Bold is Beautiful, exam 1 Flashcards

(81 cards)

1
Q

cystic fibrosis

A
  • multisystem disease

- affecting digestive system, pulmonary, sweat glands and reproductive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

major cause of morbidity and mortality in CF

A

-the progression of lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the CF mutation

A
  • single large gene on chromosome 7

- cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CFTR protein

A

-regulates volumes and composition of exocrine secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CF gene type

A
  • autosomal recessive exocrinopathy, affects multiple epithelial tissues
  • one recessive allele from father and mother “ee”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how many CFTR genes with potential to cause disease

A

1900 different mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

most common mutation in CF

A
  • delta F508
  • deletion of three DNA bases
  • 70% of Caucasian patients
  • founder effects: certain mutations are found at higher frequency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

CFTR gene classification

A
  • 5 different classes

- class I to III cause more severe disease (tRNA/mRNA involvement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CF class I mutations:

A
  • defective protein production
  • cause by nonsense, frameshift, splice-site mutation
  • leads to premature termination of the mRNA
  • complete absence of the CFTR protein
  • 60% of Ashkenazi jews carry the nonsense mutation (founder effect)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CF class II mutation:

A
  • defective protein processing
  • prevents the protein from trafficking to the correct cellular location
  • delta F508
  • 70% of disease causing alleles in the U.S.
  • 50% are homozygous for F508 deletion
  • 90% will carry at least one copy of this mutation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

CF class III mutation:

A

-diminished channel active in response to ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CF class IV mutation:

A
  • protein is produced correctly and on cell surface
  • the rate of ion flow and the duration of channel opening are reduced compared to normal CFTR function
  • known as gating defect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CF class V mutation:

A
  • reduced amounts of functional CFTR protein

- alter the stability of the mature CFTR protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CF gene modifiers

A
  • inconsistent association between CF genotypes and phenotypes
  • not directly related to the CFTR gene but affects the severity of clinical manifestations
  • 20% of patients exacerbates the pulmonary disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CFTR gene classifications

A
  • combination of mutations are often unclear
  • due to the influence of gene modifiers
  • specific mutations should not be used to make assumptions
  • truly variable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mannose-binding lectin (MBL)

A
  • important in the complement system
  • increased risk for pyogenic infections
  • reduced lung function
  • burkholderia cepacia complex
  • early death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

TGF-beta 1 in CF

A
  • transforming growth factor-beta
  • suppressor of T cell activation
  • associated with more severe CF lung disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CF time course

A
  • highly variable time course from months to decades

- develop chronic infections of the respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CF: incomplete phenotype

A

-10% of patients have unusually mild manifestations or limited to one organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

immunoreactive trypsinogen test (IRT)

A
  • chemical made by the pancreas
  • when a pancreas is stressed before a baby is born, more IRT is released into the baby’s blood
  • higher for a premature or stressful delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

chloride sweat test

A
  • stimulate localized sweating
  • uses chemical pilocarpine
  • collected on Gibson-cooke (gauze)
  • > 60 mmol/L indicative of cystic fibrosis
  • demonstrates clinical disease in one or more organs
  • 20% of children with intermediate sweat chloride results will have DNA evidence of CF on expanded analysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

non-classic CF

A
  • 2% of patients
  • full diagnostic criteria but have normal/intermediate sweat chloride result
  • who were diagnosed as adults
  • lower frequency of delta F508 mutations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

survival for CF

A

-median: 36.8 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CF presenting symptom and signs

A
  • persistent pulmonary infection
  • pancreatic insufficiency
  • elevated sweat chloride levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
CF respiratory flora
- complex bacterial flora that includes staphylococcus aureus, haemophilus influenza and pseudomonas aeruginosa - burkholderia cepacia: less favorable pulmonary outlook
26
CF pancreatic secretions
- tenacious exocrine secretions obstruct pancreatic ducts and impair production and flow of digestive enzymes to the duodenum - loss of pancreatic islet cell mass - CF-related diabetes mellitus in over 30% of adults
27
CF hepatic
- obstruction of intrahepatic bile ducts | - multilobular cirrhosis in 4-15% of patients
28
intestinal CF
- 10-20% of newborns with CF | - contents of intestinal lumen are difficult to excrete
29
CF presentation in infants and children
- meconium ileus: 2 weeks in diagnosing | - other symptoms: 14.5 months diagnosing
30
reproductive CF
- represent a developmental abnormality secondary to secretory obstruction of the vas - nearly half of all men with congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens and normal lung function have two CFTR mutations
31
CFTR-related metabolic syndrome (CRMS)
- asymptomatic infants with equivocal (ambiguous) results | - sweat chloride tests may change with age
32
DNA testing with CF
- intermediate results of sweat testing should be clarified by DNA analysis using a CFTR multimutation method - most labs in the U.S. screen for 23 of the common mutations - California has a panel of 40 mutations - 2 CF-causing mutations are detected, sweat test is intermediate/positive, diagnosis is confirmed - nasal potential difference measurements
33
CF pathogens
- pseudomonas aeruginosa - airway particularly susceptible to pseudo. aeruginosa within the first year of life - staphylococcus aureus- in respiratory secretions of CF infants and children - burkholderia cepacia complex- accelerated decline in pulmonary function and shortened durvival - B. cenocepacia is contraindication to transplant
34
mRNA
- transcription - nucleus to cytoplasm to manufacture proteins (translocation) - determines the phenotype
35
chromosomes
- by which genes are transmitted from generation to generation - humans have 46 chromosomes is 23 pairs - one pair is the sex pair, XX, XY - autosomes: other 22 pairs - mitochondria contain multiple copies of a small chromosome
36
mitochondria chromosomes
- encodes a few proteins for oxidative metabolism | - all of the transfer ribonucleic acids (tRNA) used in translation of proteins in the organelle
37
locus
-exact location of a gene on a chromosome
38
alleles
- homologous copies of a gene (similar but not identical) | - each carries the same genes in the same order but the alleles for each trait may not be the same
39
homozygous
-pair of matching alleles
40
heterozygous
-a pair of genes where one is dominate and one is recessive
41
alkaptonuria (AKU)
- rare disease | - causes severe, early onset osteoarthritis
42
mutation
-and change in DNA that may adversely affect the host
43
germinal mutations
- caused by radiation/chemical mutagens - may affect a single gene or an entire chromosome - affects the progeny(descendants) where the mutation arose
44
somatic mutation
-genetic alteration acquires by a cell that can be passed to the progeny of the mutated cell in the course of cell division
45
chromosomal aberrations
- morphological: mutations that affect the appearance or shape of an organism's parts lethal: results in death of an organism
46
impact of genetic disease
- spontaneous miscarriages: 40-50% of all recognized first-trimester pregnancy losses have a chromosomal anomaly - >50% of adults will be affected by something that is genetically determined - response of treatment is also likely affected by genes
47
heterozygous reciprocal translocation
-which two non-homologous chromosomes have interchanged terminal segments
48
homozygous reciprocal translocation
-on homozygous translocation both pairs interchange
49
aneuploidy
-condition where extra or fewer copies of a particular genes or chromosomal regions are present
50
monosomy
-one member of a pair of chromosomes is missing from a diploid pair
51
trisomy
-one extra chromosome is present with the diploid pair
52
polysomy
-more than 3 copies of a chromosome are present
53
polygenic
-most human diseases results from a combined action of alleles of more than one gene
54
monogenic
-disease/condition that results from the action of alleles at one gene
55
"mendelian"
- phenotypes due to alterations at a single gene | - showed some traits were dominant relative to other traits
56
autosomal dominant inheritance
- males and females equally affected | - only one parent must be affected for an offspring to be at risk for developing the phenotype
57
autosomal recessive inheritance
-matings between individuals with the same recessive phenotype, all offspring will be affected
58
sex linked traits
-X-linked traits more prominent
59
neurofibromatosis 1
- heterozygous mutation - chromosome 17q11 - autosomal dominant - peripheral neurofibromatosis - most common type - normal life expectancy
60
neurofibromatosis 2
- mutation in the gene encoding merlin - chromosome 22q12 - central neurofibromatosis - rare, affects 1 in 25,000 - 50% of affected people inherit the disorder
61
NF 1 phenotype
- café-au-lait spots - lisch nodules in the eye - fibromatous tumors of the skin - freckling arm pits or groin - dystrophic scoliosis: less common
62
NF 2 phenotype
- hallmark finding: presence of slow-growing tumors on the eight cranial nerve - acoustic branch: hearing - vestibular: balance - vestibular schwannomas
63
NF 2 criteria
- tumor on the optic nerve or - abnormal development of the spine, temple bone of skull or tibia - a parent/sibling/child with NF 2 - bilateral vestibular scbwannomas
64
NF 2 early symptoms
- 18 and 22 years of age - most frequent: hearing loss or ringing in the ears (tinnitus) - less often: disturbances in balance, visual impairment (cataracts)
65
NF treatment
- surgery (tumor size and impairment) - radiation - chemotherapy - NF1: controlling or relieving symptoms
66
NF 2 outcome
- varies greatly among individuals | - an earlier age of onset and the presence of meningiomas are associated with greater mortality risk
67
downs syndrome
- meiotic nondisjunction - 88% coming from nondisjunction in the maternal gamete - varies greatly from individual to individual
68
downs syndrome translocation
- translocation keryotype (14/21 there is an extra copy of the 21 chromosome on the short arm of 14- robertsonian) - familial down syndrome - not distinguishable clinically
69
down syndrome marker
- the same biochemical marker used for detecting trisomy 18, Edwards syndrome - 2nd most common autosomal trisomy among live births
70
downs syndrome screening
- approach should be nondirective - risk-benefit conversation - raising a child with a chromosomal abnormality vs termination - patient needs to decide - before 20 weeks of gestation - assessment of maternal serum levels or specific ultrasound markers (most used) 11-13 weeks - Materni21- blood test (cell-free fetal DNA screening)
71
downs syndrome quadruple test
- second trimester - 15 to 18 weeks but late as 22 weeks - measures 4 biochemical markers: alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), unconjugated estriol, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and inhibin A
72
down syndrome findings
-head and neck: flat facial profile/nasal bridge, small ears, brachycephaly, protruding tongue, short neck, brushfield spots
73
DS cognitive deficits
- primarily in morphosyntax, verbal short term and explicit long term memory - syntax: average sentence length and structure - language comprehension is equal to mental age
74
DS internal issues
- complete AV canal:37% - VSD: 31% - ASD: 15% - duodenal atresia: 5% - tracheoesophageal fistula/ esophageal atresia - Hirschsprung disease: lack of movement in part of bowel - celiac disease - refractive errors: 35-76% - diabetes
75
DS atlantoaxial instability
- excessive mobility of the atlas (C1) and axis (C2), may lead to subluxation - 13% have asymptomatic AAI - important ER evaluation
76
Huntington's disease
- autosomal dominant disorder - degeneration of nerve cells - mutation found on chromosome 4p16 - unstable trinucleotide repeats (36-120)
77
HD presentation
- chorea in adults | - cerebral cortex cognitive process, memory and perception
78
HD prevalence
- white people of northwestern European ancestry - most causes are inherited - sex of parent has strong influence on the expression of HD - father expresses earlier findings - onset: 30-50 years - juvenile onset has faster progression (10-15 years) - death from extrinsic accident/disease
79
earliest changes in behavior with HD
- irritability - moodiness - antisocial behavior - psychiatric disturbance - mild dyskinesia
80
chorea
-the incessant, quick, jerky, involuntary movements that are characteristic of HD
81
HD treatment
- symptomatic relief | - drugs that block dopamine receptors may control dyskinesia