Boards Study Flashcards

Question

Cell bodies of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons that regulate the pupillary dilation are located in the:

Answer 1

Intermediolateral nucleus

Answer 2

Photoreceptor, bipolar cell, ganglion cell

Answer 3

Retinal ganglion cells

Answer 4

Parasympathetic nucleus of oculomotor nerve

Answer 5

vertebral nerve supplies C3-C8 C1-2 comes off of cranial cervical ganglia

Answer 6

It’s a glioma that’s involving at least three different lobes of the brain, often bilaterally

Answer 7

Gemistocytes

Answer 8

Gemistocytic astrocytoma Often low grade, eosinophilic appearance with peripheral nuclei

Answer 9

25% into the cranial and caudal vertebral body, 50% for height, and 50-67% depth

Answer 10

Complete recovery was documented following medical (36/119, 30.3%) or surgical (83/119, 69.7%) management of initial cervical disc extrusion. There was a recurrence of consistent clinical signs in 40 of 119 (34%) cases, of which 27 of 83 (33%) were initially managed surgically and 13 of 36 (36%) medically. Recurrence most likely to occur within 2 years of treatment, in medically treated cases at the original site and in surgically treated cases at a different site

Answer 11

Caudal vertebral segment displacement was mostly dorsal in cats; mostly ventral in dogs Degree of dislocation and axis deviation were both significantly associated with a worse outcome in dogs; NOT IN CATS

Answer 12

Smooth Fox Terrier JRT Mini Smooth Dachshund Springer Spaniel Brahman Calves Gammel Dansk Honsehund- presynaptic

Answer 13

Thyroid testing (dogs)

Answer 14

Cats- somali and abyssian Dogs- Newfoundland and Great Dane

Answer 15

Diffuse white matter oligodendroglial dysplasia Onset at 1-2 years old, UMN pelvic limbs --> progressive to thoracic limbs Disorder of paranodal myelin Whorls of hypertrophic oligodendroglial cell membrane and cytoplasm developing at the nodes of Ranvier

Answer 16

Young = disco Old = lymphosarcoma Young calves: disco= hematogenous, bacterial Abscess Hepatic encephalomyelopathy (PSS) Lymphoma- enzootic form of lymphosarcoma caused by BLV usually >4yo

Answer 17

1. Change in nuclei of astrocytes; reaction to increased levels of circulating ammonia- Alzheimer astrocytes 2. fluid accumulation within the myelin lamellae --> dilation of myelin sheaths --> polymicro cavitation

Answer 18

D1 stimulation Increase in glutamatergic activity Release of the thalamus from inhibition --> promotion of movement

Answer 19

Vagus stimulation --> GVA stimulation --> synapse in solitary nucleus --> subcortical and cortical connection - stimulation leads to interruption of seizure activation

Answer 20

AKA Krabbe Affects WHWT and Cairn Terriers Deficiency in lyososmal enzyme galactosylceramidase 1 --> accumulation of psychosine (toxic to oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells) *Neurons appear normal (not enlarged as in most inherited enzyme disorders affective lysosomal degraditve enzymes - usually results in accumulation of substrate in neuron --> enlargement of neuronal cell bodies) Globoid cells= macrophages filled with phagocytized myelin remnants Onset: 3-7 months old, T3-L3 myelopathy --> cervical and cerebellar MRI findings include mild hydrocephalus, increased signal intensity in the corpus callosum on T1-W images, bilaterally symmetric increased signal intensity of the corpus callosum, centrum semiovale, internal capsule, corona radiata and cerebellar white matter on T2-W images, and symmetric enhancement of the corpus callosum, internal capsule, and corona radiata after administration of gadolinium

Answer 21

30 minutes

Answer 22

pathophys: neurotrasmitter release/imbalance ion channel opening/closing treatment response: likely responsive to first line treatment First line treatment= IN midazolam out of hospital IV midazolam in hospital same for cats and dogs

Answer 23

pathophys: GABAaR decrease Internalization of GABAaR subunits NMDAR & AMPAR upregulation treatment response: progressively less responsive to first line treatment Likely responsive to second line treatment

Answer 24

pathophys: Excitatory and inhibitory neuropeptides release/imbalance +/-BBB drug transporter upregulation treatment response: likely minimally to non-responsive to first and second line treatment likely responsive to third line treatment

Answer 25

pathophys: Gene expression alteration treatment response: likely minimally to non-responsive to first, second or third line treamtent

Answer 26

In the case of recurrent SE or SE that does not cease after the first bolus, a second bolus of BZD should be administered after a minimum 2-minute interval. If seizures persist after 2 BZD boluses, then (i) in case of recurrent SE, administration of another BZD bolus for third seizure followed immediately by a BZD IV CRI should be instituted, and (ii) if SE does not cease, a final BZD bolus should be administered followed by second-line interventions.

Answer 27

Keppra, pheno, fosphenytoin Can also admin earlier regardless of response to first line treatment Pheno= recommendation A Keppra= IV B (dogs and cats) fosphenytoin= B dogs Keppra- IM or R

Answer 28

Step 1: Ketamine IV bolus followed by CRI Dexmed IV bolus and CRI Step 2: Propofol IV bolus +/- CRI- monitor CBC in cats Step 3: Anesthetic barbituates (pentobarbital or sodium thiopental) IV bolus and CRI Step 4: Inhalational anesthesia

Answer 29

Axis- accounts for 50% of cervvical fractures 15% present with pain only Cervical region permits movement in all planes, including torsion

Answer 30

TL junction (T10-L2), accounts for 50% of all spinal fractures in cats and dogs Reasons: Vertebral articular facets change direction within this region- from ventrodorsal in thoracic area to sagittal in lumbar area, which is liable to increase susceptibility to fracture/luxation Congenital anomalies of articular facets in this region Location between rigid thoracic spine and well-muscled (therfore relatively rigid) lumbar spine

Answer 31

Almost exclusively sagittal plane/bending (extension/flexion) Caudal lumbar area transmits propulsive forces from PL --> predominantly cause traction and compression of vertebrae

Answer 32

The dorsal column consists of the laminae, spinous processes, and their associated ligaments. The middle column consists of the dorsal longitudinal ligament, dorsal annulus, and dorsal cortex of the vertebral bodies. The ventral column consists of the ventral longitudinal ligament, ventral annulus, and ventral cortex of the vertebral bodies.

Answer 33

3 fixation points on each of at least 5 vertebrae

Answer 34

40-45 degrees Tubercle of rib and base of accessory process= landmarks

Answer 35

55-65 degrees Landmarks= junction between pedicle and transverse process

Answer 36

0-20 Ideally L7= 20 and S1= 0 (From vertical) Landmarks: L7= Caudal to the base of the cranial articular process S1= Fossa caudo-medial to the articular process of L7-S1

Answer 37

generally displaced cranially and ventrally.

Answer 38

When using eight‐pin constructs, further stability is provided by angling pins away from the area being stabilized; however, with fourpin constructs, pins should be angled toward the site to provide optimal stability

Answer 39

MNCV is normal, decreased M waves

Answer 40

Increases responsiveness to GABA Decreases glutamate affects Decreases calcium influx into neuron GABAa receptor

Answer 41

Opioids serotonin Alpha 2 adrenergic Gaba B Presynaptically- decrease neurotransmitters Postsynaptically- hyperpolarization of membrane

Answer 42

Has interneurons (basket cells) and astrocytes, relatively hypocellular

Answer 43

Round cell- preservation of vertebral shape homogenous contrast enhancement lesion centering on bone more likely to have cortical sparing more likely to have preservation of overall shape more likely to have small soft tissue size Mesenchymal Altered vertebral shape heterogenous contrast enhancement lesion centering on paraspinal soft tissues Epithelial and mesenchymal neoplasia more likely to have cortical lysis, a cavitary component to soft tissue mass and medium to large soft tissue mass size

Answer 44

bilaterally symmetric T2 hyperintensity of the cortical gray/white matter junction of the parietal and frontal lobes, T2 hyperintensity of the arbor vitae of the cerebellum with partial loss of cerebellar cortical gray/white matter demarcation, subtle focal T2 hyperintensity of the pons, and meningeal contrast enhancement

Answer 45

Territorial infarcts occur when one of the main arteries supplying the brain is occluded. Lacunar infarcts are defined as subcortical infarcts limited to the vascular territory of an intraparenchymal superficial or deep perforating artery. Small-breed dogs are more likely to have territorial cerebellar infarcts, and large-breed dogs are more likely to have lacunar thalamic or midbrain infarcts CKCS and Greyhounds may be predisposed to infarcts

Answer 46

within minutes Restricted diffusion (impairment of normal Brownian motion) occurs secondary to failure of the cell membrane ion pump and subsequent cytotoxic edema. This appears as marked hyperintensity on DWI, and hypointensity on a synthesized apparent diffusion coefficient (ADC) map derived from 2 or more DWI.62 On conventional MRI sequences, changes will be apparent within 12 to 24 hours of onset. Although MRI findings in ischemic stroke may be similar to changes seen with other brain parenchymal diseases, certain distinguishing characteristics exist (Fig. 5).52, 53, 60, 63, 64, 65 An ischemic infarct appears as a homogeneous T2 hyperintense area with sharp demarcation between affected and nonaffected parenchyma, and minimal to no mass effect. Lesions are typically confined to gray matter, but may involve white matter in severe cases.65 Faint diffuse or peripheral contrast enhancement may be noted and has been reported in patients imaged between 1 and 45 days post-onset of neurologic signs.60 Re-perfusion injury of an ischemic infarct can occur, resulting in hemorrhagic infarction.

Answer 47

Hemorrhage in areas with high ambient oxygen (ventricles; epidural, subdural, and subarachnoid space) “ages” more slowly than parenchymal or neoplastic hematomas, with a resultant change in time course of degradation

Answer 48

Epidural hemorrhage assumes a focal biconvex configuration that may cross dural folds, such as falx and tentorium, but not sutures Subdural hemorrhage appears as a peripheral crescent-shaped collection of blood that may cross suture lines but is limited by the falx cerebri and tentorium cerebelli.

Answer 49

syndrome of cerebral infarction affecting adult cats, which is attributed to aberrant Cuterebra spp larval migration in the brain and toxin release by the parasites chronic FIE include asymmetry of the cerebral hemispheres and bilateral symmetric enlargement of the subarachnoid space over the temporal lobes in areas supplied by the middle cerebral artery MRI-detectable histopathologic lesions include parasitic tracks, superficial laminar cerebrocortical necrosis, cerebral infarction, subependymal rarefaction and astrogliosis, and subpial astrogliosis.73

Answer 50

Excessive neuronal accumulation of ganglioside MRI findings: Gm2-gangliosidoses- mild cerebral atrophy and bilaterally symmetric T2 hyperintesnity and T1 hypointensity to the caudate nucleus without contrast enhancement GM1 gangliosidoses- relative increase in gray matter and abnormal signal intesnsity of cerebral and cerebellar white matter on T2

Answer 51

Characterized by abnormal accumulation of lipoprotein pigment within cellular lysosomes Fluorescent material accumulates within neurons MRI: dilation of cerebral sulci and cerebellar fissures and ventriculomegaly

Answer 52

decrease in ADC values of white and gray matter and an increase in T2 values of white matter have been reported, corresponding to neuronal swelling, abnormal myelin, and astrogliosis

Answer 53

glycosaminoglycan

Answer 54

Staffies MRI findings: bilaterally symmetric, diffuse regions of gray matter hyperintensity on T2-W images, and T1-W hypointensity most prominent in the thalamus, hypothalamus, dentate nucleus, basal ganglia, dorsal brainstem, cerebellar nuclei, and cerebellar gyri

Answer 55

Mitochondrial encephalopathy Australian cattle dogs Alaskan Huskies Similar disease in English springer spaniels, Yorkies and cats MRI findings in hereditary polioencephalomyelopathy in an Australian cattle dog included bilaterally symmetric abnormalities in areas corresponding to the interposital nuclei in the cerebellum and the vestibular nuclei in the medulla, and in areas corresponding to the dorsal nuclei of the trapezoid body, pontine nuclei, caudal colliculi, and the dorsolateral reticular formation.91 Lesions were isointense or hypointense on T1-W images, hyperintense on T2-W images, did not have a mass effect, and did not show evidence of contrast enhancement. MRI examination in an Alaskan husky with subacute necrotizing encephalopathy revealed bilateral cavitation extending from the thalamus to the medulla, with less-pronounced degenerative lesions in the caudate nucleus, putamen, and claustrum

Answer 56

Labradors affected Primarily white matter diseases Large, bilaterally symmetric T2 hyperintense and T1 hypointense non-enhancing lesiosn in the region of the deep cerebellar nuclei and smaller lesions within the thalamus ventromedial to the lateral ventricles

Answer 57

No; often leptomeningeal nodulels, can be more homongenous and less contrast enhancing, some dogs had rostral horn signal changes mets generally in direction of CSF flow mets can be seen as widespread extra-axial contrast enhancement https://www.frontiersin.org/journals/veterinary-science/articles/10.3389/fvets.2021.650320/full

Answer 58

Up to 60 on regional axons

Answer 59

Schwann cells, each cell contributes only one internode

Answer 60

Acidophilic neuronal necrosi

Answer 61

Prion diseases: Scrapie Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy Empty cytoplasmic vacuoles in the neuronal cell body and its processes *This may be incidental in normal cattle- in red nucleus

Answer 62

Rabies virus (cerebellum) Multiple intraneuronal intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies (Negri bodies) in Purkinje cells

Answer 63

Sheep with scrapie Brainstem with multiple intracytoplasmic intraneuronal vacuoles

Answer 64

Central chromatolysis (perineuclear dispersion of Nissl substance) Commonly seen in LMN of ruminants with with postnatally acquired copper deficeincy Result of retrograde axonal reaction to nerve root injury (i.e. brachial plexus avulsion( *CN nuclei (V, VII in normal circumstances only have a peripheral rim of Nissl substance but a centrally placed nucleus)

Answer 65

acidophilic neuronal necrosis cerebral cortex hippocampus Purkinje. cells

Answer 66

Bcl2 and caspases

Answer 67

Microglial nodules- which remove degenerated neurons (neuronophagia)

Answer 68

Perivascular cuffing neuronal degeneration/necrosis microglial nodules

Answer 69

early axonal injury

Answer 70

Intrinsic dysfunction in oligodendrocytes with formation of unstable myelin vs demyelination= where there is an acquired lesion affecting myelin from normal oligodendrocytes

Answer 71

Intercellular hemostasis of ions, glutamine and neurotransmitters, detoxification of oxidants and ammonia. Insulate and isolate white matter tracts. Involved in inflammatory and immune responses, expression of cytokines, growth factors and adhesion molecules. Provide intrinsic structural support and guidance for fetal brain development Form glia limitans and perivascular foot processes Morphologically = protoplasmic in gray matter fibrillary in white matter

Answer 72

Funquist B Modified dorsal laminectomy Funquist A Deep dorsal laminectomy Funkquist B Method Funkquist B dorsal laminectomy involves removal of the spinous process and dorsal lamina. Both cranial and caudal articular processes are preserved. This technique allows limited access to the vertebral canal (Figure 24.2B) [13–15]. Modified Dorsal Laminectomy The modified dorsal laminectomy, the most commonly used technique, involves the removal of an amount of lamina intermediate between Funkquist A and Funkquist B, with preservation of the cranial articular processes but removal of the caudal articular processes Funkquist A Method Funkquist A dorsal laminectomy involves removal of the spinous process, cranial and caudal articular processes, dorsal laminae, and pedicle to the appropriate height, usually to the level of the spinal cord (Figure 24.2A) [13–15]. Deep Dorsal Laminectomy A deep dorsal laminectomy is performed by removing articular processes, dorsal lamina, and pedicles to the ventral aspect of the vertebral canal. This procedure is rarely performed and not recommended because of the instability created and constrictive laminectomy membrane formation (Figure 24.2D) [8,13].

Answer 73

Cortical have larger resistance to shear due to larger core diameter, both can be used in monocortical fixation

Answer 74

A C1-C2 overlap ≤ +1.55 mm was the most sensitive (100%) and specific (94.5%) radiographic measurement in the diagnosis of atlantoaxial instability the ventral atlantodental interval to dorsal atlantodental interval ratio, the dens/C2 ratio, and the C1-C2 angle may further support diagnosis but may be normal in some cases with AA instability https://europepmc.org/article/med/30014570

Answer 75

Flexed lateral radiographs of thirty dogs affected with AAI were found to be positioned at a mean of 51° flexion. When flexed lateral radiographs were evaluated with a cutoff value for atlas to axis angle (AAA) >10°, evaluation of all breeds represented revealed a 90% sensitivity and 90% specificity. When this cutoff was evaluated in Yorkshire terriers, Chihuahuas, and mixes of these breeds, the sensitivity was 92%, and the specificity was 92%. https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/full/10.1111/vsu.13323?casa_token=cwDKSME79KwAAAAA%3ATfQcyrQlQj2eVK4QqxrvwBOgldtBubqiwVPqaXy9uECxd3OUL0DJN4T-p9MnizQhmf48XwX2Fg0ismk

Answer 76

The VCI, defined as the ratio between the ventral and dorsal atlantodental interval, had the highest sensitivity and specificity in both head positions Cutoff values for the VCI of ≥0.16 in extended and ≥0.2 in flexed head positions were diagnostic for AAI (sensitivity of 100% and 100%, specificity of 94.54% and 96.67%, respectively) VCI= VADI/DADI https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/full/10.1111/vsu.13799

Answer 77

True when the correlation between the total number of concurrent diseases and the age at onset and body weight was examined, it became clear that lower body weight was associated with the incidence of a greater number of concurrent diseases. Thus, the findings of this study suggest that toy-breed dogs are more likely to present with complex malformations and should be evaluated carefully with additional examinations and treatment methods. https://journals.plos.org/plosone/article?id=10.1371/journal.pone.0293363

Answer 78

Hypertrophy= astrocytosis Proliferation= astrogliosis Chronically= fibrillary astrocyte/sclerosis

Answer 79

Phagocytic macrophages, infiltrate malacic tissue to remove cellular debris, axons and myelin Derived from blood-borne monocytes and to a much lesser extent residential microglial cells

Answer 80

weeks to months Chronically reparative attempts with neovascularization and astrogliosis will result in a fibrillary astroglial scar

Answer 81

variably for GFAP consistently for vimentin

Answer 82

After productive viral infection of the choroid plexus epithelium and subsequent dispersion of high titers of infectious viral particles into the CSF Bacteria, protozoa and viruses commonly invade the CNS by infecting the choroid plexus and disseminating within the ventricular system once the integrity of tight junctions between the epithelial cells is compromised

Answer 83

low and high molecular weight cytokeratins the lamina is immunoreactive for collagen IV Neoplastic choroid plexus epithelium variably expresses GFAP

Answer 84

fibroblastic proliferation and fibrous collagenous thickening

Answer 85

Often incidental Mainly in large breed dogs Particularly in cervical and lumbar segments Formation of elongated bony plaques, often containing hematopoietic bone marrow

Answer 86

Occurs in various toxic and metabolic disorders Intracellular accumulation of sodium ions --> fluid retention Effect first appparent in endothelial. cells, then astrocytes, then neurons and oligodendrocytes BBB remains intact histopath shows spongy state with sharply defined vacuoles in the white matter due to intramyelinic edema

Answer 87

vasogenic not cytotoxic vasogenic leads to grossly more brain swelling can occur in combination in ischemia

Answer 88

Increased permeability of the desmosomal junctions between lining ependymal cells of the ventricular system Accumulation of CSF interstitially in the periventricular white matter when the ependymal lining reuptures due to increased intraventricular pressure

Answer 89

small target hemorrhages present in the brainstem and cerebellum secondary to increased intracranial pressure leading to stretching and necrosis of blood vessels

Answer 90

Dysmyelination- degen Leukodystrophy- degenerative Demyelination- inflammation

Answer 91

Fibrinoid leukodystrophy Labradors at risk, identified in a beagle Intracytoplasmic deposits of eosinophilic proteinaceous inclusions in the fibrillary astrocytes called Rosenthal fibers, are the histopathological hallmark of AD Mutations causing a gain of normal or abnormal function of GFAP are causing AD MRI- diffuse, bilateral, T2-weighted and T2-weighted-FLAIR hyperintense, T1-weighted hypointense, noncontrast-enhancing lesions involving the white matter of the cerebellum, brainstem, spinal cord, and forebrain to a lesser extent. There was cerebellar enlargement Normal CSF

Answer 92

Infection or immune mediated inflammation

Answer 93

Edema (vascular) Spongy degeneration (degenerative) Spongiform change (degenerative) Demyelination/axon loss (degenerative) Artifact

Answer 94

Reactive to any insult or caused by a Diffuse neoplasm

Answer 95

Caused by storage diseases (degenerative)

Answer 96

Caused by neurodegeneration or toxin, deficiency

Answer 97

Caused by Dysmyelination (degen) Infection (inflamm) Neurodegen (degen) Toxin/deficiency (metabolic/toxic)

Answer 98

Parenchyma - shorter T2 relaxation compared to CSF, leads to high CSF signal long T2 relaxation= bright Increased water content- prolongation of T2 relaxation times- lesions are more hyperintense Iron containing structures (basal nuclei and brainstem/cerebellar nuclei) are relatively T2 hyperintense Fluid has a long T2 relaxation time and, therefore, is hyperintense on T2W images. Soft tissues have intermediate T2 relaxation times. Fat has a short T2 relaxation time and appears hypointense on conventional spin echo (SE) T2W images. However, as conventional T2W SE sequences have largely been replaced with shorter fast spin echo (FSE) or turbo spin echo (TSE) sequences in which additional pulses are applied (see below), fat typically appears hyperintense on today’s T2W MRI studies” Excerpt From: WILFRIED MAI. “Diagnostic MRI in Dogs and Cats”. Apple Books.

Answer 99

Seconds for fluids, tenths of second for soft tissues, fat is short “Fat has a short T1 relaxation time and is hyperintense, while fluid has a long T1 relaxation time and appears hypointense.” Excerpt From: WILFRIED MAI. “Diagnostic MRI in Dogs and Cats”. Apple Books. Short T1 relaxation - bright White matter in brain has more fat due to myelin therefore shorter T1 relaxation time Pathology usually -> increased water content —> prolongation of T1 relaxation times - most pathological change appears T1 hypointense

Answer 100

Characteristic change secondary to circulatory, respiratory disorders or toxins influencing the oxygen content of the blood Cells show a sharply delineated shrunken body with a bright eosinophilic, homogenous cytoplasm “Red and dead neurons”

Answer 101

Penumbra = a rim of tissue in which cerebral blood flow is only partially compromised Damage may be reversible in this area

Answer 102

Epidural= arterial Subdural= venous

Answer 103

AKA osmotic demyelination syndrome a neurological condition that occurs when rapid correction of hyponatremia (low sodium levels) leads to nerve cell damage and the destruction of myelin, the protective sheath around nerve fibers superior longitudinal fasciculus

Answer 104

Can occur in the neurohypophysis combined with meningioma or as primary monomorphic tumors over cerebral hemispheres usually Solid sheets of large polygonal granule cells have an eccentrically placed nucleus with a very granular, eosinophilic, abundant cytoplasm Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) positivity resistant to diastase digestion S-100, ubiquitin and a-1-antitrypsin immunoreactive

Answer 105

T10-L3 Wilms tumor 1 gene/stain positive

Answer 106

Duration of hypoxia ischemic insult Diffuse brainstem involvement MRI changes Rate of neurological recovery

Answer 107

Often occurs at the same site (67%) Dogs with combined form at same site were more likely to have a higher neurologic grade

Answer 108

Equine cerebellar (purkinje cell) axonopathy characterized by abnormal hindlimb movement when walking backwards Degenerative disease

Answer 109

True, male dogs

Answer 110

Trauma- risk of relapse Steroids - risk of progressive neurologic dysfunction

Answer 111

T2 flair mismatch Homogenous hyperintense T2 signal and hypointense signal with hyperintense peripheral rim on FLAIR Microcystic change associated with T2FMM

Answer 112

Male to female ratio 2.2 Median age 10mo, 91% under 3yo EDX supports purely motor axonopathy Histopath supports immune mediated neuropathy Prognosis good to excellent, 28% relapse Similar outcome if treated w steroids, L carnitine or no tx Present w muscle weakness

Answer 113

(F latency − M latency − 1)/(2 × M latency)

Answer 114

It helps transport fatty acids into and out of the mitochondria, mitochondrial myopathies where the fatty acids can’t be processed by the mitochondria, a carnitine deficiency can develop because it’s overwhelmed by all the fat

Answer 115

FIP Lymphoma

Answer 116

Brittany spaniel Wallerian degeneration

Answer 117

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Answer 118

Angiostrongylus vasorum SRMA Good prognosis overall, dependent on cause more than neurologic severity at presentation

Answer 119

Fifteen dogs (58%) survived to hospital discharge. Seven of these dogs received medical management alone (median survival 143 days; range, 7-641 days) and 8 received medications and radiation therapy (median survival 973 days; range, 41-1719 days). Variable endocrine dysfunction (38% lacked evidence of endocrinopathy prior to presentation)

Answer 120

Male goats- worse outcome Presenting with circling- better outcome All other factors- no effect on outcome

Answer 121

Compared to healthy controls, dogs with IE had lower hair phosphorus, higher hair copper, zinc, copper/zinc ratio, selenium, and arsenic Dogs treated with KBr had higher arsenic levels

Answer 122

Concurrent SMS and HC is uncommon, possibly affecting only dogs with PDH. Development of SMS might occur before or after diagnosis of HC. Apart from SMS, the clinical picture and survival time of these dogs seem indistinguishable from those of dogs with HC in general. However, while muscle weakness usually resolves with HC treatment SMS does not.

Answer 123

False- Short-term, prophylactic omeprazole treatment did not decrease clinically detectable GI complications in dogs with acute TL-IVDE.

Answer 124

Moderate-to-marked CE and ring pattern were present in dogs with OG III but not in OG II. The presence of cystic structures, GRE signal voids, and necrosis was strongly associated with OG III

Answer 125

Our results suggest that the presence of bruxism in the awake state associated with other neurological deficits might indicate a forebrain lesion

Answer 126

median 91 days DPN vs median 14 days intact pain perception duration of presurgical anesthesia associated with time to recovery

Answer 127

An absence of hydromyelia was associated a with statistically longer duration of clinical signs (mean 73.1, IQR 76 days) when compared to cases with mild (mean 17.7, IQR 7.25 days, P = .006) or severe (mean 17.9, IQR 10.25 days, P = .006) hydromyelia. Duration of clinical signs <14 days was 78.6% sensitive and 85.7% specific for predicting the presence of hydromyelia

Answer 128

CKCS Clinical signs reported were spontaneous in onset, lasted a few seconds and consisted of rapid blinking with head nodding and variable extension down the thoracic limbs. Myoclonus occasionally led to stumbling of the thoracic limbs or collapse. Mean age of onset was 8.38 years Rhodesian- juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

Answer 129

Dogs with rostrotentorial brain tumors had EPS after 16/125 (12.8%) neurosurgical procedures (95% confidence interval [CI], 7%-19%). Presence of previous structural epilepsy was not associated with EPS risk (P = 1). Perioperative ACD use also was not associated with EPS (P = .06). Dogs with EPS had longer hospitalization (P < .001), were more likely to have neurologic complications postsurgery (P = .01), and were less likely to survive to discharge

Answer 130

Can affect hypoglossal nerve Progressive weakness, dysphonia, excercise intolerance All affected dogs had abnormal wrinkles and grooves on the dorsal surface of the tongue, a clinical sign not described previously in dogs with AMPN. Electromyography of the tongue performed in 2 dogs showed spontaneous activity. Five affected dogs underwent necropsy studies. Histopathology of the tongue showed groups of angular atrophic myofibers and changes in the hypoglossal nerve included thinly myelinated fibers, small onion bulbs, folded myelin, and axonal degeneration. NDRG1

Answer 131

Medial striate artery

Answer 132

Medial- medial striate Lateral- lateral striate Caudal- rostral choroidal artery

Answer 133

Head- Medial striate Dorsal- lateral striate Caudal- rostral choroidal

Answer 134

Medial striate

Answer 135

Rostral choroidal artery

Answer 136

Lateral- rostral choroidal (he usually does caudal portion) Rostromedial/ventromedial- proximal perforating arteries Caudolateral thalamus- distal perforating arteries Caudal/medial/paramedian thalamus- Caudal perforating arteries

Answer 137

Distal perforating arteries

Answer 138

Caudal perforating arteries

Answer 139

Rostral/rostromedial cerebrum- Rostral cerebral artery Lateral cerebrum- Middle cerebral artery Caudo-dorsal/caudo-medial cerebrum- Caudal cerebral artery

Answer 140

Acute, potentially life-threatening hepatopathy associated with oral administration of zonisamide to dogs is estimated to occur in less than 1% of dogs and was observed in the first 3 weeks of treatment. Subclinical abnormalities in ALT and ALP activity were noted in <10% of dogs during chronic administration of zonisamide, with no clinical signs of liver disease noted.

Answer 141

Yes A discriminating radial CMAP amplitude threshold value of 5 mV had a specificity of 93% (Higher= better)

Answer 142

76% dogs responders with a 55% seizure freedom rate

Answer 143

82% dogs responsders with 30% seizure freedom

Answer 144

A 24.1% decrease in seizure days occurred in dogs receiving CBD and a 5.8% increase occurred in dogs receiving placebo (P ≤ .05). No significant difference was found in the number of responders (≥50% decrease in total seizures or seizure days)

Answer 145

Dogs that developed PMM had significantly higher serum pNF-H concentrations after surgery compared to all other cohorts at 24 hours: 39.88 ng/mL (25.74-50.68 ng/mL); P < .05 and 72 hours: 223.9 ng/mL (155.4-263.7 ng/mL); P < .05. A serum pNF-H concentration ≥31.39 ng/mL was 83.33% sensitive and 100% specific for identifying PMM in this cohort.

Answer 146

Potassium bromide Reversible

Answer 147

Clinical motor function more predictive of recovery than sensory function Surgery (42%) and trauma (33%) were the most common causes of SNI; in dogs, 24% were caused by bites from wild boars. Ability to flex and extend the tarsus was significantly associated with positive outcome in dogs. Mean time from onset of clinical signs until electrodiagnostic evaluation was 67 ± 65 (range, 7-300) days and 65 ± 108 (range, 7-365) days for dogs and cats, respectively. A cut-off amplitude of 1.45 mV for compound motor action potentials (CMAP) was predictive of positive outcome in dogs (P = .01), with sensitivity of 58% and specificity of 100%. 1.45mV amp cut off= very specific, not very sensitive

Answer 148

>12Hz, occurs in young giant breeds while standing, trouble standing up from sitting position Treatment: pheno, primidone, gaba, pregabalin- usually a partial response

Answer 149

75% accuracy Sensitivity and specificity were moderate to high for all compartments, except sensitivity was poor for the intradural extramedullary compartment

Answer 150

Field (seen by multiple derivations), lag (time difference between derivations), and gradient (different amplitudes between derivations).

Answer 151

Generalized tonic-clonic seizures were the most common presenting sign (25/45). Two lesion categories were identified: a granulomatous form with 1 or more distinct, intra-axial, contrast-enhancing foci (37/45), and a second variation with diffuse, bilateral, symmetrical lesions of the caudate nuclei and frontal lobes (8/45)- Schnauzers predisposed to caudate nuclei variation

Answer 152

Kerry blue terriers Chinese Crested AKA multi system neuronal degeneration AKA Cerebellar cortical abiotrophy

Answer 153

Metabolic rate of α-tocopherol was increased in eNAD/EDM horses, no difference in rate of y-tocopherol metabolism Underlies need for high dose vit E supplementation

Answer 154

Clinical remission in MG is less likely in older dogs and dogs presenting with regurgitation or high initial AChR Ab concentration but more likely in younger dogs and dogs with comorbid endocrine disease.

Answer 155

oligodendrogliomas were associated with smooth margins and T1-weighted hypointensity compared to astrocytomas Oligos more likely to contact ventricles

Answer 156

The facial nerve contains sensory, motor, and parasympathetic fibers and originates in the rostral part of the medulla oblongata.10 Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers synapse with the post-ganglionic fibers at the level of the pterygopalatine ganglion, and the post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers innervate the lacrimal and nictitans glands, lateral and mucosal nasal glands, and palatine glands.10-12 A lesion affecting the preganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers anywhere from the rostral medulla oblongata to the pterygopalatine ganglion can result in neurogenic KCS (NKCS) with ipsilateral xeromycteria and xerostomia.11, 13 Other concurrent neurological deficits may be identified, depending on the nature and location of the lesion. Proximal to the emergence of the major petrosal nerve from the rest of the facial, so it’s gotta be in the middle ear cavity or within the brainstem. It just can’t be distal to the stylomastoid foramen

Answer 157

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers synapse with the post-ganglionic fibers at the level of the pterygopalatine ganglion

Answer 158

Innternal acoustic meatus and the geniculate ganglion, where pre-ganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers are present

Answer 159

Painful CKCS without SM have decreased distance between the termination of the spinal cord and dural sac, suggesting a shorter FTIL. More caudal spinal cord termination is associated with development of lumbar SM.

Answer 160

Serum CRP concentration was significantly more sensitive than were fever and leukocytosis for predicting the presence of diskospondylitis. Serum CRP concentration was more sensitive than neutrophilia and hyperglobulinemia No

Answer 161

Yes, Clinical signs recurred in 33/92 (36%) dogs. Finding a completely degenerate disc in the T10 to L3 region (in addition to the operated site) at the time of surgery was associated with a hazard ratio of 2.92 (95% confidence interval: 1.37-6.20) for recurrence of clinical signs

Answer 162

Gangliosidosis- isointense grey to white matter Figure 10. Sagittal (A) and transverse plane T2-weighted images at the level of the forebrain (B) and cerebellum (C) of a dog with GM2 gangliosidosis. Sagittal (D) and transverse T2-weighted of the forebrain (E,F) of a cat with GM1 gangliosidosis. Similar findings are visible for both patients. There is diffuse hyperintensity of the white matter of the forebrain with subsequent decrease of the normal grey matter/white matter definition. In the cat, this is especially marked at the corona radiata (short black arrows) (F). The changes are also visible affecting the cerebellar white matter of both patients (white arrowheads) (A,C,D).

Answer 163

Osmotic demyelination Dorsal (A) and transverse plane T2-weighted images at the level of the thalamus (B,C) of a dog with presumptive diagnosis of osmotic demyelination syndrome. There are bilateral and symmetric hyperintensities affecting the thalamus (long white arrows) (A–C) and extending into the subthalamus (dashed long white arrows) (C). A specific white matter region located immediately lateral to the internal capsule is also affected, corresponding with the superior longitudinal fasciculus (short black arrows) (B).

Answer 164

Thiamine deficiency Sagittal (A) and transverse plane T2-weighted images of a dog with thiamine deficiency (B–D). Hyperintense lesions are noted affecting the oculomotor nuclei (short white arrows) (A,B); cerebellar nodulus (long white arrows) (A,D); caudal colliculi (black arrows) (C); and vestibular nuclei (dashed white long arrows) (D)

Answer 165

Hypertensive encephalopathy Figure 6. Left parasagittal (A) and transverse T2-weighted images at the level of the parietal (B) and occipital lobes (C) of a dog with hypertensive encephalopathy. Note the bilateral and symmetric hyperintensities of the white matter (short white arrows). Contrary to the feline patient, the changes in this dog do not extend towards the frontal region and there is no associated mass effect.

Answer 166

Feline thiamine deficiency Figure 5. Transverse plane T2-weighted images of a cat with thiamine deficiency at the level of the thalamus (A), midbrain (B), and cerebellum (C). There are bilateral and symmetric hyperintensities affecting multiple deep grey matter nuclei: lateral geniculate (short white arrows), thalamus (long white arrows), and subthalamus (dashed long white arrow) (A); caudal colliculi (white arrowhead) and oculomotor nuclei (black arrowhead) (B); and cerebellar (short black arrows) and vestibular nuclei (long black arrows) (C).

Answer 167

Rostral communicating artery

Answer 168

Feline hypertensive encephalopathy Facilitated diffusion, consistent with vasogenic edema Figure 7. Sagittal T2-weighted image (A) of a cat with hypertensive encephalopathy. Note the associated mass effect with caudal displacement of the midbrain across the tentorium cerebelli (caudal transtentorial herniation) (long white arrow). Transverse plane T2-weighted images showing the white matter hyperintensities (short white arrows) extending from the occipital and parietal lobes (A,B) to the frontal lobes (C). Bilateral and symmetric hyperintensities are also noted affecting the thalamus (short black arrow) (B). Diffusion-weighted (D) and apparent diffusion coefficient (ADC) map images (E) showing facilitated diffusion of the white matter lesions, confirming the vasogenic origin of the oedema.

Answer 169

restricted diffusion- cytotoxic facilitated diffusion- vasogenic

Answer 170

NCL Figure 9. Sagittal (A) and transverse plane T2-weighted images of a dog with neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis (B,C). Note the severe degree of brain and cerebellar atrophy with widening of the cerebral and cerebellar sulci (short white arrows). There is associated thinning of the cortical grey matter as well as diffuse T2W hyperintensity of the white matter resulting in a decreased grey matter/white matter definition.

Answer 171

L2-hydroxyglutaric acid Staffies Figure 12. Transverse plane T2-weighted images of the brain of a dog with L-2-hydroxyglutaric aciduria. Note the diffuse cortical grey matter swelling of the forebrain and cerebellum with increased signal intensity (A–E). There are bilateral and symmetrical lesions affecting the globus pallidus and putamen (long white arrows) (A), thalamus (long white arrow) and subthalamus (dashed long white arrows) (B), oculomotor nuclei (long white arrows) (C), lateral lemniscus (long white arrows) (D) and cerebellar nuclei (long white arrows) and vestibular nuclei (dashed long white arrows) (E). The subcortical white matter is also mildly affected (long black arrows).

Answer 172

Cause= peripheral nerve hyperexcitability 64%= triggered by prompting dogs to move 58%= overtly painful 42% mild discomfort Main cause= hypocalcemia ddx- primary hypoparathyroidism intestinal lymphoma PLE German Shepherds may be overrepresented unknown etiology may be idiopathic vs paroxysmal dyskinesia

Answer 173

High tryptophan diet

Answer 174

Peripheral nerve hyperexcitability CLCN-1 Miniature shnauzer Australian cattle dog JRT Cats

Answer 175

drug administration- propofol phenobarbital

Answer 176

Exercise: scottie cramp Non- exercise induced: neuromyotonia, myoclonus, PNKDS

Answer 177

Canine distemper virus Startle disease (wolfhounds) Hemifacial spasm

Answer 178

Lafora disease NCL feline audiogenic reflex seizures Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy in Rhodesian Rhidgebacks

Answer 179

monosynaptic, inhibitory connection from the putamen to endopeduncular nucleus/ substantia nigra Contains mainly D1 dopamine receptors (lead to increased glutamate activity) Stimulation leads to inhibition/reduction of firing rate in endopendunclear nucleus/substantia nigra--> leads to more inhibition from EPn/SNr on thalamus --> thalamic inhibition frees motor cortex to promote movement Dopamine promotes movement because it excites medium spiny neurons (GABAergic) in this pathway via the D1 receptor Loss of dopaminergic innervation caues hypokinectic movements

Answer 180

D2 receptors (decreased glutamate activity) medium spiny neurons in caudate and putamen send GABAergic neurons --> globus pallidus --> globus pallidus sends GABAergic axons to the subthalamic nucleus --> subthalamic nucleus then sends excitatory, glutamatergic axons to the endopenduncular nucleus/substantia nigra --> EPN/SNr in turn inhibitthe VLTN and pedunculopontine tegmental nucleus STimulation of this pathway leads to increased excitation of subthalamic nucleus --> increased inhibition from EPN/SNR --> projections --> dopamine inhibits movement via D2 receptor Diseases affecting indirect pathway lead to hyperkinectic disorders

Answer 181

It is rhythmic spontaneous motor unit action potentials that alternate between agonist and antagonist muscles. The frequency can vary from patient to patient, but typically is set for the individual patient

Answer 182

Regulated by nigrostriatal dopaminergic neurons and is excitatory (glutaminergic) to caudate and putamen, activating mainly GABAergic medium spiny neurons GABAergic medium spiny neurons connect directly to main output structures of BN= the EPN and SNr

Answer 183

Keppra first line- increase dose if chronic pheno use Clorazepate or clonazepam- dogs only (second line) Pheno can be administer IV, IM or PO after every isolated seizure in cases with epilepsy at a minimum of 1 hour intervals to a maximum of 3x in a 24hr period

Answer 184

Presence and extent of intramedullary T2 hyperintensity, T2 hypointensity, and attenuation of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) signal on HASTE/T2* sequences have been variably associated with worse locomotor outcome

Answer 185

T2 sagittal and transverse images

Answer 186

It is less accurate in older (>5 years) and smaller dogs (<7 kg)

Answer 187

Extensive spinal cord swelling Infiltration of contrast medium within the spinal cord

Answer 188

Larger dogs Dogs receiving larger intrathecal contrast volumes

Answer 189

T2 sagittal, T2 transverse, HASTE

Answer 190

Recurrence rates for medical management range from 15% to 66%

Answer 191

When neurologic signs are progressive, unimproved, or pain is persistent despite appropriate medical management

Answer 192

Recommend 5-7 days of NSAIDs corticosteroids not indicated in acute TL IVDE short course of corticosteroids may help in chronic cases

Answer 193

0.3 to 0.45 mL/kg with an 8 mL max, and then 200 mg/mL

Answer 194

abscess disco

Answer 195

Frequency of UTI ranges from 0% to 42% in the first postoperative week 17% to 36% in the first 6 weeks 15% at 3 months

Answer 196

24h; should be initiated within 24h to 2 weeks Continue for 2-6 weeks At a minimum should include PROM, massage, assisted standing and walking, cryotherapy (48h cold pack consider 1-4 week warm packing)

Answer 197

Mean CSF attenuation: L2 ration on HASTE <7.4, higher than this indeterminate

Answer 198

Possibly frenchies and lumbar intumescence

Answer 199

Excitatory axons from the L region, the pontine urine storage center, facilitates urine storage through excitatory synaptic connections with nicotinic cholinergic motor neurons of Onuf's nucleus (located in S1 and S2 segments) that innervate the external urethral sphincter via the pudendal nerve The pudendal nerve stimulates the urethral sphincter to remain tightly closed, allowing closure pressure to exceed the bladder pressure during urine storage to maintain continence Pelvic nerve projections also stimulate pathways to maintain continence: sympathetic neurons of the hypogastric nerve to the bladder outlet and pudendal neurons to the external urethral sphincter. Preganglionic sympathetic neurons to the bladder are in the intermediolateral cell column located between L1 and L4 in the dog These preganglionic fibers course as the lumbar splanchnic nerves to synapse with nicotinic cholinergic receptors on the cell bodies of the caudal mesenteric ganglion or within the bladder wall. Postganglionic axons continue as the hypogastric nerve to the pelvic plexus to innervate the inhibitory beta-3 adrenergic receptors of the detrusor muscle and the excitatory alpha-1A adrenergic receptors of the bladder trigone. The net effect of this involuntary process is bladder wall relaxation and urethral sphincter contraction

Answer 200

Urine voiding is an active, voluntary process coordinated by supraspinal centers and parasympathetic transmission. The voiding phase starts when a critical bladder volume has been reached, which triggers a micturition reflex through Aδ afferents that transmit signals from mechanoreceptors in the bladder wall. Afferent signals in the pelvic nerve activate spinal-brainstem-spinal reflex pathways that pass through the periaqueductal gray and the M region of the pontine micturition center, which in turn provides descending output to the sacral spinal nuclei The preganglionic parasympathetic axons course via the pelvic nerve through the ventral branches of the sacral spinal nerves. The pelvic nerve continues to the pelvic plexus and synapses on cell bodies either of postganglionic axons in the pelvic plexus ganglion or within the bladder wall. Mediated by acetylcholine, the M3 receptors, located within the body and neck of the bladder musculature, are involved in excitatory transmission to cause detrusor muscle contraction and urethral relaxation. Under normal conditions, the voluntary voiding phase is initiated if time and place are appropriate. Disruption of connections between muscle fibers and detrusor atony might occur when the bladder is overdistended.

Answer 201

Viremia can infect endothelial cells of the spinal cord Incidence of EHM in infected horses is approx 10% Higher rates in older horses (18 years +)

Answer 202

lymphoreticular system and trigeminal ganglion

Answer 203

ventral hypoplasia

Answer 204

Na and Cl increased after HTS, decreased after Mannitol no diff in acid-base status Ionized calcium was lower after HTS compared to mannitol admin

Answer 205

Characterized by walking with the trunk and pelvic limbs drifting to 1 side Usually observed in older horses. Can have neurologic or musculoskeletal etiologies. Can use electromyography to ddx neuro vs ortho case fatality- 79%

Answer 206

No, a studied performed over 30 months did not identify clinical or MRI progression in a majority of medically or surgically managed osseous CSM cases

Answer 207

Demyelinating polyneueropathy Remain stable over timee- good long term prognosis symptomatic treatment- prevent aspiration pneumonia, may require prokinetics, bethanechol

Answer 208

F wave duration- so much so that a linear regressioni formulated was created- 6+ 2.7*IVDH grade (5=DPN) Minimum latency and conduction velocities were unaffected

Answer 209

27% of dogs experience an adverse event, 88% of which were transient Platelets should be above 185,000 Intracranial hemorrhage observed in 88% of dogs with AE

Answer 210

Possible negative relationship

Answer 211

Holoprosencephaly characterized by an absence or reduction in the size of midline prosencephalic structures (corpus callosum, septum pellucidum, septal nuclei, fornix, and optic nerves), incomplete separation of normally paired forebrain structures (lateral ventricles, cingulate gyri, and caudate nuclei), and hydrocephalus can be subdivided into alobar, semilobar, and lobar HPE. Miniature schnauzers predisposed to lobar HPE Imaging: Best seen in midsagittal MR images. On transverse images, unusually upturned, pointed corners of the lateral ventricles are evident

Answer 212

pituitary cysts containing mucoid or, less commonly, serous fluid and cellular debris appear as cystic lesions in the middle cranial fossa. Imaging: hypointense on T1-W images hyperintense on T2-W images may show mild ring enhancement may not suppress on FLAIR due to composition of fluid

Answer 213

Primary abnormality: The primary abnormality is partial or complete absence of the cerebellar vermis and cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle (in people) Comparable cases of cerebellar vermian aplasia or hypoplasia and associated cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle have been reported in dogs. Possible concurrent findings: generalized ventricular enlargement extension of the cystic fourth ventricle into the supratentorial space with displacement of the occipital lobes reduced size of the cerebellar hemispheres widening and irregular gyrification of cerebral sulci absence of the corpus callosum.

Answer 214

Definition: a disorder of cerebrocortical development resulting in an increased number of small, disorganized gyri in the dorsal and lateral cerebral cortex. Predisposition: Reported in Standard Poodles a hereditary basis is suspected. Imaging: On MRI abnormal gyri are best seen on dorsal T2-W images Concurrent ventriculomegaly is common

Answer 215

Definition/pathophysiology: Benign space-occupying lesions that originate from remnants of ectodermal tissue due to defects of neural tube closure. Location: They are often located in the cerebellopontine angle or the fourth ventricle. Imaging: Signal intensity is variable and dependent on cyst content Cysts with a high lipid content appear hyperintense on T1-W and T2-W images, cysts with lower lipid content appear hypointense on T1-W images and hyperintense on T2-W images. Dermoid cysts containing adnexa (e.g. hair) may show suspended low-intensity foci in all sequences Cysts often contain protein and keratin and therefore do not attenuate on FLAIR (see image) They usually do not show contrast enhancement, although ring enhancement may occasionally be noted.

Answer 216

Intracranial epidermoid cyst associated with the 4th ventricle

Answer 217

Function: Sensory for conscious perception of smell; SVA Location: Telencephalon (part of CNS) Attachment to brain: olfactory bulb Foraminal exit: cribriform plate Composition: Sensory 1. Olfactory epithelium- SVA (special visceral afferent) Cell bodies: olfactory epithelium Distribution: olfactory epithelium Neuro exam: Difficult to assess DDX- rhinitis, neoplasia, infectious (CDV)

Answer 218

Function: Sensory for vision and PLR; SSA Location: Diencephalon (part of CNS) *Part of CNS- meningioma can affect CN II* Attachment to brain: optic chiasm Foraminal exit: optic canal Composition: sensory 1. Retina- SSA (special somatic afferent) Cell bodies: retina Distribution: retina Nucleus= retina nucelus Neuro exam: Menace (II and VII) and PLR (II and III) II= sensory pathway for menace and PLR

Answer 219

Attachment to brain: midbrain Foraminal exit: orbital fissure Composition: Motor 1. GSE- Nuc III 2. GVE- P/s Nuc III Cell bodies: Nucleus III, P/S Nuc III Distribution: Nuc III- > extraocular muscles (dorsal, medial, ventral recti and ventral oblique) + levator palpebrae of upper eyelid P/S Nuc III --> constrictor pupili and ciliary mm. Function: Motor to extraocular muscles (dorsal, medial, ventral recti + ventral oblique) + levator palpebrae of upper eyelid Location: Mesencephalon (midbrain) Anatomy: Nucleus is ventral to mesencephalic aqueduct -> exits ventral to mid=brain between cerebral peduncles -> exits through orbital fissure Neuro exam: Pupil size and PLR (II and III) Physiologic nystagmus

Answer 220

Attachment to brain: Dorsal midbrain Foraminal exit: Orbital fissure Composition: GSE Cell bodies: Nucleus IV Distribution: Dorsal oblique muscle Function: Motor to dorsal oblique muscle of eye Abducts, depresses, and internally rotates eye Location: Mesencephalon (midbrain) Anatomy Cell bodies in trochlear nucleus of caudal mesencephalon -> crosses at trochlear decussation -> leaves cranial cavity through orbital fissure -> innervates dorsal oblique muscle Neuro exam: Lesions may cause a lateral rotation of the pupil (extorsion) (easier seen with vertical pupil)

Answer 221

Attachment to brain: Pons Ophthalmic: sensory Foraminal exit: orbital fissure Composition: GSA Cell bodies: Trigeminal gangliion Distribution: eye region, afferent to lacrimal gland (lacrimal nerve) Maxillary: sensory Foraminal exit: foramen rotundum/ round foramen Composition: GSA Cell bodies: Trigeminal ganglion Distribution: Upper jaw region including teeth Mandibular: mixed Foraminal exit: oval foramen Composition: 1. SVE - Nucleus V- muscles of mastication 2. GSA- lower jaw region including teeth, chin, tongue rostral 2/3 Function: Motor to muscles of mastication, sensory to the face Ophthalmic: Sensory from eyelids, eyeball, nasal mucosa, skin of nose Afferent to lacrimal gland Maxillary: Sensory to superior eyelid, nasal mucosa, superior teeth, superior lip, nose; also innervates lacrimal, nasal, and palatine glands Mandibular: Motor to muscles of mastication (masseter, temporalis, rostral digastricus, pterygoid, mylohyoid); sensory to cheek, tongue, teeth of mandible, skin of head Location: Ventral metencephalon (pons) Anatomy: In pons, exits at cerebellopontine angle -> trigeminal canal of petrosal bone -> oval foramen -> mandibular nerve Neuro exam: Palpebral (V and VII) Medial canthus= tests ophthalmic branch; lateral canthus= tests maxillary branch These are sensory only; need CN VII to perform motor response (blink) Mastication; dropped jaw/decreased jaw tone, muscle wasting (starts ~1 wk after paralysis) Facial sensation Touch of skin with q-tip Nasal mucosa= tests maxillary and ophthalmic branches

Answer 222

Attachment to brain: medulla Foraminal exit: orbital fissure Composition: GSE Cell bodies: Nucleus VI Distribution: Lateral rectus and retractor bulbi mm. Function: Motor to lateral rectus and retractor bulbi muscles Location: Myelencephalon (medulla oblongata) Anatomy Cell bodies in rostral medulla at level of trapezoid body -> exits cranial cavity through orbital fissure Neuro exam: Ocular placement/symmetry Lesions= lack of lateral eye movements, medial strabismus; inability to retract globe

Answer 223

Attachment to brain: medulla Foraminal exit: stylomastoid foramen Cell bodies/composition: mixed 1. SVE- Nucleus VII - m. facial expression (digastricus, stapedius) 2. GVE- P/S nuc VII- submaxillary and sublingual glands 3. SVA- Geniculate ganglion- taste from rostral 2/3 of tongue Distribution: chorda tympani- PS innervation of submandibular and sublingual salivary glands, also taste sensory greater petrosal- arises from geniculate ganglion- PS innervation of lacrimal gland and sensory functions in soft palate and nasal mucosa Function: Motor to superficial muscles of head and ear, caudal belly of digastricus, stapedius, stylohyoideus, platysma (muscles of facial expression) Efferent to lacrimal gland, lateral palatine, lateral nasal gland Sensory to rostral 2/3 of tongue, palate; inner surface of pinna Location: Myelencephalon (medulla oblongata) Anatomy Motor: Axons leave nucleus, exit ventrolateral medulla via stylomastoid foramen to muscles of fascial expression Taste: solitary tract and nucleus; medulla follows course of CN V Sensory: geniculate ganglion and branches from vagus nerve Neuro exam: Palpebral (II and VII)- motor, blink response Pinna sensation Lesions: asymmetry (lips, eyelids, ear droop), nasal deviation Neurogenic KCS- no efferent to lacrimal gland

Answer 224

Attachment to brain:medulla Foraminal exit: internal acoustic meatus Cell bodies/composition: sensory 1. SSA- vestibular ganglion- maculae and cristae 2. SSA-spiral ganglion- cochlear duct Function: Sensory; vestibular root + cochlear root Vestibular: innervates hair cells in the cristae ampullarae and macula of the membranous labyrinth; cell bodies are in vestibular ganglion within petrous part of temporal bone; transmits afferent impulses to the brain that relate to the position of the head Cochlear: cell bodies are located in spiral ganglion within osseous modiolus of cochlea; transmits impulses perceived as sound Location: Myelencephalon (medulla oblongata) Anatomy Never leaves the skull; originates in inner ear of the petrosal part of the temporal bone Inner ear -> petrosal bone -> internal acoustic meatus to medulla Neuro exam: Nystagmus, strabismus, head tilt TOWARD lesion Jerk nystagmus (horizontal, vertical, rotary)= associated with vestibular and brainstem Pendular/oscillating nystagmus= visual deficits, cerebellar disease Hearing- BAER exam

Answer 225

Attachment to brain: medulla Foraminal exit: jugular foramen Cell bodies/ composition 1. GVE- P/S Nuc IX- parotid gland 2. SVE- nucleus ambiguus- stylopharyngeus 3. GVA- ganglia IX- pharynx, carotid sinus/ body 4. SVA- ganglia IX- taste from caudal 1/3 of tongue

Answer 226

Attachment to brain: medulla Foraminal exit: jugular foramen Cell bodies: 1. GVE- PS nuc X- thoracic and abdominal organs 2. SVE- nucleus ambiguus- pharynx, larynx 3. GSA- proximal ganglion X- external ear 4. GVA- distal ganglion X- pharnyx, larnynx, thoracic and abdominal viscera Distribution:

Answer 227

Attachment to brain: medulla Foraminal exit: Cell bodies: cervical spinal cord- GSE Distribution: trapezius

Answer 228

Attachment to brain: medulla Foraminal exit: hypoglossal canal Cell bodies: Nuc XII- GSE Distribution: tongue mm.

Answer 229

Sedation/GA and concurrent ASD administration were not identified as confounding factors for decreasing AEEG diagnostic capability nor did they delay the time to first abnormality. A 4-hour minimal recording period is recommended.

Answer 230

Blue irises (positively correlated) Pigmented head patch (neg association)

Answer 231

Transcranial magnetic stimulation with recording of magnetic motor evoked potentials - most accurate when using the minimum latency of the pelvic limbs Neuro exam cervical rads

Answer 232

Corgis and Shetland sheepdogs

Answer 233

Primary 52%

Answer 234

Corn oil Used for tx of EPM

Answer 235

Trauma- most common CNS disease Idiopathic-uncommon Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy OMI Lymphoma Iatrogenic infiltration of local anesthetic Clostridial myositis Generally good prognosis

Answer 236

All dogs were <24 months of age at onset. The episodes of myotonic-like generalized muscle stiffness always occurred with exercise, and spontaneously resolved with rest in <45 seconds in all but 1 dog. Extreme outside temperatures seemed to considerably worsen episode frequency and severity in most dogs. Complete blood count, serum biochemistry including electrolytes, urinalysis, brain magnetic resonance imaging, cerebrospinal fluid analysis, electromyography, motor nerve conduction velocity, ECG, and echocardiography were unremarkable. Muscle biopsy samples showed moderate but nonspecific muscle atrophy. The episodes seemed to remain stable or decrease in severity and frequency in 6/7 dogs, and often could be decreased or prevented by avoiding the episode triggers Spaniels affected

Answer 237

Affected dogs have a stiff, uncoordinated gait and can turn rigid like a sawhorse resulting in falling over. Bunny hopping is commonly seen, and the affected dogs have an abnormal bark with stridor, pant more frequently than usual and excessively salivate. Muscle stiffness can improve with exercise but can worsen with cold and particularly excitement. The muscles may appear enlarged, and dental/jaw abnormalities may be noted. Dogs may also exhibit excessive panting and salivation, have an abnormal bark and loud raspy breathing, and have difficulty swallowing. CLCN1 Mini Schnauzer

Answer 238

1. Cord dorsum potential onset latency 2. F-wave onset latency (both corrected for limb length) 3. F-ratio were increased in dogs with lumbosacral foraminal stenosis versus those without, although there was overlap of the values between groups. The proportion of dogs with electromyographic changes was not significantly greater in MRI-affected dogs.

Answer 239

Signs of pain are common in CM/SM but are not SM-dependent, suggesting (not proving) CM-P causality. Wide (≥4 mm) SM is associated with signs of myelopathy and, if the dorsal horn is involved, phantom scratching (ipsilateral) and torticollis (shoulder deviated ipsilateral; head tilt contralateral). syrinx size inversely associated with head scratching/rubbing

Answer 240

Perioperative mortality was 33% (5/15). The median survival for all dogs was 232 days (0–1658). When dogs that did not survive to discharge were excluded, the median survival time was 708 days.

Answer 241

Locked facets "Naked facet sign" Can also see "reverse hamburger sign" shown in attached photo F Locked facets are often seen in small breed dogs in the caudal cervical spine Transverse computed tomography through the cervical spine of dogs. (A) Represents a normal C5/6 articulation, in which the articular processes give the appearance of two hamburger buns. (B) Represents a dog with locked facets at C6/7. An uncovered articular process, sometimes referred to as a “naked facet sign” can be seen in this figure

Answer 242

Intermittent

Answer 243

Conservative treatment consisting of bed rest, gabapentin, and intravenous theophylline in addition to steroids, antiepileptic drugs, and antibiotics. A gradual neurological improvement was observed, and the dog was discharged completely ambulatory with moderate proprioceptive ataxia 15 days after surgery. diffuse symmetric meningeal thickening and contrast enhancement were noted

Answer 244

Loss of pain perception and increased HASTEi are associated with a poor outcome, while more extensive decompression improves outcome. Paraplegic medium to large breed dogs with DEEH have a less favorable outcome after surgical decompression than paraplegic dogs with TL-IVDE. Recovery of ambulation occurred in 77% of dogs with and 38% of dogs without pain perception prior to surgery. Labradors and lab mixes most common

Answer 245

Presence of necrosis was decided based on an irregularly bordered component within the tumor with low signal on T1w and high signal on T2w, that did not enhance with contrast medium

Answer 246

Interspinous ligament desmotomy

Answer 247

Trigeminal mediated Low threshold firing of the trigeminal nerve resulting in apparent facial pain Magnesium - sulfate IV

Answer 248

acute canine polyradiculoneuritis

Answer 249

Positive correlation between severity of cord compression and neuro grade but multilevel compression not associated

Answer 250

40% of dogs successfully managed Lack of improvement or deterioration after 1 month post-diagnosis associated with unsuccessful outcome

Answer 251

Adjacent segment disease Lack of fusion Failure to maintain distraction

Answer 252

90% dogs had short term improvement Risk of screw loosening

Answer 253

Prosthetic disc implantation more prone to failure than distraction/stabilization

Answer 254

Multiple sites of compression

Answer 255

Transient neuro worsening post op in 70% of cases, after a few weeks only 4% deterioration Medical management- 55% success, 45% deterioration

Answer 256

hog cholera virus and circovirus in piglets Border virus in lambs

Answer 257

Axonopathy

Answer 258

Neurons Oligodendroglia Astrocytes Microglia Endothelial cells

Answer 259

Thiamine deficiency Lead toxicity bromethalin (of white matter) typically grey matter more affected (in contrast to vasogenic edema)

Answer 260

2D/(F-M-1) Sciatic-tib= 78m/s Ulnar- 79m/s Cats sciatic tib- 97 m/s

Answer 261

2.6 + (0.02 x nerve length)

Answer 262

The normal value for canine tibial nerve is 1.95 at the hock, and 0.88 at the stifle

Boards Study Flashcards

(304 cards)