally displaced lateral crus
3. blunted dome
4. posteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly displaced alar base
A
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. shortened medial crus
2. elongated/caudally displaced lateral crus
3. blunted dome
4. posteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly displaced alar base
10
Q
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. shortened medial crus
2. ___ lateral crus
3. blunted dome
4. posteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly displaced alar base
A
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. shortened medial crus
2. elongated/caudally displaced lateral crus
3. blunted dome
4. posteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly displaced alar base
11
Q
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. shortened medial crus
2. elongated/caudally displaced lateral crus
3. ___ dome
4. posteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly displaced alar base
A
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. shortened medial crus
2. elongated/caudally displaced lateral crus
3. blunted dome
4. posteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly displaced alar base
12
Q
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. shortened medial crus
2. elongated/caudally displaced lateral crus
3. blunted dome
4. ___ displaced alar base
A
In a cleft lip nasal deformity, the lower lateral cartilage is deformed, and displays the following features:
1. shortened medial crus
2. elongated/caudally displaced lateral crus
3. blunted dome
4. posteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly displaced alar base
13
Q
Botox acts at what level of the nerve terminal at the neuromuscular junction?
A
pre-synaptic
14
Q
For the best cosmetic result w/ear prosthesis, the __ should remain in place if possible.
A
Tragus
15
Q
A 60/45/30degree Z-plasty will elongate the original scar by __%, __%, __%, respectively.
A
75%, 50%, 25%, respectively
16
Q
A __/__/__degree Z-plasty will elongate the original scar by 75%, 50%, 25%, respectively.
A
60/45/30 degrees, respectively
17
Q
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. ___
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
A
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
18
Q
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. ___
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
A
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
19
Q
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. ___
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
A
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
20
Q
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. ___
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
A
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
21
Q
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. ___
A
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
22
Q
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
6. _____
A
The following are associated w/increased risk of hematoma formation following midface lift (rhytidectomy):
1. Male gender
2. HTN
3. Aspirin/NSAIDS/other anticoags
4. high doses of Vitamin E
5. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
6. BMI >30
23
Q
Cleft palate patients have an increased risk of what ear disease?
A
chronic otitis media
24
Q
A Reverse Townes view is most suitable to assess which location of a mandible fracture?
A
Condyle
25
The blood supply to the trapezius is provided by which 3 arterial branches?
1. Transverse cervical a.
2. Dorsal scapular a.
3. Occipital a. (and intercostal perforators)
26
(Plasmatic) Imbibition is the process of ___ from the underlying recipient bed.
(Plasmatic) Imbibition is the process of **deriving nutrients** from the underlying recipient bed.
27
(Plasmatic) Imbibition occurs over the first ___ hours
(Plasmatic) Imbibition occurs over the first **24-48hrs**
28
Inosculation occurs around __hrs.
**48hrs**
29
Inosculation is the process of ___.
Inosculation is the process of small vessels in the graft growing to meet small vessels of the recipient site.
30
Angiogenesis occurs over days ____.
4-7 days post-op
31
Angiogenesis is the process where ___ are formed from the recipient site to the skin graft.
Angiogenesis is the process where **new and permanent blood vessels are formed** from the recipient site to the skin graft.
32
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. ___
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. **minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat**
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
33
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. ___
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. **Lax cervical skin**
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
34
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. ___
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. **Fat accumulation**
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
35
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. ___
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. **Platysmal banding**
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. Low Hyoid
36
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. ___
VI. Low Hyoid
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. **Micrognathia/Retrognathia**
VI. Low Hyoid
37
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. ___
The Dedo classification of cervical abnormalities:
I. minimal deformity w/acute cervicomental angle, good platysmal tone, and little accumulation of fat
II. Lax cervical skin
III. Fat accumulation
IV. Platysmal banding
V. Micrognathia/Retrognathia
VI. **Low Hyoid**
38
The physical exam for ptosis and levator function begins with the ___ measurement.
marginal reflex distance (MRD1)
39
MRD-1 measures the distance from the ___ to the ___, and normally is 4-5 mm.
MRD-1 measures the distance from the **upper lid margin to the corneal light reflex**, and normally is 4-5 mm.
40
MRD-1 measures the distance from the upper lid margin to the corneal light reflex, and normally is ___mm.
MRD-1 measures the distance from the upper lid margin to the corneal light reflex, and normally is** 4-5 mm**.
41
MRD-2 measures the distance from the ___ to the ___, and normally is 5-5.5 mm.
MRD-2 measures the distance from the **lower lid margin** to the **corneal light reflex**, and normally is 5-5.5 mm.
42
MRD-2 measures the distance from the lower lid margin to the corneal light reflex, and normally is ___mm.
MRD-2 measures the distance from the lower lid margin to the corneal light reflex, and normally is **5-5.5 mm**.
43
Inadvertent injury to the ___ during rhytidectomy can present as an aseptic fluid collection in the surgical field, w/a high amylase level.
Inadvertent injury to the **parotid gland** during rhytidectomy can present as an aseptic fluid collection in the surgical field, w/a high amylase level.
44
In mechanical creep, there is realignment of __, but *no* change in microanatomy or SA.
In mechanical creep, there is realignment of **collagen fibers**
45
Biological creep is a net increase in __, secondary to permanent changes in the *tissue microanatomy* an increase in *mitotic activity*.
| occurs w/long-term tissue expander use
Biological creep is a net increase in **SA**, secondary to permanent changes in the tissue *microanatomy* and increase in *mitotic activity*.
46
Rectangular shaped expanders achieve a gain in SA of __%, while crescent shaped expanders achieve a gain of 32%, and circular shaped expanders, 25%
Rectangular shaped expanders achieve a gain in SA of **38%**, while crescent shaped expanders achieve a gain of 32%, and circular shaped expanders, 25%
47
Rectangular shaped expanders achieve a gain in SA of 38%, while crescent shaped expanders achieve a gain of __%, and circular shaped expanders, 25%
Rectangular shaped expanders achieve a gain in SA of %, while crescent shaped expanders achieve a gain of **32%**, and circular shaped expanders, 25%
48
Rectangular shaped expanders achieve a gain in SA of 38%, while crescent shaped expanders achieve a gain of 32%, and circular shaped expanders, __%
Rectangular shaped expanders achieve a gain in SA of 38%, while crescent shaped expanders achieve a gain of 32%, and circular shaped expanders, **25%**
49
The external nasal valve is composed of which 3 structures?
Nasal sill, lower lateral cartilage, and columella
50
__% of ppl have an incomplete superficial palmar arch and poor communication btwn. the deep and superficial arches, which prevents the safe harvest of the radial artery w/o causing hand ischemia.
12%
51
Botox is contraindicated in patients w/__allergy or __ allergy
Botox is contraindicated in patients w/**albumin allergy** or **cow's milk protein allergy**.
52
The major disadvantage to the complete transfixion incision is disruption of the ___ support structure.
The major disadvantage to the complete transfixion incision is disruption of the **nasal tip** support structure.
53
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. ___
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. **scleral show**
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
54
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. ___
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. **lower-lid malposition**
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
55
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. ___
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. **lateral canthal dystopia** *(downward displacement of the outer corners of the eye)*
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
56
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. ___
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. **change in shape of the lateral canthal region**
5. ectropion
6. post-op epiphora
57
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ___
6. post-op epiphora
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. **ectropion** *(eyelid sags/turns outward)*
6. post-op epiphora
58
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. ___
Complications of blepharoplasty include:
1. scleral show
2. lower lid malposition
3. lateral canthal dystopia
4. change in shape of the lateral canthal region
5. ectropion
6. **post-op epiphora** *(excess tears/watery eyes)*
59
What view would one best appreciate the Ogee line?
Three-quarter (3/4) view
60
Hyperactivity of the depressor septi muscle may cause ___.
Upper lip shortening w/smiling
61
In the context of repairing an orbital floor fracture, which incision will most likely result in ectropion?
Subciliary incision
62
The internal nasal valve is composed of which 3 components?
lateral cartilage, nasal septum, and head of inferior turbinate
63
___ deformity is the underprojection of the nasal tip w/respect to the projection of the dorsum.
**Pollybeak deformity**
64
___ deformity occurs following excessive hump removal, resulting in inadequate middle vault support.
Inverted-V-deformity
65
The ___a. is most at risk for intravascular injection during melolabial fold injection w/fillers
Facial artery
66
The melolabial fold is the same as the __ fold
nasolabial fold
67
The ___ artery starts superior to the superiormost aspect of the melolabial (nasolabial) fold, and thus would be unlikely to be injected directly when injecting.
Angular artery
68
The vascular supply of the bilobed flap is ___.
Subdermal plexus.
*random flaps rely on the subdermal plexus for their blood supply*
69
The ___ marks the midline superior margin of the forehead at the hairline.
Trichion
70
The ___ is the depression at the root of the nose corresponding to the nasofrontal suture.
Nasion.
*it is just above the sellion*
| really the fusion of frontal and nasal bones
71
The ___ is the root of the nose (soft tissue over nasion) including the nasion and sellion.
Radix
72
The __ is the deepest point of the nasofrontal angle.
Sellion
73
The __ is the anterior-most border of the chin.
Pogonion
74
The ___ is the inferior most border of the chin.
Menton
75
___ grafts are used to correct alar deformities, such as retraction/notching.
Alar rim grafts.
76
___ grafts provide structural support to the lateral nasal wall and prevent collapse during inspiration.
Alar batten grafts.
77
A __ procedure is contraindicated in patients with a cleft palate, because the area can help close the velum.
Adenoidectomy
78
If vascular embolization is suspected following filler injection to nasolabial fold, daily ___ is recommended.
injection w/LMWH
79
Vascular compromise following injection of hyaluronic acid or calcium hydroxyl apatite (filler) should be treated by stopping the injection, gentle massages and warm compresses to the area, topical ___, and injection of ___.
Vascular compromise following injection of hyaluronic acid or calcium hydroxyl apatite (filler) should be treated by stopping the injection, gentle massages and warm compresses to the area, **topical nitroglycerin** and **injection of hyaluronidase**
80
Telephone ear deformity occurs due to overcorrection of the _____ 1/3rd of the ear during otoplasty.
Telephone ear deformity occurs due to overcorrection of the **middle 1/3rd** of the ear during otoplasty.
81
The distance btwn the midpoints of the pupils should equal the distance from the ___ to the ___.
The distance btwn the midpoints of the pupils should equal the distance from the **nasion** to the **vermillion border of the upper lip**.
82
In class I occlusion, the mesiobuccal cusp of the first maxillary molar sits ___ the mesiobuccal groove of the first mandibular molar.
In class I occlusion, the mesiobuccal cusp of the first maxillary molar sits **WITHIN** the mesiobuccal groove of the first mandibular molar.
83
In class II occlusion, the first maxillary molar sits ___ to the the mesiobuccal groove of the first mandibular molar.
In class II occlusion, the first maxillary molar sits **anterior** to the the mesiobuccal groove of the first mandibular molar.
84
The cumulative gain across a full expander dome must = ___ + ___
The cumulative gain across a full expander dome must = **width across its empty base** + **width of the defect to be removed**
85
What are the (3) limbs of the nasal "tripod"?
Conjoined medial crura + b/l lateral crura
86
This patient has what medical condition?
Rhinophyma
*(acne rosacea is a precursor)*
87
This patient's medical condition (image) can be attributed to what pathologic changes?
sebaceous gland hypertrophy and hyperplasia
| (Image shows rhinophyma)
88
The __ graft is associated w/less reabsorption after nasal recon
The **split calvarial bone graft** (derived from intramembranous ossification, i.e. cranium) will have less absorption than that derived from endochondral ossification
89
Loss of up to __ of the lower lip may be managed w/primary closure.
Loss of up to **1/3rd (30%)** of the lower lip may be managed w/primary closure.
90
The medial/lateral limbs of the horizontal mattress sutures used in the Mustarde technique should be placed __-__ mm apart from eachother.
14-16 mm apart
91
In the Mustarde technique, horizontal mattress sutures should be placed __-__ mm apart.
1-2 mm apart
92
A septal mucosal flap is a type of ___ flap.
Hinge flap
93
The paramedian forehead flap and melolabial flaps are examples of ___ flaps.
Interpolated flaps (pivotal flaps)
94
Ptosis, *(due to injection of botox w/in 1cm of the supraorbital rim)* may be treated with ___ drops.
Ptosis, *(due to injection of botox w/in 1cm of the supraorbital rim)* may be treated with **apraclonididne drops**
* *alpha2-adrenergic agonist, causes Muller muscles to contract quickly elevating the upper eyelid 1-3 mm*
95
___ are the most effective mgmt for a mature trap door scar.
revision with Z-plasties
96
Norwood Class I represents an adolescent/juvenille hairline that rests on the ___.
upper brow crease
97
Norwood Class II adult hairline sits ___ width (__cm) above the upper brow crease, w/some temporal recession.
Norwood Class II adult hairline sits **one finger's width (1.5cm)** above the upper brow crease, w/some temporal recession.
98
Norwood Class III adult hairline is the earliest stage of male hair loss and shows a ___.
Norwood Class III adult hairline sits is the earliest stage of male hair loss and shows a **deepening temporal recession**.
99
Norwood Class III Vertex represents early hair loss in the ____ area (vertex balding).
Norwood Class III Vertex represents early hair loss in the **crown** area (vertex balding).
100
Norwood Class IV shows enlargement of the vertex balding.
Norwood Class IV shows enlargement of the **vertex balding**.
101
Norwood Class V shows the bald areas in the front and crown enlarging, w/the band of hair separating the two areas _____.
Norwood Class V shows the bald areas in the front and crown enlarging, w/the band of hair separating the two areas ***beginning to break down***.
102
The naso-frontal angle is measured at the *(part of the nose)*
**Nasion**
103
The naso-facial angle is formed by the intersection of two lines:
1. ___
2. ___
1. nasion to pronasale
2. nasion to pogonion
104
The CO2 laser is an ablative laser that is highly absorbed, w/a high ___ content w/negligible ___.
The CO2 laser is an ablative laser that is highly absorbed, w/a high **water content** content w/negligible **scatter or reflection**.
105
The lateral crural steal maneuver elongates the ___ at the cost of shortening the ___, leading to tip rotation.
The lateral crural steal maneuver elongates the **medial crura** at the cost of shortening the **lateral crura**, leading to *tip rotation*.
106
Type __ collagen is formed during the *proliferative phase* and replaced w/Type __ collagen during the *maturation/remodeling phase*.
**Type III** collagen is formed during the *proliferative phase* and replaced w/**Type I** collagen during the *maturation/remodeling phase*.
107
Type I collagen is:
Bone and skin
*(also cornea, wall of blood vessels, fibrocartilage and tendon)*
108
Type II collagen is:
cartilage (car-TWO-lige)
109
Type III cartilage is:
Connective tissues - most common in muscles*(skin, ligaments, blood vessels, internal organs)*
110
Type IV cartilage is:
Basement membrane in various tissues
111
Type V collagen is:
cornea, placenta, hair
112
Lesions involving oral commisure can be recon'd with ___ flap.
Estlander flap
113
Lesions involving <1/3rd of the lower lip w/o oral commisure involvement can be repaired with___.
primary closure
114
Lesions involving 1/4-1/2 of the lower lip can be repaired with ____ flap.
Abbe flap
115
A defect involving 1/2-1/3 of the lower lip can be repaired with ____ flap.
Karapandzic flap
116
A defect involving >2/3 of the lower lip can be repaired with ____ flap.
Gillies fan flap, Bernard burrow flap, or Fujimori gate flap
117
The Millard method of unilateral cleft lip repair is a type of ___ flap.
Rotation-advancement flap
118
The major nasal tip support structure is the ___.
attachment of the upper lateral cartilages to the lower lateral cartilages (Scroll region)
119
A 26F 1mo after rhinoplsaty reveals lateral dorsal asymmetry. There is a nodule that is nontender, soft and compressible. Needle aspiration reveals *thick, turbid, fluid*. What is the likely cause of this nodule.
**Paraffinoma** (foreign body type reaction from petroleum-baded ointments) caused by antibiotic ointment used in packing.
120
___ can be used to dissolve hyaluronic acid filler injections in the early period
Hyaluronidase
121
___ and ___ acids (chemical peels) produce a perifollicular frosting pattern.
Salicylic and Lipohydroxy acids
122
The Paramedian forehead flap is based off of the ___ artery.
Supratrochlear pedicle
123
A *severe caudal septal deviation* is amenable to the ___ septoplasty technique.
**Extra-corporeal septoplasty**.
*(the entire cartilaginous septum is removed and a new L-strut carved from the straight cartilaginous portions of the septum)*
124
The **tongue-in-groove** technique is useful in repairing ___ septal deviations.
| caudal septum sandwitched/sutured to b/l medial crura for strengthening
mild to moderate caudal septal deviations
125
Mustarde-type septal sutures *(+scoring convex side of caudal septum)* are successful in managing ___ caudal deformities.
Mustarde-type septal sutures are successful in managing **mild** caudal deformities.
126
_____ *(race/ethnicity)* patients are at higher risk for dyspigmentation (hypo/hyper) following dermabrasion.
**African American** patients are at higher risk for dyspigmentation (hypo/hyper) following dermabrasion.
127
mutated COL2A1 genes produce ___ syndrome, which leads to Pierre Robin sequence, cleft palate, hearing loss, ocular abnormalities, and arthritis.
mutated COL2A1 genes produce **Stickler syndrome**, which leads to Pierre Robin sequence, cleft palate, hearing loss, ocular abnormalities, and arthritis.
128
mutated ___ genes produce Stickler syndrome, which leads to Pierre Robin sequence, cleft palate, hearing loss, ocular abnormalities, and arthritis.
mutated **COL2A1** genes produce Stickler syndrome, which leads to Pierre Robin sequence, cleft palate, hearing loss, ocular abnormalities, and arthritis.
129
mutated COL2A1 genes produce Stickler syndrome, which leads to ___, ___, ___, ___, and ___.
mutated COL2A1 genes produce Stickler syndrome, which leads to **Pierre Robin sequence, cleft palate, hearing loss, ocular abnormalities, and arthritis**.
130
What is the mode of transmission of Pierre Robin sequence?
Autosomal dominant
131
The ideal alar:lobule ratio is 1:1 and measured on a ___ profile view.
The ideal alar:lobule ratio is 1:1 and measured on a **Lateral** profile view.
132
The ideal columella:lobule ratio is 2:1 and measured on a ___ profile view.
The ideal columella:lobule ratio is 2:1 and measured on a **Base** profile view.
133
Use of which antibiotic is a relative contraindication to botox injection?
Aminoglycosides
134
As long as 6cm of distal fibula is left following FFF surgery, most patients only note mild limitation of ___.
As long as 6cm of distal fibula is left following FFF surgery, most patients only note mild limitation of **ankle movement in the sagittal/frontal planes**.
135
Absolute indications for ORIF subcondylar mandibular fracture include:
* _____
* displacement of condyle into middle cranial fossa
* presence of penetrating foreign body
* normal occlusion cannot be obtained via closed technique
Absolute indications for ORIF subcondylar mandibular fracture include:
* **lateral displacement of the condylar head**
* displacement of condyle into middle cranial fossa
* presence of penetrating foreign body
* normal occlusion cannot be obtained via closed technique
136
Absolute indications for ORIF subcondylar mandibular fracture include:
* lateral displacement of the condylar head
* _____
* presence of penetrating foreign body
* normal occlusion cannot be obtained via closed technique
Absolute indications for ORIF subcondylar mandibular fracture include:
* lateral displacement of the condylar head
* **displacement of condyle into middle cranial fossa**
* presence of penetrating foreign body
* normal occlusion cannot be obtained via closed technique
137
Absolute indications for ORIF subcondylar mandibular fracture include:
* lateral displacement of the condylar head
* displacement of condyle into middle cranial fossa
* presence of ____
* normal occlusion cannot be obtained via closed technique
Absolute indications for ORIF subcondylar mandibular fracture include:
* lateral displacement of the condylar head
* displacement of condyle into middle cranial fossa
* **presence of penetrating foreign body**
* normal occlusion cannot be obtained via closed technique
138
Absolute indications for ORIF subcondylar mandibular fracture include:
* lateral displacement of the condylar head
* displacement of condyle into middle cranial fossa
* presence of penetrating foreign body
* _____
Absolute indications for ORIF subcondylar mandibular fracture include:
* lateral displacement of the condylar head
* displacement of condyle into middle cranial fossa
* presence of penetrating foreign body
* **normal occlusion cannot be obtained via closed technique**
139
The levator palpebrae superioris m. is suspended by which structure?
Whitnall ligament
140
Muller m. is an involuntary _____ located beneath the levator aponeurosis that receives sympathetic innervation.
Muller m. is an **involuntary smooth muscle lid retractor** located beneath the levator aponeurosis that receives sympathetic innervation.
141
a buckling cartilagenous prominence after rhinoplasty w/cephalic trims and trans-domal sutures, suggests ___.
formation of *nasal tip bossae*
142
Nasal bossae due to cartilage buckling should be addressed with *__(procedure)__*.
Revision rhinoplasty w/shave excision, transdomal suturing, camouflaging onlay grafts/cartilage grafting.
143
A **right** open-bite deformity w/chin deviation to the **left** upon mouth opening, is associated with which type of fracture?
A **left** subcondylar fracture.
*(these fractures shorten the vertical height of the ipsilateral mandible. thus, premature contact occurs on the ipsilateral side w/a resultant open-bite deformity on the contralateral side)*
144
The supratrochlear nerve exits the supratrochlear foramen 1cm ___ to the supraorbital foramen, peirces the orbital septum, courses the corrugator and deep to orbicularis muscle and then pierces the orbicularis and frontalis muscle.
The supratrochlear nerve exits the supratrochlear foramen 1cm **medial** to the supraorbital foramen, peirces the orbital septum, courses the corrugator and deep to orbicularis muscle and then pierces the orbicularis and frontalis muscle.
145
The supratrochlear nerve exits the supratrochlear foramen 1cm medial to the supraorbital foramne, peirces the orbital septum, courses the ___ and deep to the ___ and then pierces the orbicularis and frontalis muscle.
The supratrochlear nerve exits the supratrochlear foramen 1cm medial to the supraorbital foramne, peirces the orbital septum, courses the **corrugator** and deep to the **orbicularis muscle** and then pierces the orbicularis and frontalis muscle.
146
The supratrochlear nerve exits the supratrochlear foramen 1cm medial to the supraorbital foramne, peirces the orbital septum, courses the corrugator and deep to orbicularis muscle and then pierces the ___ and ___ muscles.
The supratrochlear nerve exits the supratrochlear foramen 1cm medial to the supraorbital foramne, peirces the orbital septum, courses the corrugator and deep to orbicularis muscle and then pierces the **orbicularis** and **frontalis muscle**.
147
The coronal forehead lift is preferred for patients with ___ and ___ of the upper face and **normal-low hairline**.
The coronal forehead lift is preferred for patients with **generalized ptosis** and **rhytids (wrinkles) of upper face** and normal-low hairline.
148
Disadvantages of the coronal forehead lift include:
1. ___ of the frontal hairline
2. decreased ___
Disadvantages of the coronal forehead lift include:
1. **elevation** *of the frontal hairline*
2. *decreased* **scalp sensation**
149
For the Western conception of beauty, the female brow should begin ___ to the brow ridge, at a vertical line passing through ___ to the ___.
For the Western conception of beauty, the female brow should begin **inferior** to the brow ridge, at a vertical line passing through **medial canthus** to the **lateral ala**.
150
For the Western conception of beauty, the female brow should cross the rim at the ___ line and peak above the rim at the level of the ___ or the junction of the middle/lateral 1/3rds of the brow.
For the Western conception of beauty, the female brow should cross the rim at the **mid-pupillary line** and peak above the rim at the level of the **lateral limbus** or the junction of the middle/lateral 1/3rds of the brow.
151
The brow arches ***above*** the supraorbital rim in ___ and lies ***at*** the rim in ___.
The brow arches *above* the supraorbital rim in **women** and lies *at* the rim in **men**.
152
The **Jessner's solution** chemical peel includes:
* ___
* ___
* salicylic acid
* lactic acid
The **Jessner's solution** chemical peel includes:
* **resorcinol**
* **ethanol**
* salicylic acid
* lactic acid
“RESI”
153
The **Jessner's solution** chemical peel includes:
* resorcinol
* ethanol
* ___ acid
* ___ acid
The **Jessner's solution** chemical peel includes:
* resorcinol
* ethanol
* **salicylic acid**
* **lactic acid**
154
The most widely used **deep** peel is the Gordon-Baker peel, composed of:
* 3ml ___ 88%
* ___
* liquid soap (emulsifier)
* croton oil (allows deep penetration)
* distilled water
The most widely used **deep** peel is the Gordon-Baker peel, composed of:
* **3ml phenol 88%**
* **hexachlorophene (septisol)**
* liquid soap (emulsifier)
* croton oil (allows deep penetration)
* distilled water
155
The most widely used **deep** peel is the Gordon-Baker peel, composed of:
* 3ml phenol 88%
* hexachlorophene (septisol)
* ___ (emulsifier)
* ___ (allows deep penetration)
* ___
The most widely used **deep** peel is the Gordon-Baker peel, composed of:
* 3ml phenol 88%
* hexachlorophene (septisol)
* **liquid soap** (emulsifier)
* **croton oil** (allows deep penetration)
* **distilled water**
156
The following are _____ chemical peels:
* 10-25% TCA (trichloroacetic acid)
* Jessner's solution
* 40-70% glycolic acid
* 5-15% salicylic acid
The following are **Superficial** chemical peels:
* 10-25% TCA (trichloroacetic acid)
* Jessner's solution
* 40-70% glycolic acid
* 5-15% salicylic acid
157
Onobotulinumtoxin A (a formulation of botulinin toxin type A) has a *(longer/shorter)* onset of action, but lasts *(longer/shorter)* than rimabotulinum toxin B (formulation of botulinum toxin type B).
Onobotulinumtoxin *A* (a formulation of botulinin toxin type A) has a **shorter** onset of action, but lasts **longer** than rimabotulinumtoxin *B* (formulation of botulinum toxin type B).
158
Botox injection into the ___ muscle can be used to correct marionette lines.
Botox injection into the **Depressor anguli oris** muscle can be used to correct marionette lines.
159
Patients w/a history of acne should stop isotretionoin __ months before dermabrasion, b/c it increases risk of scarring (*decreases the number of pilosebaceous units required for healing*)
Patients w/a history of acne should stop isotretionoin **6 months** before dermabrasion, b/c it increases risk of scarring (*decreases the number of pilosebaceous units required for healing*)
160
The epidermis thickness ___ with aging.
decreases
161
The dermis ___, and the ground substance component of the dermis is ___ with aging.
The dermis **atrophies/thins**, and the ground substance component (connective tissue) of the dermis is greatly **increased** with aging.
162
The skin has ___ amounts of elastin with aging.
The skin has **decreasing** amounts of elastin with aging.
163
The preseptal transconjunctival approach provides _____ but generally is more _____ compared to the postseptal transconjunctival approach
The preseptal transconjunctival approach provides **better visualization** but generally is **more time intensive** compared to the postseptal transconjunctival approach
164
The transconjunctival preseptal approach involves dissecting inferiorly along the ___ plane between the ___ and ____ muscle.
The transconjunctival preseptal approach involves dissecting inferiorly along the **avascular plane** between the **orbital septum** and **orbicularis oculi muscle**.
165
The transconjunctival postseptal approach goes direct to the (_____) through the conjunctiva, and lower lid retractors are placed close to the (____).
The transconjunctival postseptal approach goes direct to the **orbital fat** through the conjunctiva, and lower lid retractors are placed close to the **conjunctival fornix**.
166
Hiding the preauricular incision of a face lift _____ is avoided in men/women with hair over the pre-auricular skin, to prevent hair getting transplanted ______.
Hiding the preauricular incision of a face lift **behind the tragus** is avoided in men/women with hair over the pre-auricular skin, to prevent hair getting **transplanted onto the tragus**.
| Instead, incision is carried into the pre-tragal crease
167
Placement of a *sub*periosteal alloplastic chin implant has greater risk of _____ compared to *supra*periosteal placement.
Placement of a *sub*periosteal alloplastic chin implant has greater risk of **bone resorption** compared to *supra*periosteal placement.
168
A __:__ ratio for a fusiform excision is the optimal balance between scar length and avoiding a standing cone deformity.
3:1
169
170
Mobius syndrome prsents with b/l FN paralysis due to ___.
Mobius syndrome prsents with b/l FN paralysis due to **incomplete development of CN 6 and 7**.
*(There is no CN 7 in the IAC, and nerve grafting is not possible due to absence of the FN)*
171
A ___ or ___ procedure will reanimate the mouth, and is best in treatment of facial asymmetry in Mobius syndrome.
A **Temporalis muscle sling** or **Masseter muscle transposition** procedure will reanimate the mouth, and are the best treatment options for facial asymmetry in Mobius syndrome.
172
The complete strip and full transfixion incision/reduction of nasal septum procedures are methods to ___ nasal tip projection.
Decrease
173
Lateral crural steal, shield grafting, interdomal suture placement, tongue in groove and collumellar strut grafting are methods to _____ nasal tip projection.
Lateral crural steal, shield grafting, interdomal suture placement, tongue in groove and collumellar strut grafting are methods to **increase** nasal tip projection.
174
The ideal upper eyelid crease height is __-__mm in women and 6-9mm in men.
The ideal upper eyelid crease height is **8-11**mm in women and 6-9mm in men.
175
The ideal upper eyelid crease height is 8-11mm in women and __-__mm in men.
The ideal upper eyelid crease height is 8-11mm in women and **6-9mm** in men.
176
Phenol chemical peels cause ___ extending into the reticular dermis.
Phenol chemical peels cause **protein denaturation** extending into the reticular dermis.
| Primarily used for deeper peels
177
A ___ chemical peel is more *lipophilic* than glycolic acid, allowing for better penetration through the skin's lipid layer.
A **Salicylic acid** chemical peel is more *lipophilic* than glycolic acid, allowing for *better penetration* through the skin's lipid layer.
178
What are the stages of hair growth (x4)?
Anagen, Catagen, Telogen and Exogen
179
90% of scalp hair follicles are in the __ phase of hair growth
Anagen phase
180
Follicles in the ___ phase of hair growth are dormant for 3-4 months
Telogen phase
181
Follicles in the **Telogen** phase of hair growth are dormant for __to__ months
Follicles in the **Telogen** phase of hair growth are dormant for **3 to 4 months**
182
The Anagen growth phase lasts __ to __ years.
3 to 4 years
183
A unilatereal cleft lip nasal deformity displays *retro-displacement* of the lower lateral cartilage to the ___ side.
A unilatereal cleft lip nasal deformity displays *retro-displacement* of the lower lateral cartilage to the **cleft side**.
184
___ is the main component of the Baker-Gordon formula chemical peel that determines the depth of the peel.
Croton oil
185
Patients w/a history of skin resurfacing have a less dramatic result w/dermabrasion and are at slightly higher risk of hypopigmentation and complications, thus requiring ___ months before a second dermabrasion procedure is allowed.
Patients w/a history of skin resurfacing have a less dramatic result w/dermabrasion and are at slightly higher risk of hypopigmentation and complications, thus requiring **12 months** before a second dermabrasion procedure is allowed.
186
Patients undergoing a bleph on *one side* for ptosis should be evaluated for ___ on the contralateral side, based on Herings Law.
Patients undergoing a bleph on *one side* for ptosis should be evaluated for **subclinical ptosis** on the contralateral side, based on Herings Law.
187
The major nasal tip support mechanisms include:
1. _____
2. scroll area
3. attachment of medial crura to the caudal septum
The **major** nasal tip support mechanisms include:
1. **strength/resiliency of lower lateral cartilages**
2. scroll area
3. attachment of medial crura to the caudal septum
188
The **major** nasal tip support mechanisms include:
1. strength/resiliency of lower lateral cartilages
2. ___
3. attachment of medial crura to the caudal septum
The **major** nasal tip support mechanisms include:
1. strength/resiliency of lower lateral cartilages
2. **scroll area**
3. attachment of medial crura to the caudal septum
189
The **major** nasal tip support mechanisms include:
1. strength/resiliency of lower lateral cartilages
2. scroll area
3. attachment of ___
The **major** nasal tip support mechanisms include:
1. strength/resiliency of lower lateral cartilages
2. scroll area
3. **attachment of medial crura to the caudal septum**
190
___ peels require neutralization w/water or 5% sodium bicarbonate solution.
Glycolic acid peels
191
A _____ mandibular fracture shortens the vertical height on the ipsilateral side, creating an open bite on the contralateral side.
A **subcondylar mandibular fracture** shortens the vertical height on the ipsilateral side, creating an open bite on the contralateral side.
192
A subcondylar mandibular fracture shortens the vertical height on the ___ side, creating an open bite on the ___ side.
A subcondylar mandibular fracture shortens the vertical height on the **ipsilateral** side, creating an open bite on the **contralateral** side.
193
Androgenetic alopecia is mediated by ___ activity.
Androgenetic alopecia is mediated by**5-alpha reductase** activity.
*5-alpha reductase is responsible for conversion of testosterone into DHT which is directly associated w/androgenetic alopecia)*
194
Both Poly-l-lactic acid (sculptra), and calcium hydroxyapatite filler (radiesse) injections are FDA approved fillers for the Tx of ____ secondary to ___ therapy in ____ patients.
Both Poly-l-lactic acid (sculptra), and calcium hydroxyapatite filler (radiesse) injections are FDA approved fillers for the Tx of **lipodystrophy** secondary to **anti-retroviral** therapy in **HIV-positive** patients.
195
An edentulous patient with a mandible fracture (does/does not) require MMF?
An edentulous patient with a mandible fracture (does/**does not**) require MMF
196
An atrophic mandible (common in older patients) does not provide enough support to adequately share the load with ___ fixation plates.
An atrophic mandible (common in older patients) does not provide enough support to adequately share the load with **small fixation plates**.
197
___ fixation using bicortical screws is indicated for atrophic mandible fractures, comminuted fractures or fractures with missing fragments.
**Load bearing fixation (LBF)** using bicortical screws is indicated for atrophic mandible fractures, comminuted fractures or fractures with missing fragments.
*also needed w/comminuted mandible fractures or w/bone loss*
| LBF = long, strong fracture plates w/multiple fixation points
198
In comparison to the *CO2 laser*, the *Er:YAG* laser _____.
In comparison to the CO2 laser, the Er:YAG laser **causes less injury to adjacent tissues.**
199
Minoxidil increases follicle ___ and ___ of *Anagen* follicles.
Minoxidil increases follicle **size (diameter)** and **percent (weight)** of *Anagen* follicles.
200
The superficial musculoaponeurotic system (SMAS) layer is continuous with the ____ in the temporal region *superiorly*, and platysma *inferiorly*.
The superficial musculoaponeurotic system (SMAS) layer is continuous with the **Temporoparietal Fascia (TPF)** in the temporal region *superiorly*, and platysma *inferiorly*.
201
The superficial musculoaponeurotic system (SMAS) layer is continuous with the Temporoparietal Fascia (TPF) in the temporal region *superiorly*, and _____ *inferiorly*.
The superficial musculoaponeurotic system (SMAS) layer is continuous with the Temporoparietal Fascia (TPF) in the temporal region *superiorly*, and **platysma** *inferiorly*.
202
The ideal hyoid position is ___ and ___ for optimal outcomes following submental lipectomy.
The ideal hyoid position is **superior** and **posterior** for optimal outcomes following submental lipectomy.
203
Distance from nasion to subnasale should be ___% of the nasion to menton distance.
43%
204
Distance from subnasale to menton is ___% of the nasion to menton distance
57%
205
The bony width of the nose should be __-__% of the alar base width.
75-80%
206
Normal columellar show is __ to __ mm.
Normal columellar show is **2 to 4 mm**.
207
Ideal range for nasolabial angle is __ to __ degrees.
Ideal range for nasolabial angle is **90 to 115 degrees**.
208
The ___ is the most injured extraocular muscle during blepharoplasty.
inferior oblique.
*(occurs w/indiscriminate cauterization of the medial/central fat pads inferiorly)*
209
The **Retrograde technique** *(nasal tip surgery)* utilizes an ____ incision through the scroll region, with retrograde dissection (cephalic to caudal) of the lateral crus, to access the cephalic margin of the lower lateral cartilages.
The **Retrograde technique** *(nasal tip surgery)* utilizes an **intercartilaginous incision** through the scroll region, with retrograde dissection (cephalic to caudal) of the lateral crus, to access the cephalic margin of the lower lateral cartilages.
210
The **Retrograde technique** *(nasal tip surgery)* utilizes an intercartilaginous incision through the scroll region, with retrograde dissection (cephalic to caudal) of the ____, to access the cephalic margin of the lower lateral cartilages.
The **Retrograde technique** *(nasal tip surgery)* utilizes an intercartilaginous incision through the scroll region, with retrograde dissection (cephalic to caudal) of the **lateral crus**, to access the cephalic margin of the lower lateral cartilages.
211
___ is a genetic condition in which there is a decrease in the size/number of elastic fibers in the dermis, causing skin laxity.
**Cutis laxa**
| No wound healing difficulties, so thes patients can undergo rhytidectomy
212
The treatment of ptosis from botox toxin A/B injection is ___.
Apraclonidine 0.5% eye drops (lopidine)
| alpha-2 agonist
213
The blood supply to the ear relies on which 3 arteries?
1. superficial temporal a.
2. posterior auricular a.
3. deep auricular a.
214
There is more scar formation and less efficacy of laser in __-skinned individuals
Dark-skinned individuals
215
PDL laser energy is absorbed by the epidermal pigments rather than the hemoglobin, thus, the ___ the skin, the better the treatment.
PDL laser energy is absorbed by the epidermal pigments rather than the hemoglobin, thus, the **lighter** the skin, the better the treatment.
216
A 60, 45, and 30 degree Z-plasty will rotate the scar __, __, and __ degrees.
90, 60, and 45 degrees.
| Since scar needs to be rotated 60, the ideal z-plasty would be 45 degree
217
# [](http://)
The ___ nerve can be harvested w/a radial forearm FF to provide sensation of the flap when inset into the recipient site
Lateral antebranchial cutaneous nerve
| Can provide intraoral flap sensation
218
At 1wk following incision, what is the tensile strength of a wound compared to normal skin?
3%
219
The plane of dissection for a Gillies approach to the zygomatic arch is deep to the _____.
The plane of dissection for a Gillies approach to the zygomatic arch is deep to the **deep temporal fascia**.
| This is an avascular plane deep to distal branches of the FN
220
The treatment of hyperpigmentation after laser skin resurfacing is ___.
Hydroquinone + Sun block + Skin exfoliant
| Higher Fitzpatrick skin types are more prone to hyperpigmentation
221
A ___ brow lift is a great option for patients w/a high forehead and good hairline, and to address frontal sinus bossing in facial feminization surgery.
pretrichial brow lift
| low risk of FN injury
222
A ___ brow lift is placed in *prominent rhytids* in the forehead.
Indirect brow lift
223
The ___ brow lift incision is placed through lateral incisions in the temporal tuft, and is at risk to the FN as the plan transitions to subperiosteal.
Endoscopic brow lift
224
___ and ___ brow lifts are good options for correcting brow asymmetry, and are also good options for patients w/receding hairlines.
Direct and Indirect brow lifts
225
The ___ flap does not have the potential for sensory reinnervation
scapular fasciocutaneous flap
226
Failure to resuspend the ___ can result in chin ptosis (witch chin).
**Mentalis muscle**
*(in general - failure to resuspend the soft tissues are maxillofacial repair can result in soft tissue ptosis)*
227
Linear transposition flaps have a tendency towards _____ due to underlying scar formation.
Trap-door deformities
228
A RFF is based on the ___ artery and venae comitantes of the ___ vein, which can reach up to 20cm.
A RFF is based on the **radial artery** and venae comitantes of the **cephalic vein**, which can reach up to 20cm.
229
The ___ flap can be transferred as a reverse flow flap
The RFF flap can be transferred as a reverse flow flap (if the palmar arch is intact)
230
The dissection of the RFF pedicle follows the path btwn the ___ and ___ muscles.
The dissection of the RFF pedicle follows the path btwn the **brachioradialis** and **flexor carpi radialis** muscles.
231
An afferent pupillary defect (as can be identified through a swinging flashlight test) is due to an _____.
An afferent pupillary defect (as can be identified through a swinging flashlight test) is due to an **ipsilateral optic nerve injury**.
232
What location of the face is best suited for a full thickness skin graft (recipient site)?
Temple
233
Insertion of a ___ will create the appearance of a less projected nose.
Insertion of a **chin implant** will create the appearance of a less projected nose.
234
Elevating the ___ will create the illusion of a less projected nose.
Elevating the **nasal dorsum** will create the illusion of a less projected nose.
235
The *external approach* for an open rhinoplasty combines a ___ incision w/a ___ incision.
The *external approach* for an open rhinoplasty combines a **transcollumellar incision** w/a **marginal incision**.
236
The *endonasal approach* for an endonasal rhinoplasty combines a ___ incision w/a ___ incision, w/a ___ incision.
The *endonasal approach* for an endonasal rhinoplasty combines a **marginal incision** w/a **intercartilaginous incision**, w/a **full transfixion incision**.
237
Endoscopic brow lift is performed in the ___ plane.
Endoscopic brow lift is performed in the **subperiosteal plane**
238
Coronal brow lift is performed in the ___ plane.
Coronal brow lift is performed in the **subgaleal plane**
239
Direct and Indirect brow lifts are performed in the ___ plane.
Direct and Indirect brow lifts are performed in the **subcutaneous plane**
240
Both Orbital apex syndrome + Superior orbital fissure syndrome can cause deficits in CN III, IV, VI, and VI, but only _____ will also have an optic nerve deficit.
Both Orbital apex syndrome + Superior orbital fissure syndrome can cause deficits in CN III, IV, VI, and VI, but only **Orbital Apex Syndrome** will also have an optic nerve deficit.
241
Injection of the eyebrow depressors muscles (_____) w/botox will result in brow elevation.
Eyebrow depressor muscles:
* corrugator supercilii
* depressor supercilii
* procerus
* orbicularis oculi
*(Frontalis injection limits brow elevation that can occur b/c it is the major brow elevator, thusunopposed pull from the other muscles will not be enough to noticeably raise brows)*
242
The frontal branch of the FN is on the ___ of the temporoparietal fascia (TPF).
The frontal branch of the FN is on the **under-surface of the TPF**.
243
The female eyebrow should begin at the medial canthus just ___ to the brow ridge, should cross the rim at the mid-pupillary line and peak above the rim at the level of the lateral limbus or the junction of the middle and lateral thirds of the brow.
The female eyebrow should begin at the medial canthus just **inferior** to the brow ridge, should cross the rim at the mid-pupillary line and peak above the rim at the level of the lateral limbus or the junction of the middle and lateral thirds of the brow.
244
The female eyebrow should begin at the medial canthus just inferior to the brow ridge, should cross the rim at the ___ and peak above the rim at the level of the ___ or the junction of the middle and lateral thirds of the brow.
The female eyebrow should begin at the medial canthus just inferior to the brow ridge, should cross the rim at the **mid-pupillary line** and peak above the rim at the level of the **lateral limbus** or the junction of the middle and lateral thirds of the brow.
245
The female eyebrow should begin at the medial canthus just inferior to the brow ridge, should cross the rim at the mid-pupillary line and peak above the rim at the level of the lateral limbus or the junction of the ___ of the brow.
The female eyebrow should begin at the medial canthus just inferior to the brow ridge, should cross the rim at the mid-pupillary line and peak above the rim at the level of the lateral limbus or the junction of the **middle and lateral thirds of the brow**.
246
The midfacial degloving technique involves ___, b/l intercartilagenous, and sublabial incisions.
The midfacial degloving technique involves **full transfixion**, b/l intercartilagenous, and sublabial incisions.
247
The midfacial degloving technique involves full transfixion, b/l ___, and sublabial incisions.
The midfacial degloving technique involves full transfixion, **b/l intercartilagenous**, and sublabial incisions.
248
The midfacial degloving technique involves full transfixion, b/l intercartilagenous, and ___ incisions.
The midfacial degloving technique involves full transfixion, b/l intercartilagenous, and **sublabial incisions**.
249
Nasal tip defects **< 1.5cm** in size and at least 5mm from the alar rim are excellent candidates for bilobed flap reconstruction.
Nasal tip defects < 1.5cm in size and at least 5mm from the alar rim are excellent candidates for **bilobed flap reconstruction**.
250
Nasal tip defects **> 1.5cm** in size and at least 5mm from the alar rim are excellent candidates for ___ reconstruction.
Nasal tip defects > 1.5cm in size are good candidates for **paramedian forehead flap reconstruction**.
251
The ___ nerve is at greatest risk for injury during a rhytidectomy.
The **great auricular nerve** is at greatest risk for injury during a rhytidectomy.
252
If there is evidence of tissue implant extrusion, tissue inflation *may/may not* proceed.
If there is evidence of tissue implant extrusion, tissue inflation **may** proceed.
253
What type of flap is depicted?
**Transposition flap (rhomboid)**
* *an adjacent piece of tissue is rotated to fill a defect, leaving a second defect to be closed at the original donor site.*
254
Septal quilting sutures, compared to nasal packing or septal splinting, ***do/do not*** have an increased risk of septal hematoma or synechiae formation.
Septal quilting sutures, compared to nasal packing or septal splinting, **do not** have an increased risk of septal hematoma or synechiae formation.
255
Amateur tattoos require ***less/fewer*** treatments than professional tattoos b/c the ink is applied more superficially.
Amateur tattoos require **fewer** treatments than professional tattoos b/c the ink is applied more superficially.
256
The difference btwn the deep-plane rhytidectomy and the composite rhytidectomy is that the *composite rhytidectomy* incorporates the ___ muscle.
The difference btwn the deep-plane rhytidectomy and the composite rhytidectomy is that the *composite rhytidectomy* incorporates the **orbicularis oculi** muscle.
*the deep-plane was designed to reposition the malar fat pad to address the mid-face and nasolabial bolds*
257
If the surgeon desires to perform an auto-spreader graft technique to increase patency of the internal nasal valve during septorhinoplasty, which cartilage is utilized?
**Upper lateral cartilage** (ULC)
*the graft separates the ULC from the septum, infolding the ULC medially, and suturing the ULC to the septum*
258
The most commonly injured nerve during facelift is the ___ nerve.
Great auricular nerve
259
Ideal patients for rhytidectomy have:
* ___
* ___
* ___
Ideal patients for rhytidectomy have:
* moderately thick skin
* minimal sun damage
* retained elasticity of the skin
260
Patients w/strong bony features, particularly prominent cheek bones (malar prominences), and a forward chin are ***good/poor*** candidates for facelift.
Patients w/strong bony features, particularly prominent cheek bones (malar prominences), and a forward chin are **good** candidates for facelift.
261
Anterior table frontal sinus fractures can cause ___ if the nasofrontal recess is obstructed.
mucoceles
262
How much negative pressure is required to perform cervicofacial liposuction?
1 atm
263
The most complication of otoplasty is ___.
Unsatisfactory aesthetic outcomes
264
The incision for submental liposuction should be __ than the largest cannula to avoid friction burn injury to the skin.
The incision for submental liposuction should be **larger** than the largest cannula to avoid friction burn injury to the skin.
265
At 1 week, the tensile strength of a wound is __%.
3%
266
Around 5 weeks, the tensile strength of a wound is __%.
50%
267
After the remodeling phase is complete, the scar reaches its maximal tensile strenght of ___% of that of normal tissue.
70-80%
268
_____ is associated w/an abnormally distal insertion of the anti-tragus muscle *that extends along the anterior surface of the ear* from the antitragus to the antihelix, pulling the helix laterally during development.
Prominauris
269
A small chin is referred to as ___.
Microgenia
270
To increase flap rotation, the ___ incision is carried more inferiorly in order to lower and rotate the pivot point.
To increase flap rotation, the **medial incision** is carried more inferiorly in order to lower and rotate the pivot point.
271
The osteocutaneous FFF for mandibular recon has ___cm of bone available for harvest.
25 cm
272
A _____ is a condition where the orbital rim falls posterior to the anterior convexity of the cornea.
A **negative vector** is a condition where the orbital rim falls posterior to the anterior convexity of the cornea.
273
For recon of scalp defects, an expander w/a base width of ___ times the width of the defect is needed.
For recon of scalp defects, an expander w/a base width of **2.5 times the width** of the defect is needed.
274
___, non-tender small white pearls superficially under the skin, are normal following skin resurfacing procedures.
Milia
275
The main blood supply to the temporalis muscle flap is the ___.
anterior and posterior branches of the deep temporal artery.
276
Crumley's method, Goode's method, the Frankfort horizontal plane, and nasofacial angle are all helpful methods to determine _____.
Crumley's method, Goode's method, the Frankfort horizontal plane, and nasofacial angle are all helpful methods to determine** nasal projection**.
277
The ___ subtype is most agressive of basal cell carcinoma.
Sclerosing (morpheaform) variant
