Boards Flashcards

1
Q

Front

A

Back

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2
Q

AED with adverse effects of aplastic anemia and idiosyncratic liver failure

A

Felbamate

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3
Q

AED associated with encephalopathy

A

Tiagabine

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4
Q

AED used for absence seizures and well-tolerated

A

Ethosuximide

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5
Q

Alcohol use biomarker that can detect use over a 3-week period

A

Phosphatidyl ethanol (PEth)

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6
Q

Alcohol use biomarker detectable in blood for up to 36 hours

A

Ethyl glucuronide (EtG)

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7
Q

Alcohol use biomarker detectable for a short period (up to 48 hours)

A

Ethyl succinate (EtS)

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8
Q

Superior biomarker for moderate to heavy alcohol consumption

A

Carbohydrate-deficient transferrin (CDT)

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9
Q

Three α-Synucleinopathies

A

Neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies, multiple system atrophy (MSA), Parkinson’s disease

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10
Q

Criteria for neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies

A

Neurocognitive dysfunction + at least 2 of: fluctuating cognition, recurrent visual hallucinations, REM sleep behavior disorder, Parkinson symptoms

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11
Q

Which Aβ peptide is more prone to aggregation and possibly more pathogenic in Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Aβ1-42

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12
Q

Legal insanity rule requiring the defendant to have no idea what they did or can’t tell right from wrong

A

M’Naghten rule

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13
Q

Standard for legal insanity set by the American Law Institute Model Penal Code

A

Lacks substantial capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of conduct

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14
Q

Secondary vesicle that gives rise to the cerebral hemispheres and Globus pallidus

A

Telencephalon

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15
Q

Secondary vesicle that develops into the thalamus and hypothalamus

A

Diencephalon

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16
Q

AED that is cleared by the kidney unchanged

A

Topiramate

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17
Q

How is the CIWA-AR scored?

A

10 symptoms scored from 0 to 7, total score indicates severity of withdrawal

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18
Q

Range of CIWA-AR scores indicating severe alcohol withdrawal

A

15 or more

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19
Q

Effect of ECT on seizure threshold

A

Increases seizure threshold

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20
Q

EEG change associated with barbiturates or benzodiazepines

A

Increased beta activity

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21
Q

EEG change associated with opioids

A

Decreased alpha activity

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22
Q

EEG change associated with alcohol

A

Increased theta activity

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23
Q

Pathophysiology of PTSD

A

Disturbed amygdala–prefrontal cortex circuitry function during face emotion processing

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24
Q

Pathophysiology of schizophrenia

A

Impairment in excitation-inhibitory balance due to altered NMDA receptor signaling

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25
Presentation of SIADH
Hyponatremia, low serum osmolality, high urine osmolality, concentrated urine
26
Erikson's stage for ages 12 to 18
Identity vs. Role Confusion
27
Nerve conduction process responsible for the absolute refractory period
Inactivation of Na+ channels
28
Sleep disturbance in major depressive disorder
Decreased REM latency, increased REM sleep
29
EEG characteristics of Stage N3 sleep
Delta waves, low frequency (0.5-2 Hz), high amplitude
30
Peak time for heroin withdrawal symptoms
36 to 72 hours after cessation
31
12-month prevalence of GAD in adults in the US
2.90%
32
FDA-approved medications for Tourette disorder
Haloperidol, aripiprazole, pimozide
33
Lifetime prevalence of mental disorders in adolescents according to NCS-A
49.50%
34
Posttranslational modification that increases or decreases protein functional activity
Phosphorylation
35
Posttranscriptional modification that stabilizes mRNA and helps its exit from the nucleus
Addition of poly-A tail
36
Spinal cord syndrome characterized by variable quadriparesis
Central cord syndrome
37
Spinal cord syndrome with loss of contralateral pain and temperature below the lesion
Brown-Sequard syndrome
38
Behavioral health screening tool for adolescents
CRAFFT (Car, Relax, Alone, Forget, Friends, Trouble)
39
4-item screening questionnaire for problem drinking
CAGE (Cut down, annoyed, guilty, eye-opener)
40
Measures signs and symptoms during narcotic withdrawal
CINA (Clinical Institute Narcotic Assessment)
41
Benzodiazepine with rapid absorption and 17-hour half-life
Estazolam
42
Benzodiazepine with rapid absorption and 100-hour half-life
Flurazepam
43
Benzodiazepine with slow absorption and 8-hour half-life
Oxazepam
44
Benzodiazepine with medium absorption and 11-hour half-life
Temazepam
45
Benzodiazepine with rapid absorption and 2-hour half-life
Triazolam
46
Benzodiazepines best used in severe hepatic compromise
Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam (metabolized by glucuronidation)
47
What is the major active metabolite of caffeine that mediates its psychostimulant effect?
Paraxanthines (84% of caffeine metabolites)
48
How do polymorphisms of the gene that encodes P-450 2D6 affect codeine use?
Provide protection against nonmedical use by modulating accumulation of toxic metabolites, serving as a negative stimulus
49
AED with adverse effects of agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia
Carbamazepine
50
Polyuria
polydipsia
51
Polyuria
polydipsia
52
Water retention
hyponatremia
53
How does a mutation in CHNRA5 gene affect the nicotine receptor and carrier?
Decreases sensitivity to nicotine, increases risk of nicotine use disorder
54
Changes in serotonin receptors in suicidal behavior
Increased 5-HT1A and 5-HT2A receptor expression in prefrontal cortex; increased 5-HT2A receptor protein expression in prefrontal cortex and hippocampus
55
Reason for serotonin receptor changes in suicidal behavior
Compensatory mechanism for decreased serotonin activity of neurons
56
Changes in adrenergic receptors in suicidal behavior
Increased β-adrenergic binding; increased α2-adrenergic receptor densities and protein expression in hypothalamus and frontal cortex
57
Changes in glutamate receptors in suicidal behavior
Increased AMPA receptors in caudate nucleus
58
Reason for glutamate receptor changes in suicidal behavior
Likely a compensatory mechanism for low glutamate levels
59
Changes in opioid receptors in suicidal behavior
Decreased density of μ-opioid receptors in frontal and temporal cortex
60
Changes in muscarinic receptors in suicidal behavior
Increased binding of M1 and M4 muscarinic receptors in anterior cingulate cortex
61
Oscillations of inhibitory thalamic reticular neurons and excitatory thalamocortical and corticothalamic neurons - EEG pattern of what kind of seizures
Absence
62
Chronic megaloblastic anemia, neurological changes (peripheral nerves, spinal cord, brain), mental changes (apathy, depression, irritability, moodiness), encephalopathy, delirium, delusions, hallucinations, neurocognitive disorder
Cobalamin deficiency (vitamin B12)
63
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome: amnesia, neurocognitive disorder, cerebellar degeneration, nystagmus, ocular-motor paresis
Thiamine (B1) deficiency
64
Pellagra neurocognitive disorder, dermatitis, diarrhea
Niacin (B3) deficiency
65
Seizures and psychosis
Pyridoxine (B6) deficiency
66
Scurvy
Vitamin C deficiency
67
Treatment for methemoglobinemia caused by nitrite exposure
Methylene blue
68
Treatment for arrhythmias following inhalant use
Propranolol
69
Treatment for chronic toluene inhalation presenting with hypokalemia
Sodium bicarbonate
70
Treatment for acute inhalant intoxication presenting with ventricular arrhythmias
Amiodarone
71
Mainstay of treatment for lithium-induced NDI
Amiloride
72
Cerebellar changes in patients with ASD
Reduction in number or atrophy of Purkinje cells, mostly affecting posterolateral neocerebellar cortex and adjacent archicerebellar cortex
73
fMRI finding associated with OCD
Hyperactivity in the caudate
74
Mutations in the MECP2 gene located on the X chromosome; can arise sporadically or from germline mutations
Rett syndrome
75
In chronic addiction
the switch from _______ to _______ -based efferent from the prefrontal cortex to the nucleus accumbens is a hallmark change
76
Criteria for Persistent (Chronic) Motor or Vocal Tic Disorder
Single or multiple motor or vocal tics, with the same age and time parameters as Tourette's disorder
77
Criteria for Tourette's Disorder
Multiple motor and one or more vocal tics present at some time during the illness, persisting for more than one year, with onset younger than 18 years of age
78
Criteria for Provisional Tic Disorder
Presence of a single tic or multiple motor and/or vocal tics, present for less than 1 year since the first tic onset