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Bobby's MCAT Flashcards > Bobby -- BIO - Flashcards > Flashcards

Bobby -- BIO - Flashcards

1
Q

Recognize when the passage is asking for matching, take extra time/slow down

A

Recognize when the passage is asking for matching, take extra time/slow down

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2
Q

Which steps involved in the contraction of a skeletal muscle require binding and/or hydrolysis of ATP?

A

Dissociation of myosin head from actin filament, conformational change that moves actin and myosin filaments relative to one another, and reuptake of calcium into the sarcoplasm

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3
Q

The addition of acetylcholine to skeletal muscle induces what?

A

Depolarization of the cell membrane, which results in contraction

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4
Q

What is the terminal electron acceptor in lactic acid fermentation?

A

NAD+ is the terminal electron acceptor in lactic acid fermentation

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5
Q

What is the role of acetylation and methylation in gene expression?

A

Deacetylation (DNA/histones more tight), Methylation (methyl groups) - both gene silencing; Acetylation (looser histones) - increase gene expression

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6
Q

What are monocytes?

A

Monocytes are the largest type of white blood cells, they aid in hosting the immune response

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7
Q

What are the rules of DNA replication (in regards to ploidy)?

A

Two 2n (diploid) nuclei -(DNA replication)-> Two 4n (tetraploid) nuclei -(Nuclear replication +equal DNA division)-> Four 2n nuclei -(DNA replication)-> Four 4n nuclei

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8
Q

What are the functions of the golgi apparatus, the lysosome and the nucleolus?

A

The golgi apparatus packages and delivers cellular material for transport, lysosome degrades material w/in the cell, nucleolus is the site of rRNA transcription and processing

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9
Q

With what type of group would a positively charged amino acid interact?

A

The arginine amino acid (positively charged) will interact with phosphate groups (negatively charged)

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10
Q

What is the effect of acetylcholine release inhibition?

A

If acetylcholine release is inhibited, the skeletal muscle will not be able to contract, therefore flaccid paralysis will occur

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11
Q

What does mass spectrometry do?

A

Mass spectrometry measures the size of one molecule. It breaks it into fragments, making further analysis impossible

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12
Q

What are functions of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Fight or flight: pupil dilation, inc heart rate, blood vessel dilation (skel muscle) and constriction (gastro organs), inhibition of peristalsis by digestive tract

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13
Q

What is LeChateliers principle?

A

H+ + HCO3- H2CO3 H2O + CO2. A decrease in products will shift the equilibrium right. Inc resp -> dec CO2 -> dec H+ -> inc pH

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14
Q

Which vitamins are water-soluble?

A

Water-soluble: Vitamins B and C, Lipid-soluble: Vitamins A, D, E, K

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15
Q

What are the types of restriction enzymes, where do they function?

A

TypeI: Cleave far from recog site (require both ATP and S-adenyl), TypeII: Cleave close, require Mg, TypeIII: Cleave close, need ATP, TypeIV: Target modified DNA

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16
Q

What is a solution that will properly neutralize an acidic solution?

A

1 M Tris*HCl, pH 8.5

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17
Q

What is the role of the gall bladder?

A

The gall bladder secretes bile, but has no role in absorption

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18
Q

Which molecules can freely cross the eukaryotic cell membrane?

A

Only small, nonpolar molecules (aldosterone, O2, CO2) freely cross eukaryotic cell membrane

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19
Q

What is the difference between adaptive immune response and cell-mediated?

A

Humoral immunity is a part of adaptive immune reseponse (B cell activity - antibody or immunoglobin response). Cell-mediated: phagocytes, T cells, MHC I

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20
Q

What is the pathway through which information travels from the CNS to the periphery?

A

Cerebral cortex –> spinal cord –> efferent neurons –> interneurons –> motor neurons –> muscle tissue

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21
Q

What is a very common mistake in experiments?

A

All experiments need a control

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22
Q

Why do eukaryotes only use monocistronic mRNA (contain a single gene), while prokaryotes can use polycistronic mRNA (containing multiple genes in a single transcript)?

A

Because in eukaryotes, each gene has its own transcription initiation site

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23
Q

What is the definition of hybridization?

A

Hybridization - describes a process of binding through complementary nucleotides

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24
Q

What do the bars (with stars) in the graph signify (in regards to statistics)?

A

The bars in the graph (with stars) signify the statistical significance of the data

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25
Q

Use process of elimination

A

Use process of elimination

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26
Q

What is unusual about erythrocytes?

A

Unlike almost all cells in the human body, erythrocytes (red blood cells) do not contain DNA or a membrane-bound nucleus

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27
Q

Which amino acids are typically phosphorylated in eukaryotes?

A

Serine (S), Tyrosine (Y), and Threonine (T) are the amino acids typically phosphorylated in eukaryotes

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28
Q

What is the function of a phosphatase enzyme?

A

Phosphatase enzymes remove a phosphate group from a substrate (the opposite function of a kinase, which adds a phosphate group)

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29
Q

What will happen to a cell exposed to hypotonic conditions?

A

Water will flow into the cells, because the cell has more solute (hypertonic) than the environment (hypotonic)

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30
Q

What is stimulation of the iris dilator musle a result of?

A

Dilation of the pupils (stimulation of the iris dilator muscle) is a fight-or-flight response - it is part of the sympathetic nervous system (stimulation of sympathetic motor neurons)

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31
Q

What is the function of aldosterone?

A

Aldosterone is released from the adrenal cortex in response to low blood pressure. Its primary function is to increase sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule

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32
Q

What is the most effective technique for sterilizing used lab materials?

A

The most effective technique for sterilizing used lab materials is using an autoclave (place the materials in an open metal container and autoclave the container)

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33
Q

Where should induction of a certain mutation be to create a population of mutation-positive offspring?

A

The mitochondria of ova - because they predominate due to their much larger numbers compared to mitochondria of the sperm, as well as the sperm mito’s association with ubiquitin (so it is targeted for destruction post-fertilization)

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34
Q

What is a double crossover event?

A

A double-crossover event is one in which chromosomal arms of homologous chromosomes cross over in two different places along the arm

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35
Q

In which muscle types does troponin function?

A

Troponin is a complex of three proteins required for muscle contraction in skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle

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36
Q

What is the general function of insulin?

A

In general, think of the function of insulin is causing the body to build up large molecules to store up energy (glycogen, lipids, fats)

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37
Q

What kind of reaction is adding an -OH bond to a double bond?

A

It is neither an oxidation nor a reduction reaction, because 1 oxygen (-OH) and 1 hydrogen (-H) bond are each added

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38
Q

What is the cause of a symptom of increased ammonia levels in the blood?

A

High ammonia levels in the blood are a signal of increased protein metabolism (if fatty acid metabolism is blocked) because the -NH3 groups come from amino acids

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39
Q

What is the Hardy-Weinberg equation?

A

The Hardy-Weinberg equation: A+a=1, and AA+2Aa+aa=1

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40
Q

Species that are capable of both sexual and asexual resproduction will prefer which one, and why?

A

Because it creates more variation in the next generation. The increase in variability helps improve survival of the whole species

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41
Q

What are some characteristics of a compound that would be insoluble in water?

A

Multiple hydrocarbon groups (nonpolar), electron delocalization, and no charge contribute to a compound having low solubility in hydrophilic media

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42
Q

What is the mitotic spindle composed of?

A

The mitotic spindle is composed of microtubules (cytoskeletal components made of tubulin)

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43
Q

What is the effect of cholesterol on membranes?

A

Cholesterol decreases membrane fluidity at moderate to high temperatures, and increases membrane fluidity at low temperatures

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44
Q

What are free radicals and what do they do?

A

Free radicals are molecules or atoms that contain one unpaired valence electron. They serve as highly reactive oxidizing agents

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45
Q

What are some common eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

E. coli (bacteria) and archaea are prokaryotes with no nuclei. Homo sapiens and fungi are eukaryotes with nuclei.

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46
Q

How is the blood buffered by other plasma proteins?

A

The amino acid residues that make up the protein may act as Brønsted acids or bases, reducing shifts in pH and thus buffering the blood

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47
Q

What are analogous structures?

A

Analogous structures - those that evolved independently to carry out the same function (wing of a bee and wing of a bird)

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48
Q

What are homologous structures?

A

Homologous structures - those that have a similar evolutionary history, arising from the same source, even if they now have different functions (forelimbs of mammals - human arm, walrus flipper, bat wing)

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49
Q

If a certain mutation is only present in noncancerous tissue, what type of mutation is it?

A

The mutation is somatic, and thus not heritable

50
Q

What is the purpose of a signal sequence factor?

A

It codes for localization to the membrane through the rough ER (for transmembrane proteins)

51
Q

Myosin binds actin (during muscle contraction), after troponin binds which ion?

A

Ca2+ binds to troponin, which pulls tropomyosin away from actin’s myosin-binding site. This allows myosin to bind actin.

52
Q

How many fused rings does a steroid have?

A

A steroid has a fused 4-ring structure (review actual structure also)

53
Q

When concentrated urine is being produced, in which of the region of the kidney will the glomerular filtrate reach its highest concentration?

A

Glomerular filtrate is most concentrated in the medullary portion of the collecting duct

54
Q

How does the initial filtration step in the glomerulus of the mammalian kidney occur?

A

The initial filtration in the glomerulus occurs as blood pressure forces the liquid from the glomerulus into the lumen of Bowman’s capsule.

55
Q

What would be the potential answer to a question about why researchers are interested in a research question?

A

The answer to the question must be somewhere in the passage

56
Q

What is the main input of the Krebs Cycle?

A

Acetyl Coenzyme A (Acetyl CoA) is the main input of the Krebs (Citric Acid) Cycle

57
Q

Why can’t animal viruses grow on a noncellular agar-based medium?

A

Viruses can only reproduce in a host cell, and are therefore obligate intracellular parasites

58
Q

How are nucleotides linked (from the 5’ end to the 3’ end)?

A

Nucleotides are linked by phosphodiester bonds between the sugar base of one and the phosphate of the other, so that the 5’ end bears a phosphate, and the 3’ end a hydroxyl group

59
Q

The movement of sodium ions into a neuron causes the neuronal membrane to do what?

A

The movement of Na+ into a neuron during an action potential results in opening of more voltage-gated sodium channels, causing further depolarization

60
Q

What do glucocorticoids affect?

A

Glucocorticoids act on skeletal muscle causing the breakdown of muscle proteins

61
Q

Where does cleavage (of proteins) take place for secreted proteins?

A

Secreted proteins (such as insulin) are cleaved into mature form within the endomembrane system

62
Q

What are some symptoms of diabetes mellitus?

A

Sweet-tasting urine (excretion of excess sugar into the urine), catabolism of fatty acids (weight loss) and proteins (fatigue)

63
Q

How to do Punnett Square analysis?

A

Do 1/4, 1/2, 1/4, then times 1/2 and 1/2, etc until you have everything in terms of x/8

64
Q

What is the function of phosphatase enzymes?

A

Phosphatases are a class of hydrolase responsible for the cleavage of phosphate bonds utilizing water to remove a molecule of inorganic phosphate

65
Q

What is anterograde vs. retrograde transport?

A

Anterograde - outward (eg. from the cell body to the membrane), Retrograde - inward (eg. from the membrane to the cell body). So retrograde transport would be from the Golgi back to the ER

66
Q

Focus?

A

Focus on exactly what the question is asking

67
Q

Which type of treament is better: proactive or reactive?

A

Proactive treatment (before symptoms appear) is better than reactive (after symptoms have appeared)

68
Q

What is a major function of the adaptive immune system?

A

In the adaptive immune system, the body develops antibodies to fight ANY foreign substances (antigens)

69
Q

How does cytochrome c act during oxidative phosphorylation?

A

Cytochrome c is a heme protein that only cycles between a ferrous and ferric state during oxidative phosphorylation. Therefore, only single electron transfers are possible

70
Q

What makes a suitable primer for PCR?

A

Suitable primers (prepare a gene for replication) have a high GC content and G or C base pairs at the 5’ and 3’ ends

71
Q

When does nondisjunction occur during meiosis?

A

Nondisjunction (meiosis) occurs during either anaphase I (homologs) or anaphase II (sisters), when the chromosomes fail to break apart

72
Q

Which feature of kinetics provides evidence of transport during low concentrations of substrate?

A

At low concentrations of substrate, only high affinity transporters would be able to facilitate uptake

73
Q

What effect does changing concentration of transport protein have on transport affinity?

A

Transport affinity for a given substrate is a property of the transport protein itself, thus Km will not change as a result of increased concentration of transport protein

74
Q

Which form of isomers (D or L) are used to form proteins during ribosomal protein synthesis?

A

Only L-isomers are used to form proteins during ribosomal protein synthesis

75
Q

How does bacteria regulate gene expression for digestive enzymes?

A

The regulation of gene expression is one method by which bacteria respond to changes. Upon addition of a new metabolite, expression of digestive enzymes are expressed (and when metabolite is absent, the enzymes are not expressed)

76
Q

Where do venules first flow into?

A

Veins are the first vessel type downstream of venules

77
Q

What is the result of fewer visual pigment molecules being available to absorb light?

A

When fewer visual pigment molecules are available to absorb light, fewer signals of the weakly perceived color are sent to the brain

78
Q

What happens when the pigment of a certain color is absent in a person?

A

If the red pigment is absent, green cones will be strongly stimulated, hence red colors will appear more green than normal

79
Q

The genes for color blindness will affect production of proteins in which types of cells?

A

The genes will affect photoreceptors, which are visual receptor cells in the retina that absorb light

80
Q

What is brown adipose tissue (BAT)?

A

Brown Adipose Tissue (BAT) is a specialized adipose tissue that contains large numbers of mitochondria that generate heat during thermogenesis

81
Q

In the complete absence of O2, what happens during metabolism?

A

In the absence of oxygen, pyruvate is converted to lactate in the cytoplasm (lactic acid fermentation) and is not transported to the mitochondria to be converted to acetyl-CoA

82
Q

What is the structure of a fatty acid?

A

Fatty acids contain a carboxylic acid head group (polar) and a hydrocarbon tail (nonpolar)

83
Q

What is the function of carbonic anhydrase?

A

Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the reaction of H2O + CO2 –> H2CO3

84
Q

What is the difference between CO2 levels of veins and arteries?

A

Systemic veins carry high CO2 levels, while systemic arteries carry low CO2 levels

85
Q

What effect does proline have on secondary structure?

A

Proline disrupts a-helices (thus disrupting secondary structure)

86
Q

What is a low Kd equivalent to?

A

Lower Kd is equivalent to a higher Ka (thus more likely to stay bound instead of dissociating)

87
Q

What would result in the largest decrease in the entropic penalty associated with a protein folding into its native conformation?

A

Changing a surface-exposed hydrophobic residue for a more hydrophilic residue eliminates the entropic penalty associated with ordered water molecules around hydrophobic groups

88
Q

What are some structures dervied from the endoderm?

A

Mouth is derived from invagination of ectoderm, while most of the epithelial tissues inside the body (bronchi, bladder, stomach) are derived from endoderm

89
Q

What is an example of highly proliferative cells?

A

The epithelial cells that line the GI tract (gastrointestinal tract) are typically highly proliferative

90
Q

What is the mechanism for phagocytosis by a macrophage?

A

When a macrophage ingests a foreign material, the material intially becomes trapped in a phagosome, which fuses with a lysosome to form a phagolysosome (where enzymes digest the foreign object)

91
Q

How is PFK-1 inhibited by ATP?

A

Negative feedback of PFK-1 by ATP is allosteric regulation

92
Q

What does a high PI imply?

A

PI that is well-above 7 implies that the protein is positive when pH is 7

93
Q

What does ubiquitination mean?

A

Ubiquitination targets a protein for degradation by a proteasome

94
Q

Where does Vasopressin (ADH) function exactly in the kidneys?

A

Vasopressin (ADH) regulates the fusion of aquaporins with the apical membranes of the collecting duct (kidney) epithelial cells

95
Q

What is a prion?

A

Prion (infectious protein) - an abnormally folded protein that induces a normally folded version of the protein to also adopt the abnormal structure, which is often deleterious

96
Q

Where does blood go first after the small intestine?

A

Blood from the small intestine is transported first to the liver, which regulates nutrient distribution and removes toxin from the blood

97
Q

What is the critical structure for endocytosis?

A

Internalization of viral particles through endocytosis is mediated by endosomes

98
Q

What is the function of proteases?

A

Proteases function to digest proteins into smaller fragments

99
Q

How many net ATP molecules are produced from each glycolysis round?

A

One glucose molecule produces only 2 net ATP from each round of glycolysis

100
Q

Review muscle contraction mechanics (actin/myosin/etc)

A

Motor proteins such as myosin move along microfilaments through interaction with actin

101
Q

What is the definition of lysosomes?

A

Lysosomes: membrane-bound organelles that contain hydrolytic enzymes activated by a low pH, and can degrade many biomolecules

102
Q

Where do microtubules originate from?

A

Microtubules are cellular structures that originate from centrosomes

103
Q

How do cytotoxic T-cells function?

A

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes target virus-infected cells by recognizing the viral antigen presented on the cell surface (the T-cell receptors bind the antigen)

104
Q

Where is sperm produced and where does it become motile (two different)?

A

Sperm is produced in the seminiferous tubules of the testes, completes maturation and becomes motile in the epididymis

105
Q

How does ATP function during normal muscle contraction and why does muscle stiffen after death?

A

During normal muscle contration, ATP is required to break the bonds between the actin filament and the myosin head. After death, no new ATP is generated, so the myosin head cannot be released from the actin filament (resulting in stiffening of muscles)

106
Q

What is the main function by which proteases act?

A

Proteases catalyze hydrolase activity

107
Q

How does a prokaryotic cell regulate transcription of an operon containing two genes?

A

An operon containing two genes in prokaryotic cells is transcribed from a single promoter upstream of the first gene in the operon

108
Q

How is contractile force increased in cardiac myocytes?

A

Enhancement of the contractile force of the heart would be accomplished by anything that increases intracellular calcium levels

109
Q

What type of transport is Na+K+ATPase?

A

The Na+K+ATPase is an example of primary active transport

110
Q

When would the body produce protection against oxidative stress?

A

Fasting leads to (beta) fatty acid oxidation which produces ketone bodies (which protect against oxidative stress)

111
Q

What does a flat line in a graph indicate?

A

The flat line in the graph indicates that AcTubK40 is not affected by BOHB, thus BOHB is not a general deacetylase inhibitor

112
Q

What kind of sequences can restriction enzymes recognize and bind to?

A

Restriction enzymes only recognize palindromic secquences (ex: GGGCCC)

113
Q

Where does succinate dehydrogenase function (two places)?

A

Succinate dehydrogenase functions in the Krebs Cycle and also as Complex II in ETC

114
Q

Prob with passage

A

Didn’t recognize that the analysis was only recognizing the radioactively-labeled precursor

115
Q

Calc mistake

A

Calc mistake

116
Q

What does increased temperature do to a reaction?

A

Temperature only increases the rate of the reaction, not ratio of products/reactants produced

117
Q

How do viruses replicate themselves?

A

Viruses use reverse transcriptase to replicate themselves

118
Q

What is the function of glomerular capillaries in the kidney?

A

Glomerular capillaries prevent the entry of large molecules (proteins) into the filtrate

119
Q

Read the passage and reactions carefully

A

Read the passage and reactions carefully

120
Q

What is the main function of the small intestines?

A

Small intestines function by absorbing nutrients

Bobby's MCAT Flashcards (4 decks)

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